Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Certification Exams > CSFA > Flashcards

CSFA Flashcards

1
Q

Thrombophlebitis relates to a blood clot located in?

A

Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is an intraarticular structure of the knee?

A

Anterior cruciate ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

______ is defined as accelerated respiration.

A

Tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A ruptured alveolus may result in?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the motor function and sensory domain of the radial nerve distribution?

A

Wrist extension; dorsal aspect of the forearm/hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inflammation near or around the kidney is known as?

A

Paranephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many lobes are in the left lung?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Fracture where the tendon is pulled from bone; carries bone chip with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A disease involving the joints and nerves?

A

Neuroarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which nerve is located in the posterior aspect of the thigh?

A

Sciatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the first branch of the external carotid artery?

A

Superior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do the intercostal veins drain directly into?

A

Azygous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the osseous structures in the knee?

A

Patella
Distal Femoral Condyles
Proximal Medial Tibial Condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When performing a Carotid Endarterectomy, which nerve runs parallel to the lateral aspect of the Common Carotid Artery?

A

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What gland secretes Epinephrine?

A

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is not a symptom of shock?

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which artery comes off the middle of an abdominal aortic aneurysm and runs to the left?

A

Inferior Mesenteric Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cytology is the study of?

A

Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following terms denotes low or decreased blood volume?

A

Hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Onset of cramping calf pain with exercise that improves while the patient stands quietly is indicative of?

A

Arterial inflow problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An embryonic germ cell that matures to a muscle cell is?

A

Myoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are the cruciate ligaments located?

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are Salter classifications?

A

Fractures in children involving the physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the best definition of diaphysis?

A

Main shaft of a long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the proper definition of adduction?

A

Movement towards the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In what tissue would a figure of eight stitch be used?

A

Fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the proper definition of inversion?

A

Foot insole faces midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What water temperature range is best for preparing a plaster splint?

A

Room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the proper definition of plantarflexion?

A

Foot down at the ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the correct term for an estimate of the patient’s future progress?

A

Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In what stitch would a Connell stitch be used?

A

Intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does it mean to “Potts” a vessel?

A

Place a vessel loop twice around a vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What complication is the most critical when positioning a patient for surgery?

A

Respiratory compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is proper positioning of the legs in the lateral position?

A

Lower leg flexed, upper leg straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which knot is least likely to come untied?

A

Square knot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a mechanical method of hemostasis used during orthopedic procedures?

A

Bone wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When a patient is placed on a fracture table, care must be given to pad the perineal post to avoid injury to what nerve?

A

Pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What layer of the abdominal wall is closed last?

A

Scarpa’s fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why would a patient enter the OR wearing elastic stockings?

A

To prevent thrombus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the proper definition for dorsiflexion?

A

Foot up at the ankle joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the proper definition for pronation?

A

Rotate forearm so palm faces down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Prior to surgery for chronic Peripheral Vascular Disease, what diagnostic test will every patient receive?

A

Arteriogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What needle gauge is most appropriate for local infiltration?

A

25g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Movement that shortens a body part, such as bending the leg is known as?

A

Flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the best description of “third spacing”?

A

Fluid accumulation in the interstitium of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Retraction of fine structures during vascular surgery is accomplished by use of?

A

Vessel loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why would an external fixator be used over other treatments?

A

Better fixation of badly comminuted open fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Surgical opening in neck for insertion of a breathing tube is called?

A

Tracheostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In which age group do most rotator cuff tears start to occur?

A

50s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each side of the sternum after a median sternotomy?

A

Bone wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which nerve is most commonly at risk because of hip injury or surgery?

A

Sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the disadvantages of external fixation?

A

Fracture through pin tracts
Refracture after removal of device
Cumbersome equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When a late night exploratory laparotomy is performed, what is most commonly misdiagnosed as appendicitis?

A

Ovarian cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A biliary-enteric fistula frequently connects the gallbladder with the?

A

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When preparing the OR for orthopedic or spine surgery, what is the most important consideration for bed selection?

A

Imaging capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cervical rib resection is performed to relieve?

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Surgical crushing of a calculus or stone in the urinary tract is?

A

Lithotripsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the term for an elective surgical procedure as a permanent method of sterilization?

A

Vasectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If saphenous vein will not be used during a CABG, what is the next preferred vessel?

A

Internal Mammary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cholecystitis is defined as?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which type of suture is not used in vascular surgery to suture vessels or grafts?

A

Chromic gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Vertical-banded gastroplasty and Roux-en-Y are common procedures in which type of surgery?

A

Bariatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Immediately following a total hip or hemi arthroplasty, what is used to prevent hip dislocation?

A

An abduction pillow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a SLAP lesion in orthopedic surgery?

A

Superior labral from anterior to posterior tear in the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

As a CSA, which of the following procedures would you anticipate the use of chest tubes and a water seal drainage system?

A

Lobectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

During an open inguinal herniorrhaphy, the spermatic cord is?

A

Retracted with a Penrose drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

During a low anterior colon resection, the anvil of the EEA stapler is inserted into which structure?

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When performing a radical cystectomy, what vessels can be ligated to control bleeding?

A

Both hypogastric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which procedure involves surgical removal of a plaque from inside an artery?

A

Endarterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be verified by?

A

Radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a self-retaining retractor used for open procedures of the abdominal cavity?

A

Balfour retractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A “sweetheart” retractor is also known as?

A

Harrington retractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is needed to complete the circuit on an electrosurgical unit when using a monopolar electrode?

A

A dispersive pad (grounding pad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which surgical instrument is used to determine the screw length during an ORIF?

A

Depth gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which scissors are used for intravascular access during an Endarterectomy?

A

Potts scissors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aeration is essential following which method of sterilization?

A

Ethylene oxide gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which retractor would be most useful in a posterolateral thoracotomy?

A

Davidson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called?

A

Electromyography (EMG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the best method of preventing hypothermia in the OR?

A

Forced air warming blankets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the term for a legal wrong committed by one person involving injury to another person?

A

Tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What instrument is used to approximate the ribs following a thoracotomy?

A

Bailey rib contractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When should the CSA check overall integrity of laparoscopic instruments to ensure insulation failure does not occur?

A

Before usage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a Tru-Cut needle is used for?

A

To obtain a biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A nasogastric (NG) tube is used for?

A

To drain the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A critical component of a disaster plan that impacts the OR is?

A

Receiving area and triage of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Where is the Babcock clamp used most often?

A

Bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which radiological technique is described as an x-ray beam that moves back and forth across the body to project cross-sectional images?

A

Computed Axial Tomography (CAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A small spring vascular clamp used for occluding peripheral vessels is a?

A

Bulldog clamps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures?

A

Intra-aortic balloon pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the standard setting used in laparoscopic surgery for insufflation?

A

15mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which laser is used to vaporize a portion of the residual lens capsule after cataract surgery?

A

ND:YAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

After six (6) weeks, wounds have achieved what percent of their total tensile strength?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the vertical dimension within objects are seen in focus?

A

Depth of field

96
Q

In adults, where is the Medullary Cone of the spinal cord located?

A

L1-L2

97
Q

What is diagnosed using the Anterior Drawer test?

A

ACL tear

98
Q

_______ means microbes and infection are absent.

A

Sterile

99
Q

What is the Grey-Turner sign?

A

Flank erythema

100
Q

What defines the mechanical axis of the femur?

A

From the head of the femur to intercondylar notch of distal femur

101
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

Liver

102
Q

During which phase of colonization, does bacteria adjust to new environments?

A

Lag phase

103
Q

What is a benign granular cell tumor of the muscle?

A

Myoblastoma

104
Q

What is septicemia?

A

Presence of pathogens contaminating the blood

105
Q

Where are the mallus, incus, and stapes located?

A

Middle ear

106
Q

Which ligament is shortened with a Valgus knee?

A

LCL

107
Q

During an allergic reaction, what is the greatest risk to the patient’s airway?

A

Edema

108
Q

What should be done if the surgical time-out is interrupted?

A

Start over with the time-out

109
Q

During time-out, why are all personnel required to stop activity?

A

To effectively communicate patient identification issues or concerns

110
Q

A patient in the preoperative holding area has a question about the surgical procedure, what should the CSA do?

A

Get the surgeon to speak with the patient

111
Q

Who makes the medical decisions for a patient with a living will?

A

The patient

112
Q

Define the legal rule of Liability:

A

Holds each individual responsible for his or her own acts

113
Q

Which type of stapler is used to divide the Appendix from the Cecum during a laparoscopic appendectomy?

A

Intestinal linear anastomosis stapler

114
Q

A tourniquet that displays an error message and fails to inflate should?

A

Be removed from service

115
Q

The procedure for destroying pathogens at the end of the procedure is?

A

Terminal sterilization

116
Q

Geobacillus stearothermophilus is the biological indicator used in which sterilizer?

A

Steam

117
Q

The operative paperwork completed by the RN contains?

A

Sponge/sharp/instrument counts
Specimens
Medications given

118
Q

In the event of a chemical spill in the OR, what is the most appropriate resource for exposure control and clean-up?

A

Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

119
Q

The Latin phrase, “aeger primo” refers to?

A

Patient first

120
Q

What is a contraindication for negative pressure wound therapy?

A

Untreated osteomyelitis

121
Q

An example of “cold” sterilization utilizes which chemical?

A

Glutaraldehyde

122
Q

What is used to confirm the surgical procedure during an intraoperative time-out?

A

Patient Surgical Consent

123
Q

What does the doctrine of Respondeat Superior refer to?

A

Employer liability for employee’s negligent conduct

124
Q

A document which a person gives instructions about his or her medical care in the event that the individual cannot speak is?

A

Advanced directive

125
Q

A surgical sponge left in a patient is an example of what legal doctrine?

A

Res ipsa loquitur

126
Q

Language barriers with a patient can be stress-producing events. One way to help ease anxiety is by?

A

Use a gentle touch

127
Q

What is the purpose of a pericardial window?

A

Cardiac tamponade

128
Q

What artery may be detached and reanastomosed to the graft during an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection?

A

Renal artery

129
Q

When performing a carotid endarterectomy, which artery is clamped first prior to the arteriotomy?

A

Internal Carotid Artery

130
Q

During a carotid endarterectomy, the final occlusion clamp to be removed after anastomosis is on the?

A

Internal Carotid Artery

131
Q

Where is the inguinal hernia contents reduced to?

A

Peritoneum

132
Q

What is the best indication for endovascular abdominal aortic aneurysm repair (EVAAAR)?

A

A proximal infrarenal neck remnant of 1-2 cm.

133
Q

During a posterolateral approach to the hip, what nerve is found superficially to the obturator and gemelli and should be protected?

A

Sciatic nerve

134
Q

What is the most common reason to perform a Cesarean section?

A

Breech presentation

135
Q

When a loop of jejunum is anastomosed end-to-side with the esophagus in a total gastrectomy, a jejunojejunostomy may be done to?

A

Prevent regurgitation esophagitis

136
Q

During an ulnar nerve transposition, where is the nerve relocated to?

A

Anterior aspect of the medial epicondyle

137
Q

Where is the needle placed for an intraarticular aspiration/injection of the knee?

A

Infrapatellar

138
Q

In the event of dermoid cyst rupture, what irrigant is used to prevent chemical peritonitis caused by the sebaceous material?

A

Lactated ringers

139
Q

Where is the insertion site for a chest tube?

A

Midaxillary, 5th intercostal space

140
Q

At what canal does a vascular blockage require a femoral-popliteal bypass?

A

Adductor canal

141
Q

On which aspect of the distal radius will the incision and approach be for an ORIF?

A

Volar

142
Q

What drain is generally used for large open contaminated wounds, such as perirectal/perianal fistulas and subcutaneous abscess cavities?

A

Penrose drain

143
Q

What is the name of the node identified during a cholecystectomy?

A

Calot

144
Q

What is the most common complication of splinting and casting?

A

Skin breakdown

145
Q

What is the primary reason an elastic bandage would be utilized on an extremity undergoing a skin graft?

A

Prevention of fluid accumulation at graft site

146
Q

What gas is less soluble in blood and could persist long enough to cause a form of gas embolus?

A

Argon

147
Q

What dressing is recommended for a total hip replacement?

A

Occlusive dressing

148
Q

What stapler is most appropriate to use during a laparoscopic right hemi-colectomy to transect the ileum?

A

Endo-GIA

149
Q

What stapler is most appropriate to use during an open lower anterior and rectal resection?

A

End-to-end anastomosis stapler (EEA)

150
Q

What stapler is most appropriate to transect the bowel during an open right hemi-colectomy?

A

Linear stapler

151
Q

What suture technique is used to secure a drain?

A

Purse string

152
Q

While assisting on a knee arthroscopy, access to the medial meniscus can be achieved by using which manipulation?

A

Valgus

153
Q

Where is the axillary roll placed?

A

2 inches below the axilla

154
Q

What anatomical landmark separates the frontal and parietal lobes and is clinically important because its anterior convolution contains the center for ipsilateral motor control?

A

Fissure of Rolando

155
Q

What drug is administered during a malignant hyperthermia event?

A

Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg)

156
Q

Winged scapula is a condition caused by injury to which nerve?

A

Long thoracic

157
Q

What oral anticoagulant works as a direct thrombin inhibitor and does not require lab monitoring?

A

Pradaxa (Dabigatran)

158
Q

What is the most appropriate diagnostic study to monitor a patient on Warfarin?

A

Prothrombin time

159
Q

An autoimmune disease that causes diffuse, bilateral enlargement of the thyroid and hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease

160
Q

What class of chemotherapy agents is associated with cardiotoxicity and requires monitoring of cardiac function?

A

Anthracyclines

161
Q

During induction of anesthesia, the administration of Propofol causes?

A

A hypnotic state and sedation to unconsciousness

162
Q

What test is used to assess the adequacy of ulnar collateral circulation to the hand?

A

Allen’s test

163
Q

What padding material is most often used to protect bony prominences in cast applications?

A

Webril

164
Q

CO2 laser beams are absorbed by?

A

Water

165
Q

What study is typically used to determine Zenker’s Diverticulum?

A

Barium swallow

166
Q

What is the most effective barrier to stop laser energy from penetrating healthy tissue?

A

Moist padding of surrounding tissue

167
Q

What is the primary purpose of a chest tube?

A

Re-establish negative pressure

168
Q

Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through?

A

Biological indicators

169
Q

What laser is used for retinal surgery?

A

Argon laser

170
Q

When cardiac arrest occurs, how soon must resuscitative efforts occur?

A

3-5 minutes

171
Q

Failing to observe or act in a situation that the individual should have known about and acted on is called?

A

Negligence

172
Q

During an arterial embolectomy, which catheter can be used for clot removal?

A

Fogarty

173
Q

Event-related sterility is concerned with?

A

Integrity

174
Q

What size catheter is most appropriate following thoracotomy?

A

30 Fr.

175
Q

How many days after surgery are skin staples removed?

A

5-7 days

176
Q

Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires which instruments?

A

Alexander periosteotome
Doyen raspatory
Stile shears

177
Q

After a mitral valve replacement, a patient coming off bypass shows sign of cardiac ischemia? What caused this?

A

Occlusion of the circumflex artery

178
Q

Which tendon autograft is most commonly used when performing ACL reconstruction?

A

Patellar

179
Q

When opening the aneurysmal sac during resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm , which artery is ligated?

A

Lumbar

180
Q

When performing a culdoscopy, the Sims tenaculum should be placed on what aspect of the cervix to assist with visualization?

A

Posterior

181
Q

Postoperatively, what is closely monitored immediately after a loop colostomy?

A

Ischemia

182
Q

During a Nissen Fundoplication, medial traction on the stomach could cause avulsion to which structure?

A

Gastric arteries

183
Q

When a flank approach is used for a nephrectomy, what muscles are involved?

A

Latissimus dorsi and internal oblique

184
Q

During a tonsillectomy, what instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?

A

Long Allis

185
Q

Where does the fundus of the stomach receive its primary blood supply?

A

Short gastric arteries

186
Q

Why is a Nissen Fundoplication performed?

A

Hiatal hernia repair

187
Q

A skin graft that consists of the epidermis and half of the dermis is a?

A

Split thickness graft

188
Q

A TURP is performed to treat?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

189
Q

What is the most common incision for a unilateral nephrectomy?

A

Flank (Lumbar) incision

190
Q

What solution is used to identify diseased areas for a cold conization of the cervix?

A

Lugol’s solution

191
Q

Which muscle is used when performing a pedicle flap reconstruction mammoplasty?

A

Rectus abdominis

192
Q

The most immediate threat to life in an abdominal trauma patient is?

A

Undetected bleeding

193
Q

To create a tracheostomy, where is the incision performed?

A

Transverse incision just below the cricoid cartilage

194
Q

Which incision is most often used for open appendectomies?

A

McBurney’s incision

195
Q

Greenfield filter insertion is indicative of what diagnosis?

A

Emboli formation

196
Q

What procedure provides obliteration of the vagina by denuding and approximating the anterior and posterior walls of the vagina?

A

Colpocleisis

197
Q

Where is a common donor site for autogenous bone graft?

A

Ilium

198
Q

When would a tourniquet be contraindicated?

A

In cases where circulation to tissue is already compromised

199
Q

Fulguration is utilized primarily in which surgery?

A

TUR and prostate operations

200
Q

Where is a central venous catheter usually placed?

A

External Jugular Vein

201
Q

When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is called?

A

Pantaloon hernia

202
Q

Which hernia presents through Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Direct hernia

203
Q

What are the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament
Rectus sheath
Inferior epigastric artery

204
Q

Which fascia is entered when removing a portion of the kidney?

A

Gerota’s fascia

205
Q

What does a PSA level of 9.0mg/ml indicate?

A

High likelihood of prostate cancer

206
Q

Increased seat belt usage has increased which type of injuries?

A

Clavicle fractures
Liver lacerations

207
Q

People who are near the CO2 laser impact area can guard against corneal injuries by?

A

Wearing clear glass/plastic glasses with side guards

208
Q

When might a T-tube drain be used?

A

Choledochotomy

209
Q

When is a Heaney clamp most useful?

A

Hysterectomies (grabbing broad ligament)

210
Q

What is the most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecological surgery?

A

Robinson catheter

211
Q

What instrument is used to make the final cut to remove the uterus during an abdominal hysterectomy?

A

Jorgensen scissors

212
Q

Which laser emission is primarily absorbed in tissue by hemoglobin or melanin?

A

Argon

213
Q

What suture is used for end-to-end anastomosis of the small intestine?

A

3-0 Silk

214
Q

A patient entering the OR with rupture of esophageal varices may have what in place to control bleeding?

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore

215
Q

What is nota complication of splinting and casting?

A

Bleeding

216
Q

What incision provides optimal exposure of the abdominal cavity?

A

Vertical midline

217
Q

What legal doctrine denotes a civil wrong committed against a person or property, excluding a breach of contract?

A

Tort

218
Q

Which nerve innervates the Latissimus dorsi?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

219
Q

During dissection of the LIMA, what diluted solution should be used to dilate the artery and reduce muscle spasm?

A

Papaverine

220
Q

What is the best method of managing blood loss during a traumatic liver/hepatic resection?

A

Pringle manuever

221
Q

What method is used to expose and mobilize the duodenum?

A

Kocher manuever

222
Q

Which arteries supply blood to the thyroid?

A

External carotid artery
Superior thyroid artery

223
Q

When performing a total knee, the capsule is primarily entered?

A

Medially

224
Q

What is the hemodynamic principle describing the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation?

A

Afterload

225
Q

After injury to the leg, a patient is unable to extend the leg and has loss of sensation in the skin over the anteromedial aspect of the thigh. Which nerve has been injured?

A

Femoral nerve

226
Q

The active chemical used for sterilization in a Steris unit is?

A

Peracetic acid

227
Q

Distal portion of a Javid shunt used during carotid endarterectomy is inserted where?

A

Internal carotid artery

228
Q

A patient is experiencing progressively worsening hypotension and tachycardia. Oxygen saturation is also starting to decrease. What should be given?

A

Blood products

229
Q

The third ventricle empties into the fourth ventricle via what duct?

A

Aqueduct of Sylbius

230
Q

What drug is used to treat bradycardia in combination with hypotension?

A

Atropine

231
Q

What neurotransmitter do opioid medications block?

A

Substance P

232
Q

What treatment is given to a patient on Coumadin with an INR of 3.0?

A

Factor IX

233
Q

What is an advantage not provided by spinal anesthesia?

A

Sympathetic block and vasodilation

234
Q

Where is spinal anesthetic administered?

A

Subarachnoid space

235
Q

Dissociative anesthesia has which characteristics?

A

Analgesia
Immobility
Loss of consciousness
Amnesia
Reduced sensory perception

Certification Exams (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions