Cruise Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Autopilot malfunction can result in bank angles of ____ degrees within ___ seconds even if recovery is initiated within ___ seconds. Pitch up malfunction can cause stall within ___ seconds

A

55 degrees within 5 seconds, 3 seconds, 3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do not operate the AC system with the _______ system in full INCREASE for extended period of time

A

Right alt pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Main boost pumps should not be run dry as catastrophic failure can occur within ___ minutes

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Center wing override pumps should not be run dry for more than ____ minutes

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

While opening emergency hatches during flight, reduce airspeed to ___ or less. If opening all hatches then __ should be opened first

A

150 KIAS, aft emergency hatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ditching should be accomplished with the landing gear____

A

Retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

While ditching and wind speed greater than 30 knots ditching should be made _____ the wind which will be indicated by extensive_____

A

Into the wind, whitecaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When ditching the airplane shouldn’t be ______ as ____ and leaks may occur

A

Stalled in, structural damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Night ditching should be made with the assistance of

A

Instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When ditching the flare should be made as to level off approx. _____ feet above the crest of the swell

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At an approach speed of 160 knots it takes ____ seconds for the flaps to reach 20 degrees with windmilling engines

A

65 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During ditching it is recommended that no one be positioned aft of ____

A

Right aft escape hatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During ditching ___ may be used to determine altitude below 2,5000 ft

A

Radio altimeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Installation of emergency hatches is hazardous above ___ KIAS

A

150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ may have to be used by crew fighting fires

A

Portable oxygen bottles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

___ or ___ will inform the crew of fuselage fire on the ___ position of the interphone

A

Pilot or copilot, CALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In case of fire, breathing ____ may help provide respiratory protection

A

100% oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If passengers are aboard and ____ is an issue, then consider ___

A

Oxygen duration, emergency descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The _____ hand held fire extinguisher should be held ____

A

Halon 1211, upright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If rapid decompression occurs the pilot with direct crew to ____ and initiate ___

A

Go on 100% oxygen, initiate a descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During controllability check don’t allow speed to decrease to where ___ is required

A

Full control deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Controllability check should be accomplished above ___ ft

A

10K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Large amplitude dutch roll oscillations coupled with incorrect inputs may result in

A

Engine separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

To prevent further damage to the boom in case of retraction mechanism failure, the receiver pilot will not try to ___

A

Try and push the boom back in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
If electrical stab trim doesn’t work then check operation of ___
Manual trim wheel
26
Sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections can result it ____
Overstressing the vertical fin
27
If the emergency requires the shutting down of electrical systems be sure to set ____ to the desired position before shutdown
Fuel valves
28
If the IDG fails to disconnect the affected engine should be shut down using ___ checklist
Engine fire/failure during flight
29
Tripping the GCB switch with the corresponding BTB CIRCUIT OPEN light on causes loss of power until ____ closes
BTB
30
If a CB trips ___ times do not attempt to reset
3
31
Prior to checking or changing fuses be sure to ___
Turn off the affected equipment
32
If an engine start is attempted and not completed, observe a ____ waiting period before trying again. This is to ______
30 seconds, allow fuel drainage from the nacelle
33
Do not attempt and airstart without starter assist if N2 is below _____% or __ may occur
15%, hung start
34
After an engine failure, the __ _may be trimmed without ___ the autopilot or yaw damper
Rudder, disengaging
35
When shutting down the engine, make sure the generator breaker _____ caution light illuminates and trip the ___ to disengage the exciter field of the IDG
Circuit open, gen breaker switch
36
If oil pressure fluctuates below ___ psi then __ the engine
11psi, shut down
37
Bearing failure may occur as quickly as ___ after oil starvation
30 seconds
38
If nose down stab trim failure is encountered during an approach then ____
Go around and next approach should be made using manual flight procedures
39
For nose-up trim using the spoilers then set ___ to cut-off and ___
Inboard, raise the speed brakes
40
. If runaway stab trim occurs prior to S1 then the pnf ____
Sets stab tim to CUTOFF
41
When rudder power switch is turned off, check that the pressure (3 things)
Bleedown occurs, yaw damper/EFAS disengages
42
Slow or rough movement of crossover valve could result in (2 things)
Rupture of return lines or unwanted pressurization
43
Broken/jammed drive chain in forward stab trim mechanism can prevent __ or ___ trimming
Electrical or manual
44
Indications of possible fuel leakage include (6 things)
Excessive fuel flowInadequate fuel flowFuel low pressure warning indicationsFuel quantity rapidly decreasingFuel line leakage in strut/nacelle areaBody tank fuel quantity increasing
45
Discontinue emergency tank emptying procedures before the fuel quantity reaches
0
46
If main tank leak is suspected it is imperative to __ and ___ to reduce further damage
Reduce airspeed and flap movement
47
To prevent excessive fuel px surges at completeion of fuel dumping, set __ pump to ___ prior to setting fuel dump switch to ____.
A/R, OFF, OFF
48
If a hydraulic pump inop light illuminates with no indications of fluid loss and remains on after L/R hydraulic system is depressurized and repressurized then ____
Set the affected pump supply switch to CLOSED
49
. If a hydraulic pump inop light illuminates with indications of fluid loss then
Set the affected pump supply switch to CLOSED
50
If a loss of hydraulic quantity occurs with no other indications then ____
Immediately depressurize the affected system
51
If a loss of hydraulic quantity occurs with no other indications and depressurizing doesn’t fix it then ____
Close the supply switch for the affected pump (inboard/outboard)
52
Another way to check the actual system pressure of the L hydraulic system is ___
Read the reserve brake gauge
53
It is safe to use the crossover valve after loss of fluid provided ____ can occur with the appropriate hydraulic pressure and aux pump switches ON
Pressure can be built up and maintained in the affected system
54
If source of hydraulic leakage cannot be determined, monitor ___ during and after use of crossover valve. If fluid loss in unaffected system occurs, then _____
Fluid quantity gages, return the crossover valve to NORMAL
55
Application of hydraulic pressure to ____ system during manual extension can result in ____
Right system, injury to operator
56
Failure to close ____ on malfunctioning side of manifold could result in ___ due to escaping bleed air
The engine bleed valves, damage to the aircraft
57
Too rapid movement of cabin manual pressure knob towards the ___ position could cause harmful damage to ears
Increase and off
58
The maximum speed for EMERGENCY gear extension, retraction or gear down is (SL, 10K, 20K, 26.5K, 28K, above 29,5K)
355 KIAS @ SL360 KIAS @10K368 KIAS @ 20K373 KIAS @ 26.5K361 KIAS @ 28K.9 Mach above 29.5K
59
During recovery from unusual high attitude, if the landing gear is lowered then a ___ condition may result
Pitch up
60
For unplanned penetration of severe turbulence, establish an airspeed of approximately ___ KIAS, or MACH _____ whichever is lower. Only change thrust in cases of ____. Don’t chase ___ and leave the ___ off. Ensure ___ is ON and don’t lower ____ or ____
280, .77 - .80, extreme airspeed variation, altitude, autopilot, yaw damper, gear and flaps
61
Complete loss of airspeed indications will generally occur by the time approx. ____ inches of ice has accumulated on the nose.
2 inches
62
Static port icing will affect ____ while pitot tube icing will affect (4 things)
All pitot and static instruments, IAS/TAS/MACH/Altimeter
63
If Q-inlet icing occurs during powered rudder operation, rudder pedal forces may be ___ which may result in a tendency to ____
Reduced for all rudder deflections, overcontrol
64
Boldface for SMOKE/FUME ELIMINATION
OXYGEN – ON/100% (ALL)