CST exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

islets of Langerhans secrete

A

pancreatic juice

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2
Q

outer layer of intestine is what

A

serosa

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3
Q

sinus between nose and orbits

A

ethmoid

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4
Q

intraoccular pressure is primarily dependent on

A

aqueous humor

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5
Q

kidneys are positioned where

A

retroperitoneally

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6
Q

function unit of the kidney is what?

A

neohron

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7
Q

pacemaker of the heart is what

A

the SA node

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8
Q

what vessel arises from the left ventricle?

A

aorta

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9
Q

trigeminal neuralgia arises from which nerve

A

V

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10
Q

abnormal increase in cells

A

hyperplasia

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11
Q

defect in an inguinal hernia occurs where

A

internal oblique

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12
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum occurs where

A

distal ileum

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13
Q

what is cryptorchidism

A

undescended testes

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14
Q

what kind of fracture has bone penetrating skin

A

compound

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15
Q

whwhat condition is it when the cranial suture line closes prematurely

A

craniosynostosis

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16
Q

what is movement away from the midline

A

abduction

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17
Q

surgical procedure to treat cholesteatoma

A

mastoidectomy

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18
Q

STFG takes what?

A

epidermis and half of dermis

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19
Q

excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults cause

A

acromegaly

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20
Q

what is a women’s first menstrual period

A

menarche

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21
Q

which tonsils are removed in a tonsillectomy

A

palatine

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22
Q

what is -trophy

A

nourishing

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23
Q

what is the exchange of gases between the blood and body cells known as

A

internal respiration

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24
Q

wrapped instrument sets must be sterilized for how long at 250F

A

30 minutes

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25
Q

If an item wrapped in an immpervious wrapper drops on the floor, what do you do?

A

use it if not wet

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26
Q

ETO is mixed with carbon dioxide to

A

reduce flammability

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27
Q

the ultrasonic washer cleans instruments by

A

cavitation

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28
Q

items hat are mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected, but not sterile are what

A

surgically clean

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29
Q

what combo kills microorganisms during steam sterilzation

A

temp and time

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30
Q

what is used to created gas plasma for sterilization process

A

hydrogen peroxide

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31
Q

how long should an ETO biological indicator be incubated before being read

A

48 hours

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32
Q

what test is used to check for air entrapment in the pre-vacuum sterilizer

A

bowie dick

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33
Q

where should a biological test pack be placed on the bottom rack of the steam sterilizer

A

front

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34
Q

For ETO sterilized items, how long must they remain in an aerator being operated at 140F

A

8 hours

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35
Q

what temp in F should a steam biological test incubator be at

A

55-60

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36
Q

To facilitate retrieval of unsterile items, what control measure is best used?

A

load control number

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37
Q

a positive biologic test will show a change or no change in color

A

change

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38
Q

When breaking down the setup, the STSR should place the instruments in what?

A

a basin with water for transport to decon

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39
Q

what is most often used for spot cleaning of blood and body fluids spills on the OR floor

A

chlorine compounds

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40
Q

recommended weight of an instrument tray is what

A

16lbs

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41
Q

universal compression rate for 1 rescuer CPR (before giving breaths)

A

30

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42
Q

with 2 -person CPR, how often do you rotate the role of compressions?

A

2 minutes

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43
Q

The ratio of compressions to ventilations for infants and children during 2 rescuer CPR is what?

A

15 to 2

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44
Q

How deep should the chest be compressed in an adult for CPR

A

1&1/2 to 2 inches

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45
Q

in an adult, chest compressions take place where?

A

the middle of the sternum

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46
Q

chest compressions are recommended if the infants HR is less than what

A

60 BPM

47
Q

is Adaptic adherent or non-adherent

A

non-adherent

48
Q

whats the name of a nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine?

A

miller-abbott

49
Q

What are Malecot, mushrooms and sumps?

A

drains

50
Q

what drain tubes would be used in a radical neck dissection

A

hemovac

51
Q

When 2 chest tubes are used in a cardiovascular case, what is the upper tube used to evacuate?

A

air

52
Q

what type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection

A

kitner

53
Q

which dressing is ideal for a neck procedure?

A

stent

54
Q

What type of catheter is used for chemo agents in the abdomen

A

Tenckhoff

55
Q

a curved, tapered needle is used most often on

A

the bowel tissue

56
Q

what does inert mean?

A

reactive

57
Q

what is the least inert of meshes

A

mersilene

58
Q

which type of mesh is not preferred in the presence of infection

A

mersilene

59
Q

what type of suture should not be used in the presence of infection

A

silk

60
Q

what needle point would be used on a tendon

A

cutting

61
Q

the type of needle point used on peritoneum and intestine is

A

taper

62
Q

a stick tie is a what

A

swaged needle

63
Q

a characteristic of polyglycolic acid (VICRYL) suture is that they are what

A

absorbed by the body

64
Q

which suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption

A

chromic gut

65
Q

suture used in tendon repair

A

polydioxanone PDS

66
Q

which suture is a polyester fiber suture?

A

Ethibond

67
Q

most widely used non-absorbable

A

nylon

68
Q

which suture is absorbable and offers extended wound support

A

PDS

69
Q

what type of suture is surgilon

A

nylon

70
Q

another name for polyglactin 910

A

Vicryl

71
Q

where would a cutting needle be contra-indicated

A

nerve

72
Q

what needle point is used on skin

A

cutting

73
Q

what is a taper needle used for

A

tissue inside the body

74
Q

plain gut is absorbed in how many days

A

70

75
Q

what is the dura mater closed with

A

silk

76
Q

splenectomy incision

A

subcostal

77
Q

incision for resection of sigmoid colon

A

paramedian

78
Q

what procedure would a thoracoabdominal incision be used

A

partial gastrectomy

79
Q

what surgery requires an abdominal and rectal incision for lower rectal malignancy

A

an abdominoperineal resection

80
Q

the incision for a Caldwell-Luc is what

A

canine fossa

81
Q

what is the approach from the sella turcica for a trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy?

A

upper gum margin

82
Q

which hemostatic agent is contraindicated for use in presence of infection

A

absorbable collagen

83
Q

Which hemostatic agent must be applied and handled dry

A

avitene

84
Q

what is not recommended for use on bones for hemostasis

A

oxidized cellulose

85
Q

what does not control bleeding in the skin and glia

A

thrombin

86
Q

what term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arms

A

telesurgery

87
Q

what is the technical term for robotic arms

A

manipulators

88
Q

a right and left movement of the robotic arm is called

A

yaw

89
Q

where would the robotic arm be positioned on the OR table for a lower abdomen surgery

A

by patients head

90
Q

remote control of a robot is called what

A

telechir

91
Q

where should a robotic arm be placed on the OR table for a lap chole

A

patients right; mid thigh

92
Q

when setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the patients skin surface

A

1 cm or less

93
Q

silverman biopsy needle is used on what organ

A

liver

94
Q

what instrument is used to provide traction during an open gallbladder

A

mixter forceps

95
Q

what would a Humi cannula be used for

A

tuboplasty

96
Q

what is another name for the uterine dressing forcep found in a D&C tray

A

bozeman

97
Q

what sharp uterine curettes are located in the D&C tray

A

sims

98
Q

what are Denis-Browne ring retractors used for

A

retropubic prostatectomy

99
Q

what is a gomco or plastibell are used for

A

circumcision

100
Q

female urethral dilators are

A

McCarthy

101
Q

what instrument is used during a suprapubic prostatectomy

A

masson-judd retractor

102
Q

what is balanced anesthesia reffered to as

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

103
Q

what intravenous barbituate is most frequently used for general anesthesia induction

A

thiopental sodium

104
Q

what part of the body has the most abundant and various microbes

A

mouth and throat

105
Q

bacteria frequently found in soil, water and sewage

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

106
Q

what microorganism causes mad cow ( Creutzfeldt-JAkob)

A

Prion

107
Q

most frequent means by which infections are spread

A

direct contact with infected person

108
Q

what is evisceration

A

rupture of a wound with spilling of contents

109
Q

what is the substance that weakly holds edges together during the first 5 days of first intention healing

A

fibroblasts

110
Q

what kind of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser

A

Healon

111
Q

what needs to be available when mixing bone cement

A

self-contained evacuation system

112
Q

a Class D fire involves what

A

electrical or laser

113
Q

stirrups that are not padded or are improperly placed on the OR table can cause pressure on which nerve

A

Peroneal

114
Q

small pad under patients head if used to relax which muscle

A

strap muscle