CSMLS review

Question 1

Antimicrobials used in combination to treat P. aeruginosa patients

Answer 1

beta-lactam and aminoglycoside

Question 2

Haemophilus influenzae requires which factor(s) to grow?

Answer 2

X and V factors

Question 3

The porphyrin test determines the ability of an organism to:

Answer 3

synthesize X factor from delta aminolevulinic acid

Question 4

Haemophilus influenzae ALA result

Answer 4

negative

Question 5

Post streptococcal diseases

Answer 5

Acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever

Question 6

What reagent is used in the oxidase test and can be stabilized by adding ascorbic acid?

Answer 6

Dimethyl or Tetramethyl - p phenylene-diamine dihydrochloride

Question 7

Campylobacter oxidase result

Answer 7

positive

Question 8

Campylobacter jejuni can be differentiated from Campylobacter coli from these results:

Answer 8

C. jejuni: hippurate positive; C. coli: hippurate negative

Question 9

The bacterial count considered indicative of urinary tract infection is:

Answer 9

10^8 and more CFU/L

Question 10

The bacterial enzyme urease hydrolyzes the substrate urea into the endproducts:

Answer 10

Ammonia, carbon dioxide and water

Question 11

The ideal recommended procedure for collection of blood cultures when the patient is to start antimicrobials is:

Answer 11

Collect one set of samples from each arm before antimicrobials are started

Question 12

pH range of most microbiology media

Answer 12

7.2-7.6

Question 13

Class A fire extinguishers

Answer 13

For combustible solids like paper, wood, plastic, textile and cardboard

Question 14

Class B fire extinguishers

Answer 14

For liquid fuels like organic solvents and oils

Question 15

Class C fire extinguishers

Answer 15

For electrical fire

Question 16

Class D fire extinguishers

Answer 16

For flammable metals like sodium and potassium

Question 17

Putting on PPE (order)

Answer 17

Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

Question 18

Taking off PPE (order)

Answer 18

Gloves, goggles, gown, mask

Question 19

Haptoglobin is in which band of electrophoresis?

Answer 19

Alpha 2

Question 20

Beta-gamma bridging in SPE

Answer 20

Liver cirrhosis (IgA)

Question 21

Creatinine clearance adult reference range

Answer 21

1.20 - 2.20 mL/sec

Question 22

Direct method for measuring urea in which a yellow coloured compound is measured at 540 nm

Answer 22

Diacetyl monoxime

Question 23

The first step for most indirect methods for the measurement of urea

Answer 23

Conversion of urea to ammonia by urease

Question 24

Type of crystals in synovial fluid associated with gout

Answer 24

Monosodium urate

Question 25

Fixative that may cause a diffuse PAS reaction, due to unbound aldehyde group

Answer 25

Glutaraldehyde

Question 26

Chromosome abnormality in AML M3

Answer 26

15:17

Question 27

Coagulation factors that require Ca2+

Answer 27

2, 7, 9, 10

Question 28

How to remove formalin pigment

Answer 28

Alcoholic picric acid or 2% ammonia in 80% alcohol

Question 29

Masson's trichrome - muscle appears purple. What happened?

Answer 29

Bouin's fluid has not been used (or is too old) - muscle should be red, not purple

Question 30

What type of cuvette would you use to perform a spectrophotometric method that uses a wavelength in the UV range?

Answer 30

Quartz cuvette

Question 31

What is carbol fuchsin made of?

Answer 31

Basic fuchsin and phenol

Question 32

Stages of the quality hierarchy from top to bottom

Answer 32

``` TQM - total quality management QM - quality management QS - quality system QA - quality assurance (assessment) QC - quality control ```

Question 33

In fluorometry, what does the primary monochromator do?

Answer 33

Isolates the excitation wavelength

Question 34

In fluorometry, what does the secondary monochromator do?

Answer 34

Isolates the emission wavelength

Question 35

How do we account for self-absorption in flame emission photometry?

Answer 35

Initial dilution of all samples

Question 36

How do we account for mutual excitation in flame emission photometry?

Answer 36

Using both Na and K in standards, also internal standard acts as a radiation buffer

Question 37

How do we control ionization in flame emission photometry?

Answer 37

By keeping the flame temperature low

Question 38

How do we control the size of sample droplets in flame emission photometry?

Answer 38

By using a wetting agent to control the surface tension, creating smaller sample droplets

Question 39

Coulometry

Answer 39

Only purpose is to measure Cl- | A form of electrochemical titration that uses 2 pairs of electrodes: generator and indicator

Question 40

Calomel

Answer 40

Often used for a reference electrode | HgCl2

Question 41

Conductimetry

Answer 41

The measurement of current flow between 2 electrodes

Question 42

Lipemia/high protein levels interference with ISEs

Answer 42

Can interfere with indirect ISEs to cause falsely decreased results Indirect ISEs measure a dilution of the sample - if a large amount of lipid or protein is taken instead of plasma to make the dilution, there will be fewer electrolytes to measure

Question 43

Oxygen electrodes use the principle of:

Answer 43

Amperometry

Question 44

When using coulometry to measure serum chloride, what event indicates the end of the titration?

Answer 44

Silver ions generated in excess

Question 45

Membrane in an oxygen sensing electrode

Answer 45

Polypropylene

Question 46

Membrane in a CO2 electrode

Answer 46

Silicone rubber

Question 47

Membrane in a direct ISE for sodium

Answer 47

Glass

Question 48

Electroendosmosis

Answer 48

Flow of buffer ions and solvent in opposite direction of protein migration Buffer cations flow toward cathode, along with gamma globulins (cathodic migration) Minimized by using media with few ionizable groups and low protein affinity (agarose gel)

Question 49

Wick flow in electrophoresis

Answer 49

Evaporation of buffer in the middle draws up more buffer from the ends of the gel Controlled by keeping lid on system and cooling temperature

Question 50

NLFs that produce H2S

Answer 50

Salmonella, Citrobacter

Question 51

Test to differentiate K. pneumoniae from K. oxytoca

Answer 51

Indole: K. pneumoniae indole neg, K. oxytoca indole pos

Question 52

Yellow colonies on TCBS agar indicate which organism?

Answer 52

Vibrio

Question 53

Coagulase results for Staph lugdunensis

Answer 53

Slide coag +, Tube coag -

Question 54

Test to differentiate Plesiomonas from Shigella

Answer 54

Oxidase (Shigella -, Plesiomonas +)

Question 55

Streptolysin S

Answer 55

Oxygen stable, acid labile When a blood agar base with fermentable carbohydrates is used, acid produced from fermentation can kill Streptolysin S and interfere with hemolysis

Question 56

Streptolysin O

Answer 56

Oxygen labile, acid stable Inactivated by exposure to oxygen - if not incubated anaerobically, Streptolysin O can be destroyed. This interferes with hemolysis

Question 57

If an SPE was performed on a hemolyzed sample, what would the pattern show?

Answer 57

Increase in the Beta-globulin band

Question 58

The typical difference between serum and whole blood glucose values

Answer 58

Whole blood values are about 10% lower than serum

Question 59

Reference range for total calcium

Answer 59

2.10 - 2.60 mmol/L

Question 60

Reference range for ionized calcium

Answer 60

1.15 - 1.35 mmol/L

Question 61

Critical limits for total calcium

Answer 61

Critical low: less than 1.75mmol/L | Critical high: more than 3.25mmol/L

Question 62

First step for most triglyceride methods

Answer 62

Hydrolysis of triglycerides by lipase

Question 63

Myoglobin levels after AMI

Answer 63

First elevated in 1-3hrs, peaks at 6-8hrs, returns to normal within 24hrs

Question 64

CK-MB levels after AMI

Answer 64

First elevated in 4-6hrs, peaks at 12-24hrs, returns to normal within 2-3 days

Question 65

Troponin levels after AMI

Answer 65

First elevated in 4-6hrs, peaks at 12-18hrs, returns to normal within 5-14 days

Question 66

Effect of CO2 on a sample that has been left open for an extended time

Answer 66

Falsely low