CSI - Falls Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical outcomes of a fall?

A
  • 10% of patients die within 1 month
  • 30% patients die within a year
  • 10 - 20% of patients are discharged to a residential home
  • 50% return to a previous level of mobility
  • 75% of cases are females
  • 20% suffer post-operative complications
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2
Q

What is delirium?

A

Delirium is an acute, fluctuating change in mental status, with inattention, disorganised thinking and altered
levels of consciousness.
• Manifested by delusions, disorientations, hallucinations, or extreme excitement,
• Symptoms are infrequent – episodes vary in length more immediate.

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3
Q

What are 3 types of delirium?

A

Hypoactive delirium: Abnormally withdrawn and sleepy
Hyperactive delirium: Abnormally alert, restless, agitated and aggressive
Mixed type

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4
Q

What are symptoms of delirium?

A

Symptoms
• Symptomatic patterns are sudden, worsening at specific times during the day (evening or at night).
• Changes: State of confusion, changes in alertness (agitated), lack of concentration and easily
distracted.
• Disorientation
• Rambling speech
• Sleep apnoea
• Prone to emotional swings
• Hallucinations
• Paranoid beliefs

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5
Q

What are the causes of delirium?

A

Causes
• Infection
• Constipation
• Pain
• Analgesia
• Polypharmacy
• Changed environment & unfamiliarity with medical staff
• Dehydration
• Postoperative state
• Visual and hearing impairments
• Recent bereavement

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6
Q

What are the treatment and support offered to people with delirium?

A

Clinicians review patient’s medication and prevent administration of drugs associated with causing delirium.

Ensure that the patient is: Free from pain, hydrated, nourished and oxygenated

  • orientate patients with a calendar, 24 hour clock
  • hearing aids and glasses
  • avoid noise at night
  • bring personal items, cooperate with family and friends
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7
Q

What is the role of geriatricians in the MDT?

A

Fragility fractures predominantly affect the elderly
demographic.
Refer to Care for the Elderly – advisable to
reduce morbidity and mortality associated with
injury and post-surgery.
Appropriate inpatient care

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8
Q

What is the role of physiotherapists in the MDT?

A

Physiotherapists focus on promoting adequate movement
for patients as part of strength regain.
Provide exercise and stretch programmes that
assist with healing.
Muscle-strengthening exercises, and balance
training
Occupational therapists also play a role in
rehabilitation during admission and following
discharge.

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9
Q

What is the role of GPs in the MDT?

A

General practitioners have a role in identifying fragility
fractures and managing secondary prevention.
Help identify patients who are at risk, and thus
implement primary preventative measures.

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10
Q

What is the role of the Liason psychiatry team?

A
  • play a role in supporting and managing patients with dementia
  • manage patients with visual and hearing impairments
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11
Q

What is Shenton’s line?

A

Shenton’s line is an imaginary curved line along the inferior border of the superior
ramus, along the inferomedial border of the proximal femur.
• It is continuous and smooth

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12
Q

How do you image osteoporosis?

A

Imaging
• Plain films: X-ray of pelvis, hip, femur and knee: The entire length of the femur needs to be
visualised in order to establish an entire radiographical picture to lead a suitable intervention.
• MRI/CT: If plain films are inconclusive, conduct alternative forms of imaging to exclude occult
fractures.
• Chest X-ray: Required pre-operatively.
• Echocardiogram: Conducted if a new murmur is auscultated in in patients with ECG abnormalities.

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13
Q

What are the clinical features of osteoporosis?

A

Clinical diagnostic features of osteoporosis:
Parameter - Normal range

Vitamin D - 30-100ng/ml (Optimum)
• <20ng/ml – Deficiency
• 20-20ng/ml – Insufficiency

cCa2+ - 2.2-2.7 mmol/L

Oxygen Saturation - >95%

Respiratory Rate - 12-20 Breaths per Minute

Heart rate - 60-100 Beats per Minute

Full blood count - detection of haematological features or pathological disorders in blood.

Other investigations involve Urine & Electrolytes test, CRP and clotting

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14
Q

What are the pharmacological treatments for osteoporosis?

A
  • zoledronic acid
  • raloxifene
  • teriparatide
  • biphosphonate treatment
  • denosumab
  • strontium ranelate
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15
Q

What is the affect of zoledronic acid?

A

Inhibition of bone resorption through inhibiting osteoclastic activity and induces osteoclast apoptosis.

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16
Q

What is raloxifene?

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator and exhibits agonist characteristics to the oestrogen
location

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17
Q

When is teriparatide prescribed and why?

A

Treatment is prescribed in advanced circumstance of osteoporosis, a portion a parathyroid
hormone, amino acid sequence 1-34 PTH mediates the osteoblast during intermittent injections.

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18
Q

Why is strontium ranelate prescribed?

A

Strontium Ranelate
In postmenopausal women and men at a high risk of osteoporosis, SR is suggested.
• There is an associated risk of myocardial infarction – therefore is not administered to patients with a
past medical history of coronary heart disease.

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19
Q

What is denosumab and why is it given?

A

Denosumab
Monoclonal antibodies that reduce osteoclast activity, and thus bone resorption.
• Administered to postmenopausal women as secondary prevention of osteoporosis in individuals with
bisphosphonate intolerance

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20
Q

What is bisphosphonate treatment and how does it work?

A

Bisphosphonate treatment
Bisphosphonates: Alendronate inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Attach to hydroxyapatite
binding sites on superficial bone surfaces undergoing active resorption.
• Bisphosphonate impairs the ability of the osteoclasts forming ruffled border, to adhere to the bony
surface and produce proteins necessary for continued bone resorption.
• Reduced osteoclast activity by decreasing osteoclast progenitor development, and recruitment,
promotes osteoclast apoptosis.

Bisphosphonate should be prescribed alongside
Calcium/Vitamin D.

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21
Q

What are the main anatomical features of the femur?

A

Femur
- The proximal femur is anatomically characterised with a head and neck, and two large projections referred
to as the greater and lesser trochanters residing on the
superior shaft.

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22
Q

Why is the head of the femur important?

A
  • the spherical nature of the head allows it to aritculate with the acetabulum of the pelvic bone, forming a ball and socket synovial joint
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23
Q

What forms the hip joint?

A

the articulation of the femur and pelvis

this allows the axial skeleton to connect with the lower extremity

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24
Q

What is the neck of the femur and why is it important?

A

Neck: The neck is a cylindrical strut projecting
superomedially from the shaft, forming a connection
with the head of the femur. Despite being a site of
structural weakness due to the narrow nature of the neck,
the orientation of the neck increases the range of motion
of the hip joint

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25
Q

Why is the shaft important?

A

The superior aspect of the femoral shaft bears the greater and lesser trochanter, providing attachment
sites for muscles that articulate the hip.

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26
Q

What is the greater trochanter?

A

Greater trochanter: Extends superiorly from the femoral shaft, continuing posteriorly to the medial
surface (Surface as a deep groove forming the trochanteric fossa).
N.B: The muscles that attach to the greater trochanter of the femoral shaft are: Gluteus medius, gluteus
minimus, piriformis, obturator externus and obturator internus.

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27
Q

What is the lesser trochanter?

A

Lesser trochanter: A smaller, blunt conical shape that projects posteromedially from the femoral shaft
inferior to the junction with the neck.
N.B: The muscles that attach to the lesser trochanter of the femoral shaft are: Insertion of the tendon of the
psoas major and iliacus muscle.

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28
Q

What is the Inter-trochanteric line?

A

Resides on the anterior surface along the junction of the femoral neck and
shaft traversing between the two trochanters.
N.B: Demarcates the inferior attachments of the hip capsule.

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29
Q

What is the hip capsule?

A

Hip capsule: The acetabular notch is spanned by the transverse acetabular ligament, the fossa contains
fibro-fatty tissue, thus the articular surface is a horshoe shape to minimise contact stress with the acetabulum.
• Deepened by the rim of cartilage known as the acetabular labrum.
• Head of the femur and acetabular notch are connected by the ligamentum teres from the transverse
acetabular ligament and the fovea of the femoral head

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30
Q

Why is the hip capsule important?

A

The hip capsule contains retinacular vessels that perfuse the femoral head

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31
Q

What are retinacular vessels? Why are intracapsular fractures so dangerous?

A

Retinacular vessels are branches of the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries that extend to the
head of the femur within the retinacular folds of the synovial membrane, penetrating the capsule of the hip
joint at the intertrochanteric line (Intracapsular).
Intracapsular fractures lead to a significant disruption to the vasculature of the femoral head and neck leading
to avascular necrosis.

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32
Q

What is the origin of the medial circumflex artery?

A

Originates proximally from the posteromedial
aspect of the profunda femoris artery.
• Passes over the superior margin of the
adductor magnus.

33
Q

What is the perfusion of the medial circumflex artery?

A

The ascending branch of the medial circumflex artery
supplies the blood supply to the head and neck of the
femur.
• Forms extracapsular arterial ring and
extends as retinacular vessels to supply the
head (intracapsular).

34
Q

What is the lateal circumflex artery?

A

Originates proximally from the lateral side of the
profunda femoris artery.
• Passes dee to the sartorius and rectus
femoris muscles.

35
Q

What is the perfusion of the lateral circumflex artery?

A

The ascending branch of the lateral circumflex artery
connects with the branch of the medial circumflex to
form a channel which circles the neck of the femur and
supplies the femoral head.
• Forms extracapsular arterial ring and
extends as retinacular vessels to supply the
head (intracapsular

36
Q

What is the origin of the foveal artery?

A

Descends from the posterior branch of the obturator
artery and attaches at the fovea.

37
Q

What is the perfusion of the foveal artery?

A

During skeletal development, this supplies the
epiphysis. The artery is commonly disrupted with
dislocation and forms the predominant blood supply
to the femoral head in children.
• Intracapsular fractures

38
Q

What is the origin of the metaphyseal vessels?

A
  • ascending cervical arteries
39
Q

What is the perfusion of the metaphyseal vessels?

A

Metaphyseal arteries contribute to the femoral head
post skeletal maturity however are not a major source.

40
Q

What are the effects of femoral neck fractures?

A

Femoral neck fractures interrupt the blood supply to the femoral head that is predominantly supplied by
the extracapsular arterial ring formed by the branches of the medial and lateral circumflex femoral
arteries around the base of the femoral neck.

41
Q

What are the effects of intracapsular fractures?

A

Intracapsular fractures disrupt the penetrating retinacular arteries that supply the femoral head,
ultimately manifesting as necrosis.
• The foveal artery via the ligamentum teres contributes to supplying the femoral head.

42
Q

What are two types of fractures?

A

Intracapsular -Fractures Above the inter-trochanteric line
• Extracapsular – Fracturs Below the intertrochanteric line

43
Q

Where are subcaptial fracture lines?

A

Fracture line that passes across the femoral head-neck junction → Highest risk of developing
necrosis of the femoral head.
Most common type of intracapsular fracture.

44
Q

Where are transcervical fracture lines?

A

Fracture line passes through the midportion of the femoral neck

45
Q

Where are basicervical lines?

A

Fracture line passes across the base of the neck → Lowest risk of avascular femoral head necrosis

46
Q

Which fracture type is most common and has a greater risk of avascular necrosis?

A

B: Intracapsular fracture, in particular subcapital fractures along the headneck junction are the most common, with greater risks of avascular necrosis.
• These fractures can be classified using the Garden Classification

47
Q

What is the surgical intervention for extracapsular?

A

Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS) – DHS allows fracture to ‘slide’,
promoting bone healing, treat for stable intertrochanteric hip
fracture.
• Intra-medullary nail to treat for subtrochanteric fracture.

48
Q

What is the surgical intervention for intracpasular displaced fractures?

A

Total hip replacement – Both the acetabulum and head of
femur is replaced.
• Hemi-arthroplasty – Head of femur is only replaced.
N.B: Hemi-arthroplasty in patients with existing comorbidity and not
adequately fit for complete hip replacement.

49
Q

What is the surgical intervention for intracapsular (undisplaced) fractures?

A
  • cannulated hip screw
  • dynamic hip screw
50
Q

What is the management and NICE guidlines for hip fractures?

A

Management
The majority of hip fractures are treated surgically unless there are significant co-morbidities restricting
surgical interventions.

NICE guidelines: Recommend surgery to be performed on the day of, or the day after admission.
• Enable patients to fully weight bear (without restriction) in the immediate postoperative period.
• Obtain orthopaedic opinion immediately
• Conduct pre-operative investigations and assessments
• Assess mental capacity – Delirium.

51
Q

What is conservative management of hip fractures and what are the risks of this?

A

Conservative Management
• Traction
• Bed rest
• Restricted mobilisation
Disadvantages
• Thromboembolism
• Urinary Tract Infection
• Infection –
osteomyelitis
• Pneumonia
• Pressure sores
• Muscular atrophy

52
Q

What is the supportive management of hip fractures?

A

Supportive Management:
• Analgesia: Paracetamol, codeine
• Fluid management
• Fracture stabilisation

53
Q

What is the investigative measures taken when there is a hip fracture?

A

Investigative measures:
• Plain radiographs -Identify, site, type and displacement of
fracture
• FBC- To identify whether appropriate for perfusion during
surgery
• Urea, electrolytes & glucose
• ECG – To identify any arrythmias or myocardial infarction.
• Renal function

54
Q

What is the mechanostat theory?

A

Mechanostat theory
A regulatory mechanism in bone that senses
changes in mechanical demands exerted on it, and
thus stimulating adjustments in its architecture to
accommodate the habitual load.
• Postulated that below a certain threshold of
mechanical use, bone is resorbed (Osteoclast
activity).
• Above threshold → Bone formation occurs
(Osteoblast activity)

55
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

Wolff’s Law:
States that bone grows and remodels in response to
forces that are exerted onto it. Placing specific stress
in specific directions stimulate osteocyte activity.
• Osteocyte apoptosis occurs during disuse

56
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Sarcopenia
Sarcopenia is a syndrome characterised by progressive and generalised loss of skeletal muscle, mass and
strength.
• Correlation with physical disability, low bone mineral density and falls.
• There is a loss in lean body mass (Muscle), however fat mass is preserved, leading to sarcopenic
obesity.
Risk factors: Age, gender, and level of physical activity

57
Q

What does oestrogen deficiency lead to?

A

Female osteoporosis
Oestrogen deficiency contributes towards excessive bone resorption. Osteoclasts, osteocytes and osteoclast
express oestrogen receptors on their cell-surface membrane.

58
Q

Why is oestrogen important?

A

Function of Oestrogen: Oestrogen prevents bone loss through the inhibition of osteoclastic bone resorption.
• Oestrogen indirectly causes increased production of TGF-B that enhances osteoclast apoptosis.
• In the absence of oestrogen, T-cells promote osteoclast recruitment and prolonged survival of IL-1,
and IL-6. IL-6 promotes osteoclast recruitment

59
Q

What is the relationship of oesteoporotic and hop fractures to age and gender?

A

N.B: The incidences of osteoporotic fractures in both genders increase with age.
• This upward trajectory is more prominent in females, rising earlier in postmenopausal women.
• Hip fractures proceed later and increase exponentially beyond 65 years in females.

60
Q

What are DEXA scans? How does it work?

A

DEXA Scans
Dual energy absorptiometry is a technique which enables the direct determination of bone mass at these
skeletal locations.
Transmission of two different energy beams through the body. Dual energy photon absorptiometry uses a
cathode ray X-ray tube to produce X-ray beams.
• Detectors measure the resultant incident intensity of the X-ray beam, calculating the difference
between the two beams
• Based on the variation in the difference, the bone density can be detected

61
Q

What is the diagnosis of osteoporosis and what are the T parameters?

A
  • based on measurement of bone mineral density (BMD) using dual x-ray absorptionmetry.
  • BMD results are reported as a comparision sex- matched healthy adult (T score)
  • expressed as standard deviations

Osteoporosis - T score of less than -2.5
osteopenia - T score of greater than -2.5, but less than -1.0

62
Q

When is the T score parameters used?

A
  • post menopausal women and men aed 50+ years
63
Q

What is the garden classification?

A

Garden Classification:
The Garden classification of subcapital femoral fractures (intra-capsular) is used as a predictable tool for the
development of avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis/bone infarction).

Garden classification Displacement Fracture Details

Stage I
Undisplaced
Fracture: Incomplete
Details - Valgus impacted fractures.
—————————————————
Stage II
Undisplaced
Fracture Complete
Details - No disturbance of the medial trabeculae.
—————————————————————————-
Stage III
Partially displaced
Fracture - Complete
Details - Femoral head tilts into a varus position causing its medial trabeculae to be out of line with the pelvic trabeculae.
——————————————————————-
Stage IV Completely displaced
Fracture - Complete
Details - Femoral head aligned in the acetabulum; the medial trabeculae are in line with the pelvic trabeculae
———————————————————————————–

64
Q

What is important to note about the severity of the four 4 types of fractures according to the Gardner classification?

A

N.B: In type I and II fractures there is minimal displacement, therefore there is a lessened risk to the disruption
of femoral head blood supply.
• Type III and IV fracture displacement cause significant disruption to the femoral retinacular supply

65
Q

What is parkinsons?

A

Parkinson’s
The substantia nigra is a dopaminergic nucleus residing within the midbrain that project to the striatum,
Parkinson’s disease is characterised by a degeneration of these neurones, manifesting as a combination of
motor function deficits.
• There is reduced muscle tone
• Stooped posture (bent forward) – leading to postural instability and increasing the risk of falls.

66
Q

unmodifiable factors causing falls

A

age
female gender
history of falls

67
Q

environmental factors leading to falls

A

Environmental
• Home hazards
• Inappropriate
footwear
• Insufficient
home
modifications

68
Q

chemical factors leading to falls

A
  • polypharmacy
  • particular drug culprits
69
Q

neurological causes of falls

A

Neurological
• Confusion
• Cognitive impairment
• Depression
• Poor vision
• Poor balance
• Poor co-ordination

70
Q

neuromuscular causes of falls

A

Neuromuscular
• Muscle weakness
• Gait disorder: Parkinson’s,
hemiplegia, cerebellar disease,
antalgic, normal pressure
hydrocephalus, proximal
myopathy
• Peripheral neuropathy including
sensory ataxia, foot drop.
• Arthritis and joint disorders

71
Q

other causes of falls

A
  • fear of falling
  • incontinence
  • frailty syndrome
72
Q

cardiovascular causes of falling

A

Cardiovascular
• Orthostatic
hypotension
• Arrythmias
• Syncop

73
Q

What are pathophysiological signs in bones of osteoporosis?

A

Pathophysiological signs in bone
1. Fewer trabeculae within cancellous bone
2. Osteons in cortical bone undergo thinning
3. Widened haversian canals

74
Q

What are common sites for fragility fractures?

A

Distal radius - (Colle’s fractures are common in patients with osteoporosis).

Proximal Femur
(Subcapital fracture on left femoral head)
• Extends from junction of head-neck
• Most common intracapsular fracture

Vertebral
(Osteoporotic fractures on 8th and 10th thoracic vertebrae)
• Sagittal T2 spinal MRI
• Fish vertebrae at T12

75
Q

What is a fragility fracture?

A

Fragility fractures
A fragility fracture is a fracture that is attributed to low energy mechanical forces and trauma. These forces
have been quantified to be equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

76
Q

What is osteoporosis and its diagnosis?

A

Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is defined as a reduction in bone mineral density and bone mass, resulting in bones that are
liable to fracture.
• Infection, injury and synovitis can cause localised osteoporosis
• Generalised osteoporosis is common in the elderly and typically proceeds menopause.
Diagnosis
• Quantitative digital radiography
• DEXA scan

77
Q

What are risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Risk factors
• Low calcium – stimulates PTH release
• Low oestrogen
• Drugs: Glucocorticoids (Decreases Ca2+ absorption, heparin and L-thyroxine)

78
Q

What is the pathogenesis of osteoporosis?

A

Pathogenesis
There is a bone remodelling imbalance.
Bone resorption > Bone formation
RANK ligand and RANK are mediators
of osteoclast activity.
1. RANKL are produced by
activated osteoblastic cells.
2. Binds to cognate RANK
receptor to activate
intracellular pathway (NF
kappa beta) – results in
induction osteoclastogenic
genes.
3. Activation of osteoclasts.
4. Osteoclasts resorb bone.
Osteoclast activity is regulated by
hormonal control of parathyroid
hormone, calcitonin, in addition to
calcitriol, dependent on serum
concentrations of calcium.