Crystalline Arthritis Flashcards

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1
Q

There is evidence that the use of a biologic IL-1B inhibitor may be an option for severe and refractory gouty arthritis attack. Why?

A

Monosodium urate crystal actviate the inflammasome and induce release of IL-1B.

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2
Q

What are some drugs against Il-1B?

A
  • Anakinra (recombinant human Il-1 receptor anatagonist)
  • Canakinumab (Il-1B Ab)
  • reilonacept (decoy IL-1B receptor)
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3
Q

What is gout?

A

Gout is marked by transient attacks of acute arthritis initiated by crystallization of monosodium urate (MSU) within and around joints.

It develops after many years of hyperuricemia. Hyperuricemia is defined as a plasma urate level greater than 7.0 mg/dL.

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4
Q

How does gout typically begin?

A

Gout typically begins as an acute monoarticular arthritis most often a joint (such as 1st MTP) in the distal lower extremity. It is a severe painful arthritis but usually resolves within 5-7 days.

Gout may also in later stages become polyarticular and can be confused with rheumatoid arthritis.

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5
Q

In some patients, the accumulation of MSU in the body results in what?

A

tophi (or large deposits of MSU) typically over extensor surface of upper or lower extremity joints. MSU can also deposit in the interstitium of the kidney leading to renal functional impairment.

Urinary stones of uric acid may also form (urolithiasis).

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6
Q

What are the major causes of PRIMARY gout?

A

Decreased renal uric acid excretion in more than 90% and overproduction of urate in less than 10% of affected patients.

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7
Q

What are the major causes of secondary gout?

A

Secondary hyperuricemia and gout are usually related to decreased renal urate clearance as a direct or indirect consequence of the primary disease process.

Four known specific inborn errors of purine metabolism with overproduction of urate account for less than 1% of cases of secondary hyperuricemia and gout

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8
Q

How is uric acid made in humans?

A

Uric acid synthesis and purine salvage. Catabolism of purines, especially inosine monophosphate (IMP) and guanosine monophosphate (GMP), results in urate synthesis via the common substrate xanthine. Xanthine oxidase is necessary for urate synthesis from any purine and so serves as a target for agents that inhibit uric acid synthesis (e.g., allopurinol, febuxostat). Purine salvage via hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) returns hypoxanthine and guanine to IMP and GMP, respectively.

Denoted in bold, mammals other than primates and some monkeys possess uricase, which converts uric acid to allantoic acid for further degradation. APRT, adenine phosphoribosyl transferase; AMP, adenosine monophosphate; PNP, purine nucleotide phosphorylase; XMP, xanthine monophosphate.

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9
Q

What does HGPRT deficiency result in?

A

partial loss not only increases in hypoxanthine and guanine and subsequent uric acid synthesis but also in the depletion of nucleotides that provide feedback inhibition on purine biosynthesis.

NOTE:

Complete absence of HGPRT also results in hyperuricemia, but the significant neurologic manifestations of this condition (Lesch-Nyhan syndrome) dominate the clinical picture so it is classified as secondary gout.

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10
Q

How is urate/uric acid handled by the kidneys?

A

freely filtered 100% at the glomeruli into the PT where it is almost (98-100%) completely reabsorbed

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11
Q

What happens to the reabsorbed urate?

A

50% of the reabsorbed urate is then secreted back into the proximal tubules where once again it is largely reabsorbed such that in the final analysis, 8-12% of the urate originally filtered by the glomeruli winds up excreted into the urine as uric acid.

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12
Q

What are the transporters of urate resorption in the kidneys? secretion?

A

reabsorption- URAT1, OAT4, OAT10

secretion- OAT1, OAT3, ABCG1, MRP4, NPT1,4

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13
Q

Why do men have more serum urate than women?

A

The normal adult male has a total body urate pool of ~1200 mg, twice that of the adult female. This gender difference may be explained by an enhancement of renal urate excretion due to the effects of estrogenic compounds in premenopausal women.

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14
Q

How does urate enter the intestine?

A

The entry of urate into the intestine is most likely a passive process that varies with serum urate concentration.

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15
Q

What is another way urate enters the urine?

A

Intestinal tract bacteria are able to degrade uric acid. This breakdown process (intestinal uricolysis) is responsible for approximately one-third of total urate metabolism, and accounts for nearly all urate disposed of by extrarenal routes. Under normal conditions, uric acid is almost completely degraded by colonic bacteria with little being found in the stool.

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16
Q

Individuals with high serum value levels may deposit urate either occultly or in the form of appreciable masses (tophi) with the consequence that the total body urate pool may be significantly higher than in nonhyperuremics.

A

Such occult deposition of uric acid (total body urate burden) may have implications for treatment because they may form a “buffering reservoir” of urate that that resists initial treatment with urate-lowering agents

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17
Q

Primary hyperuricemia in men frequently begins when?

A

at puberty, when the lower serum urate levels characteristic of children rise into the adult male range.

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18
Q

WHY GOUT AFFECT MORE MALES THAN females before menopause?

A

Due to an enhancing effect of estrogenic com­pounds on renal urate clearance. Thus, hyperuricemia in women is usually delayed until after menopause; at that point serum urate values in normal women increase, and approximate those in normal men of corresponding age.

*There is a lesser rise in urate levels in postmenopausal women treated with estrogen replacement therapy*

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19
Q

Normal age of onset of gout for men? women?

A

men- 30-45

women- 55-70

Thus, the clinical manifestations of hyperuricemia occur, on average, about two decades later than the initial physiologic increase in serum urate concentration. This observation suggests that there is a lengthy period of asymptomatic hyperuricemia preceding the occurrence of gout in both men and women.

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20
Q

How does a gout attack develop?

A

The inflammation in gout is triggered by precipitation of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals into the joints, which result in the production of cytokines that recruit leukocytes. Macrophages phagocytose the MSU and the intracellular sensor, the inflammasome, recognizes the crystals. The inflammasomeactivates caspase-1, which is involved in the production of some biologically active cytokines, most notably IL-1. IL-1 is proinflammatory, and promotes accumulation of neutrophils and macrophages in the joint. These cells, in turn, release other cytokines, free radicals, proteases and arachidonic acid metabolites, all of which recruit more leukocytes and damage the joint.

Urate crystals may also activate the complement system, leading to the generation of chemotactic complement byproducts. These cascades trigger an acute arthritis, which typically remits spontaneously in days to weeks.

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21
Q

How is a gout attack propagated?

A

Propagation of the acute gouty response by activated neutrophils. Neutrophils that enter the joint migrate toward and phagocytose crystals. In the case of crystals coated with immunoglobulins and complement, the resultant activation results in synthesis and/or release of inflammatory mediators such as interleukin (IL)-1β, IL-8, and TNF, as well as proteases and reactive oxygen species. In the case of uncoated crystals, the crystal frequently interacts with, and lyses the membrane of the phagolysosome, spilling toxic contents and leading to cell lysis. In both cases, the result is local tissue damage and recruitment of additional neutrophils from the bloodstream in an explosive inflammatory cycle. LTB4, leukotriene B4.

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22
Q

Why does gout occur in synovium over plasma?

A

Gout

NOTE:

Synovial fluid is inherently a poorer solvent for monosodium urate than plasma. The lower temperature of the peripheral joints also favors precipitation. Gout attacks also commonly occur in the morning due to decreasing pH that occurs during rest and in the big toe begin blood pools there.

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23
Q

What is this showing?

A

Radiographs demonstrating severe destructive changes in tophaceous gout.

Repeated attacks of acute arthritis lead eventually to chronic tophaceous arthritis and the formation of tophi in the inflamed synovial membranes and periarticular tissue.

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24
Q
A

Radiographs show changes typical of bony tophi including soft tissue distortion, erosions with sclerotic margins, and overhanging edges. Joint space narrowing is minimal, despite the large erosions.

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25
Q

As mentioned, primary overproduction of uric acid can be due either enzyme abnormalities or increased purine biosynthesis. What are some enzyme abnormalities assoicated with primary hyperuricemia?

A

PRPP synthetase increased activity- X linked

HPRT deficiency- X- linked

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26
Q

What are the effects of partial HPRT deficiency?

A

Increased purine biosynthesis de novo driven by surplus PRPP; overproduction of uric acid

Kelley-Seegmiller syndrome

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27
Q

What are the effects of virtually complete HPRT deficiency?

A

X-linked condition called Lesch-Nyhan associated with increased purine biosynthesis de novo driven by surplus PRPP

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28
Q

Other enzyme abnormalities assoicated with increased purine biosynthesis de novo?

A

1) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency or absence
2) Fructose-1-phosphate aldoade deficiency

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29
Q

What are the effects of Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency or absence?

A

Von Gierke’s disease- an AR disease characterized by overproduction PLUS UNDEREXCRETION OF URIC ACID

glycogen storage disease type 1

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30
Q

What are the effects of Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase deficiency?

A

Overproduction PLUS underexcretion of uric acid (also AR)

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31
Q

What are some systemic conditions causing OVERPRODUCTION of uric acid?

A
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • SCD
  • Thalassemia
  • Polycythmia vera
  • Megaloblastic anemia
  • MM/Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
  • Tumor lysis syndrome
  • Psoriasis and Sarcoidosis
  • Leukemia and Lymphoma

others

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32
Q

What are some systemic conditions causing UNDEREXCRETION of uric acid?

A
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Dehydration/volume depletion
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Ketoacidosis
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33
Q

What are some systemic conditions causing BOTH OVERPRODUCTION AND UNDEREXCRETION of uric acid?

A
  • MI
  • CHF
  • SEPSIS
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34
Q

What are some metablic states associated with hyperuricemia?

A
  • Hyper- and hypothyroidism
  • Hyper and hypoPTHism
  • Obesity
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35
Q

What drugs promote hyperuricemia?

A
  • thiazide and loop diuretics
  • cyclosporine
  • ethambutol
36
Q

What organic acids promote hyperuricemia?

A
  • salicylates (low-dose)
  • ascorbic acid
  • nicotinic acid
  • pyrazinamide (TB drug)
37
Q

Where are uric acid stones particularly common?

A

comprise 40 percent or more of stones in areas with hot, arid climates in which the tendency to a low urine volume and acid urine pH promote uric acid pre­cipitation.

38
Q

Facts about uric acid stones

A

The prevalence of uric acid stones among patients with gout prior to effective antihyperuricemic treatment was about 20 percent, several hundred-fold greater than that in the adult nongouty population.

More than 80 percent of calculi in patients with gout are composed entirely of uric acid, with the remainder contain­ing calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate surrounding a central nidus of uric acid.

39
Q

What are the three major risk factors for uric acid nephrolithiasis?

A

increased uric acid excretion, reduced urine volume, and a low urine pH. In the setting of a low urine pH, most of the uric acid exists as the intact insoluble acid rather than the soluble urate anion

40
Q
A
41
Q

What are the indications for a xanthine oxidase inhibitor?

A

1) hyperuricemia associated with increased uric acid production
- urinary uric acid excretion of 1000+mg in 24hr
- due to HPRT deficiency or PRPP synthetase
- Nephrolithiasis
- Prophylaxis before cytolytic therapy
2) Intolerance or reduced efficacy or uricosuric agents
- gout with renal insufficiency (GFR under 60ml/min)
- allergy to uricosurics

42
Q

What are some uricosuric drugs in humans?

A
  • calcitonin
  • calcium ipodate
  • glycopyrrolate
  • iopanoic acid
  • estrogens

many more

43
Q

T or F. Before starting a specific urate-lowering agent, the patient should be treated with low-dose colchicine or an NSAID in an attempt to prevent further attacks.

A

T

44
Q

Individuals who are hyperuricemic should be screened for what?

A

HTN, hyperlipidemia, coronary artery disease, diabetes, obesity, and alcoholism.

45
Q

Note about hyperuricemia treatment

A

Using a specific urate-lowering agent to manage asymptomatic hyperuricemia is not recommended. However, associated conditions such as hypertension, coronary artery disease, diabetes, obesity, and alcoholism should be managed in these patients, as well as in those with symptomatic gout.

46
Q

What dietary/environmental things can precipitate gout?

A
  • alcohol (particularly beer)
  • red meat
  • seafood

milk and yogurt are protective!

47
Q

Is any part of hyperuricemia/gout genetic?

A

Yes, rare forms of early hyperuricemia have a clear genetic basis. Gout often runs in families (probably due to polymorphisms in urate transporters in the renal proximal tubules)

48
Q

How is asymptomatic hyperuricemia treated?

A

It is generally not treated, but its identification should lead to a search for the cause and/or associated conditions.

49
Q

Prophylaxis against acute attacks with ____ or _____ can be effective

A

colchicine or NSAIDs, but does not change the underlying process in the absence of concomitant urate-lowering therapy.

Note that by 24-48 hrs into an acute, colchicine wont be very effective

50
Q

When should urate lowering therapy be initiated?

A

Starting urate-lowering therapy after a single attack of gout remains debatable, but recurrent attacks of gout, urate nephrolithiasis, tophaceous gout, and/or evidence of gout-induced joint damage are all accepted indications.

51
Q

Uricases such as pegloticase should be reserved for what?

A

refractory tophaceous gout.

52
Q

Prophylaxis with colchicine, NSAIDs, or less preferably, systemic steroids should be continued for at least how long after initiation of urate-lowering therapy?

A

6 months

53
Q

What is Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate (CPPD)
Crystal Deposition Disease? Forms? Cause?

A

CPPD crystals develop via an unknown mechanism and can cause a spectrum of conditions ranging from asympomatic deposits in cartilage (chondrocalcinosis), synovium, periarticular ligaments and tendons (mostly in the elderly) or can cause clinical arthritis that can mimic other arthritides.

There are idiopathic, genetic, and secondary forms.

The basis for crystal formation is not known but studies suggest that articular cartilage proteoglycans, which normally inhibit mineralization, are degraded allowing crystallization around chondrocytes.

54
Q

A minority of patients with CPPD arthropathy have what (i.e. secondary CPPD)?

A

metabolic abnormalities or hereditary CPPD disease including hyperparathroidism, hemochromatosis, hypophosphatasia, hypomagnesemia and ochronosis.

Previous descriptions of associations with gout, hypothyroidism, and diabetes have not been substantiated in most subsequent studies, and there is no known association with renal disease or diuretic use.

55
Q

T or F. Pseudogout and calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition disease has a decreasing prevalence with each decade of life, even into age groups over 50 years old.

A

F. It INCREASES

The average age of patients in most series is usually in the 70 to 75 year old range. Radiographic chondrocalcinosis shows an increasing prevalence related to age in most series, with a prevalence of approximately 50 percent in patients over 85 years of age.

56
Q

What are the most common causes of CPDCDD?

A
  • idiopathic with age (most frequent)
  • complication of primary osteoarthritis
  • long-term consequence of mechanical joint truma or knee meniscectomy
57
Q

What are some some conditions that are sometimes assoicated with precipitating CPDCDD?

A
  • familial
  • systemic metabolic disease (hyperPTHism, hemochromotosis, hypomagnesemia, dialysis-dependent renal failure)
58
Q

What are some some conditions that are RARELY assoicated with precipitating CPDCDD?

A
  • gout
  • X-linked hypophatemic rickets
  • ochronosis
  • Wilson’s disease
59
Q

What is this?

A

Idiopathic symmetric pseudorheumatoid calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition arthropathy in an elderly female. This 84-year-old female presented with a history of past right carpal tunnel syndrome and with chronic symmetric proliferative synovitis of both wrists and second and third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, with physical findings of synovial and dorsal extensor tenosynovial swelling of the wrists and synovial swelling at the second to third MCP joints (A). Changes on hand and wrist plain radiographs consistent with the diagnosis of CPPD deposition disease, presented for the right wrist (B), included cystic changes in multiple carpal bones including the scaphoid and lunate, linear calcification on the ulnar side of the carpus (arrow) typical for the chondrocalcinosis of CPPD deposition, and mild narrowing of the radiocarpal joint indicative of cartilage loss.

60
Q
A

Chondrocalcinosis of the most commonly affected joints in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease. A, Linear calcifications observed in knee menisci and fibrocartilage. B, Lateral view showing calcification of the articular cartilage as a line parallel to the femoral condyles. C, Calcification of intercarpal joints and triangular ligament. D, Calcification of the symphysis pubis fibrocartilage associated with subchondral bone erosions and subchondral increased bone density.

61
Q

The vast majority of CPPD crystal deposition disease is idiopathic /sporadic, but early-onset familial disease also occurs. What gene is linked to the familial form?

A

ANKH on chromosome 5p (which encodes a transmembrane protein with functions including PPi transport) is well established

62
Q

Points about pathogenesis of calcium crystal disease

A
  1. The loose avascular connective tissue matrices of articular hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilaginous menisci, and of certain ligaments and tendons are particularly susceptible to pathologic calcification.
  2. Joint cartilage pathologic calcification reflects complex interplay between organic and inorganic biochemistry of Pi and PPi metabolism, aging, ***dysregulated chondrocyte growth factor responsiveness and differentiation****, and other factors.
  3. NLRP3 (cryopyrin) inflammasome activation and consequent caspase-1 activation and interleukin (IL)-1β processing and secretion drive cell responses to CPPD crystals and CPPD crystal-induced inflammation.
63
Q

Clinical features of CPPD

A
  1. In the elderly, CPPD deposition can mimic conditions including gout, infectious arthritis, primary osteoarthritis, RA, or polymyalgia rheumatica. It can also present as fever of unknown origin.
  2. Pseudogout is a major cause of acute monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis in the elderly; attacks typically involve a large joint, most often the knee, and less often the wrist or ankle, and, unlike gout, rarely the first metatarsophalangeal joint.
  3. Chronic degenerative arthropathy in CPPD deposition disease commonly affects certain joints that are typically spared in primary OA (e.g., metacarpophalangeal joints, wrists, elbows, glenohumeral joints).
64
Q

What is hydroxyapatite (HA)?

A

HA is the primary mineral of bone and teeth and abnormal accumulations can occur in areas of tissue damage (dystrophic calcification) and in certain conditions of unknown cause.

65
Q

What conditions promote extra HA deposition both in and around joints?

A

In chronic renal failure, hyperphosphatemia enhances HA deposition both in and around joints.

Note that HA crystal deposition in articular cartilage is intimately linked with osteoarthritis, particularly with osteoarthritis of increased severity.

66
Q

What is Milwaukee Shoulder?

A

HA may be released from exposed bone and cause acute synovitis occasionally seen in chronic stable osteoarthritis, an extremely destructive chronic arthropathy of the elderly that occurs most often in knees and shoulders (Milwaukee shoulder).

67
Q

HA deposition disease

A

The joint destruction is associated with attenuation or rupture of supporting structures leading to instability and deformity. Progression is usually indolent with low WBC counts (less than 1000 cells/μl) in synovium fluid and symptoms can range from minimal to severe pain and disability with need for joint replacement surgery.

68
Q

Whats going on here?

A

Hydroxyapatite crystal-associated calcific bursitis of the shoulder in a patient with chronic renal failure and secondary hyperparathyroidism

A, Chronic soft tissue swelling involving the right shoulder due to calcific right shoulder subacromial bursitis in a middle-aged male with a history of chronic renal failure on hemodialysis. Note the convex contour of the right shoulder compared with the left.

69
Q

B, Radiograph showing extensive calcification both within the rotator cuff and the expanded subacromial bursa surrounding the right shoulder joint. Incidental note is made of the resorption of the distal end of the clavicle consistent with the secondary hyperparathyroidism in this patient

A

Subacromial bursa fluid from the right shoulder. Note the milk-white appearance with a chalky sediment of the particulate material in the fluid after centrifugation consistent with crystal deposition disease

70
Q

D, Microscopic appearance of bursa fluid aggregates of basic calcium phosphate crystals in the absence of special stains. The particles are irregular but have approximately spherical profiles. (Unstained. Magnification ×250.)

E, Appearance of the bursa fluid under polarized light microscopy. Importantly, the aggregated particles of basic calcium phosphate crystals demonstrate edge birefringence but do not display intrusive birefringence, as seen in the figure. (Unstained. Magnification ×250.)

A

Electron photomicrograph of a mononuclear phagocyte from this bursa fluid that contained phagocytosed electron dense (dark black) spherical aggregates of crystals of the basic calcium phosphate hydroxyapatite in three phagolysosomes oriented vertically to the right of the nucleus. Hundreds of tiny needle-shaped hydroxyapatite crystals are clumped in each of these dense aggregates. For perspective, the size of the mononuclear phagocyte is approximately 20 microns, and an individual (nonaggregated) hydroxyapatite crystal is approximately 0.04 × 0.01 × 0.01 microns in size. (Transmission electron microscopy. Magnification ×1000.)

71
Q

How can articular and periarticular HA crystal deposition be treated?

A
  • NSAIDs or selective COX-2 inhibitors
  • Local steroid injection or irirgation
  • High-frequency ultrasound to degrade BCP
72
Q

Key Points about HA Deposition

A
  1. Unlike urate and CPPD crystal deposition, acute synovitis due to HA crystal deposition is unusual. Acute inflammatory syndromes including subacromial bursitis and a form of pseudopodagra described in young women may occur in association with periarticular HA crystal deposition in bursae, tendons, ligaments, and soft tissues.
  2. Patients with advanced chronic renal failure, particularly on dialysis, may develop symptomatic articular and periarticular HA crystal deposition, which may be destructive and involve the axial skeleton. They may resemble or be associated with CPPD deposition disease.
73
Q

Note about diagnosis of CPPD

A

Diagnosis of CPPD deposition disease before age 55, particularly if CPPD deposition is polyarticular, should prompt differential diagnostic consideration of a primary metabolic or familial disorder, and hyperparathyroidism should always be considered in CPPD deposition disease presenting in patients older than the age of 55.

74
Q

How can CPPD be diagnosed?

A

High-resolution ultrasound appears particularly helpful in diagnosis of CPPD crystal deposition disease, partly because radiographic chondrocalcinosis is not detectable in all joints affected by the disease.

75
Q

T or F. HA crystals (unlike urate and CPPD crystals) do not demonstrate birefringence

A

T, and specialized methods are required to conclusively identify HA crystals in specimens from the joint.

76
Q

What is this?

A

GOUT

  • Development of tophi – white chalky aggregates of uric acid crystals
  • Renal failure – urate crystals deposit in the kidney tubules
  • Negative (needle shaped) birefringence (Negative birefringent crystals are blue when perpendicular and yellow when parallel.)
77
Q

What is this?

A

A typical granuloma seen in gout. The central part is formed by urate crystals (u). The inflammatory cells surrounding the area of rystals typically include macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and giants cells.

78
Q

What is this?

A

Gouty tophus

The urate deposits (amorphous pink areas) have been dissolved by formalin fixation. H&E

NOTE: preservation of the crystals for ID with polarized light microscopy REQUIRES the use of unstained sections because the aqueous dyes used in most staining techniques will dissolve the crystals. Crystal preservation is also improved using alcohol rather than formalin

79
Q

What is this?

A

Gouty bursitis.

•The urate deposits (brownish areas) have been preserved by alcohol fixation. Silver stain

80
Q

What is this?

A

Gout (black)

  • Tophaceous deposits around joints erode into cartilage and subchondral bone and may cause marginal erosions of bone as seen in clinical x-rays.
  • Gouty arthritis with urate deposits in subchondral bone. Alcohol fixation and silver stain.
81
Q
A
82
Q

What dis?

A

Pseudogout- calcium pyrophosphate crystals

  • Presentation identical to gout, but caused by deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals (CPPD).
  • Aspiration reveals **POSITIVELY birefringent, rhomboid-shaped crystals. (Think Positive for Pyrophosphate in Pseudogout. )

NOTE: Positive birefringence refers to crystals appearing yellow when perpendicular and blue when parallel to the plane of light.

83
Q

Identify left from right

A

Left: urate crystals

Right: CPPD

84
Q
A

Cholesterol crystals in a synovial fluid sample (may be seen in RA)

85
Q

What is happening here?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystal deposition arthropathy of the knee joint

A. Femoral condyle. There are extensive foci of chalky white particulate deposits within the articular cartilage.

B. Histology = Hypertrophic chondrocytes adjacent to the crystal aggregates are within enlarged chondrons

C. Polarized light microscopy of CPPD crystal aggregates within the hyaline articular cartilage. The individual crystals have rod and rhomboid shapes and are positively birefringent

86
Q
A