Crucial Review Flashcards

1
Q

TODA

A

Takeoff Distance Available, including CLEARWAY

TODA = TORA + Clearway

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ASDA

A

Accelerate Stop Distance Available

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway , if provided.

includes Stopway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TORA

A

Take off run available

The length of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LDA

A

Landing Distance Available

The length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clearway

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate authority selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an airplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.

(TODA-TORA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stopway

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the runway in the direction of take-off prepared as a suitable area in which an airplane can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off

(ASDA-TORA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Critical Field Length / Balanced Field Length

A

The distance required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed (V1), experience an engine failure and to either continue the take-off or reject it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define V1

A

The critical engine failure recognition speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s Critical Mach?

A

Critical Mach is the lowest Mach number at which the airflow over some point of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound, but does not exceed it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ETOPS

A

ETOPS stands for Extended-range Twin-engine Operational Performance Standards, a rule which permits twin engine aircraft to fly routes which, at some point, are more than 60 minutes flying time away from the nearest airport suitable for emergency landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the long-lasting effects after drinking a lot of alcohol?

A

can remain in the tissue of the brain and effect cognitive abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (CRM)

A

The effective use of all available resources - human resources, hardware, and information - to achieve safe and efficient flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IFR Flight experiences a two-way radio communications failure in VFR conditions

A

If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IFR Flight experiences a two-way radio communications failure in IFR conditions

A

IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following:

(1) Route.
(i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
(ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
(2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
(i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
(ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in § 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
(iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
(3) Leave clearance limit.
(i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
(ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You climb to FL210 with an altimeter setting of 30.12 and forget to set the standard altimeter setting. What will happen to your indicated altitude when you set 29.92.

A

indicated altitude will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Speed limitation below 10,000’

A

250KIAS maximum below 10,000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does the maximum 200 KIAS speed limitation apply?

A

No more than 200KIAS below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 nautical miles of a controlled airport, unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Rime ice formed?

A
  • When small supercooled water droplets freeze on contact with a surface which is below zero.
  • low catch rate, small droplets
  • droplets freeze immediately without spreading
  • Rime ice comes from the water droplets in fog
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In what phase of flight do CFIT accidents usually occur?

A
  • During the approach phase
  • In the approach and landing phase of flight and are often associated with non-precision approaches.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Calculate TAS for the following Conditions

  • FL290
  • OAT -12°
  • Relative Temperate 11°
A

Answer is NOT 300kts TAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dynamic Hydroplaning

A
  • Hydroplaning is a function of the water depth, tire pressure and speed.
  • a non- rotating tire will begin to hydroplane at a lower speed than a rotating tire because water build-up under a non-rotating tire increases the hydroplaning effect.
  • when hydroplaning occurs, the aircraft’s tires are completely separated from the actual runway surface by a thin water film and they will continue to hydroplane until a reduction in speed permits the tires to regain contact with the runway.
  • The speed required for the tires to regain contact with the runway after hydroplaning starts is considerably lower than the speed at which the hydroplaning started in the first place.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Viscous Hydroplaning

A

arises in the same way as dynamic aquaplaning, but only on abnormally smooth surfaces such as touchdown zones contaminated with excessive rubber deposits, where it may begin and continue at any ground speed. Typically, a small amount of water may mix with a surface contaminant. a significantly thinner layer of contaminant is required in the event of viscous aquaplaning, compared to that required for dynamic aquaplaning. It too leaves no physical evidence on tire or runway surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reverted rubber aquaplaning

A

occurs when the heat of friction from a locked wheel in contact with the surface causes the rubber to revert to its un-cured state and ‘boils’ the surface moisture into steam. The pressure of the steam raises the centre of the tire off the surface whilst the edges remain in contact, forming a seal that temporarily traps the steam. The tire will show clear evidence of rubber reversion and the runway surface will be clearly marked with the path of the wheels as a result of ‘steam pressure cleaning’ beneath the tire. This is the only type of aquaplaning which leaves physical evidence on the runway surface. It was much more common before anti-skid units became widespread and usually only occurs to aircraft so fitted if an emergency brake, which is applied directly rather than through the anti-skid units, is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Deicing Fluid Types

A

Type I fluids have a low viscosity, and are considered “unthickened”. They provide only short term protection because they quickly flow off surfaces after use. They are typically sprayed on hot (130–180 °F, 55-80 °C) at high pressure to remove snow, ice, and frost. Usually they are dyed orange to aid in identification and application.

Type II fluids are pseudoplastic, which means they contain a polymeric thickening agent to prevent their immediate flow off aircraft surfaces. Typically the fluid film will remain in place until the aircraft attains 100 knots (190 km/h) or so, at which point the viscosity breaks down due to shear stress. The high speeds required for viscosity breakdown means that this type of fluid is useful only for larger aircraft. The use of Type II fluids is diminishing in favour of Type IV. Type II fluids are generally light yellow in color.

Type III fluids can be thought of as a compromise between Type I and Type II fluids. They are intended for use on slower aircraft, with a rotation speed of less than 100 knots. Type III fluids are generally light yellow in color.

Type IV fluids meet the same AMS standards as Type II fluids, but they provide a longer holdover time. They are typically dyed green to aid in the application of a consistent layer of fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Deicing Spray Order

A
  1. 4.1 Aircraft surfaces There is no single rule of spray order that can be applied to all aircraft. It is, however, recommended to start with the fuselage (front part covering the wing area) whenever it needs treatment (spray along the top centre-line and then outboard). After the fuselage comes the wings and the way to treat the wings depends on the aircraft and the place where deicing is performed (gate vs. remote). The wing should always be treated from the highest part towards the lowest part (generally wingtip inboard). Some aircraft have the wingtips lower than the wingroot and in that case deicing should be performed from the wingroot outboard. The tail should be performed from the vertical stabilizer downward and the aft-fuselage part before the horizontal stabilizer (excluding T-tail A/C).
    https: //www.faa.gov/other_visit/aviation_industry/airline_operators/airline_safety/deicing/media/standardized_international_ground_deice_program.pdf
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Deicing Fluid Colours

A
  • Type-I: orange
  • Type-II: white/pale straw, yellowish
  • Type-III: colour not determined
  • Type-IV: green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What deicing fluid can be using on light aircraft with rotation speeds of less than 100 knots?

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which deicing fluid is intended for large aircraft as it will remain in place until the aircraft attains 100 knots, at which point the viscosity breaks down due to shear stress?

A

Type II

Note Type II fluid is similar to Type IV fluid. However, Type IV fluid has a longer holdover time and is dyed green.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definition of the “Aircraft Operator”

A

Aircraft operator means a person who uses, causes to be used, or authorizes to be used an aircraft, with or without the right of legal control (the operator is not necessarily the owner or lessee), for the purpose of air navigation including the piloting of aircraft, or on any part of the surface of an airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IFR or VFR Flight in Class F Special Use Restricted Airspace or Class F Special Use Advisory Airspace

601.04 (1) The procedures for the operation of aircraft in Class F Special Use Restricted airspace and Class F Special Use Advisory airspace

A
  • No person shall operate an aircraft in Class F Special Use Restricted airspace unless authorized to do so by the person specified for that purpose in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
  • For the purposes of subsection (2), a person specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook may authorize the operation of an aircraft where activities on the ground or in the airspace are not hazardous to aircraft operating in that airspace and access by aircraft to that airspace does not jeopardize national security interests.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the vertical separations for RVSM airspace?

A
  • At or above 18,000’ ASL but below FL290, intervals of 2000 feet vertical separation is used for same direction flights.
  • Between FL290 and FL410, for RVSM approved aircraft, intervals of 2000 feet vertical separation is used for same direction flight.
  • Between FL290 and FL410, for NON-RVSM approved aircraft, intervals of 4000 feet vertical separation is used.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

High Level Controlled Airspace Dimensions

A
  • Southern Control Area FL180 and above
  • Northern Control Area FL230 and above
  • Arctic Control Area FL270 and above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the requirements for a NOTAM with “APRX”?

A

A replacing or canceling NOTAM must be issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)

A
  • Equivalent Airspeed is calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility.
  • Above 200 knots CAS and 10,000 ft, ​CAS must be corrected for compressibility error to determine EAS.
  • True Airspeed is the final step where equivalent airspeed is corrected for temperature and pressure altitude.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Total Air Temperature

A
  • Static Air Temperature (SAT) is the same as OAT
  • Total Air Temperature (TAT)

Total Air Temp is your OAT or Static Air Temp plus the dynamic heating brought about by the compression of the air as it is brought to rest (kinetic heating or ram rise).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

GFA Symbols 1

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

GFA Symbols 2

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

GFA Symbols 3

A
39
Q

NDB accuracy limitations for Enroute and Approach

A
  • Enroute: +/- 10°
  • Approach: +/- 5°
40
Q

Air pressure changes less in _____ (warm/cold) air?

A

cold air

41
Q

Definition of “Hold Over Time”

A

The time that the deicing/anti-icing fluid remains effective is the time from first application of anti-icing fluid on a clean wing until such time as ice crystals form or remain in the fluid creating a surface roughness for take-off that deteriorates the performance or controllability of the aircraft.

42
Q

TAFs measure the weather within how many NM of the runway?

A

5nm

43
Q

Where is the rotor cloud formed?

A

Below the peak. Also, form downwind from the mountain range, below each crest.

44
Q

HF Frequencies

A

Frequency increase, it’s also weakened…

Sun down, tune down the frequency

Sun up, tune up the frequency

45
Q

What is the only low-level controlled airspace that can go above FL180?

A

A terminal control area, which can go up to FL230

46
Q

A plane with a VOR & DME can only get DME distances from a _____

A

TACAN

47
Q

NAT MNPS Airspace dimensions

A

FL285 - FL420

48
Q

What type of fog forms by raising the dewpoint to the temperature?

A

Steam fog, which is is formed when very cold air moves over warmer water. Cold air over the water gets saturated. Dewpoint temperature is being brought up.

49
Q

When flying in the north, report every ___ latitude and ____ longitude.

A

5˚ latitude and 65˚ longitude.

50
Q

If a radar echo shows up at 90NM, the intensity will ______ as distance increases.

A

decrease

51
Q

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) can be used to ________

A

Detect weather

52
Q

Which is correct for ACAS III?

A

ACAS III provides horizontal and vertical avoidance.

53
Q

ILS Reliability (cone of confusion dimensions)

A

35° to 10nm and then 10° from 10nm to 18nm

54
Q

How long is a GFA valid for?

A

GFA is valid for 12 hrs + 12 hrs IFR outlook.

55
Q

When flying an NDB or VOR on an overlay approach, you need to….

A

Use NDB or VOR to track final approach/cruise

56
Q

INS meansures ____ over ______

A

acceleration over time

57
Q

When the HSI is in RNAV function, one dot represents ____NM.

A

0.5 NM

58
Q

Heading to a warm front, you encounter SN mixed with PL (SNPL = snow and ice pellets), what’s next….

A

Freezing rain above you.

59
Q

Where can you find most severe turbulence?

A

Polar Side (Break Between Polar Side and Tropic)

60
Q

Exam Q: Wind at surface 30°off, (20 kts; at 3000’), 20°off, 30 kts. Answer should be D, 0 degrees 30kt

A
61
Q

You are required to file an IFR flight plan above what flight level in the arctic control area?

A

FL270

62
Q

Two common fronts in Canada in the Summer are

A

Maritime Arctic and Maritime Polar (MA & MP)

63
Q

The principle of how a VOR works

A

based on a phase difference

64
Q

Exam Q: Cruise FL330 at -40 ° C, with what chart? ISA+10°C

A
65
Q

CA air move over great lakes, what fog do you get?

A

Steam Fog

66
Q

In a high-pressure system, air is _______ and _________.

A

subsiding and diverging

67
Q

After an ACAS/TCAS traffic resolution you must…

A

Advise ATC as soon as possible.

68
Q

A squall line will be found _____ of a cold front

A

ahead

69
Q

TRANSPONDER 7500 then 7700 means…

A

Need immediate help / immediate intervention

70
Q

There is fog on the sea, but the land does not have fog. This is due to….

A

moist air and an offshore wind (land breeze)

71
Q

High frequency (HF) is the ITU designation for the range of radio waves between 3-30 MHz. It is also known as the decameter band or decameter wave as its wavelengths range from one to ten decameters (ten to one hundred meters).

A
72
Q

What are the ceiling and vis for IFR outlook?

A

ceiling below 1000ft and/or vis at or below 3

73
Q

How an INS works?

A

Measure acceleration on 3 axis and convert it to speed and distance with respect to time.

74
Q

ACAS or TCAS function by ___________ the transponder of aircraft targets.

A

interrogating

75
Q

How many degrees from left to right on a Localizer?

A

76
Q

How can fog form with a front?

A

Fog can form via cold air evaporation and rainfall from warm air

77
Q

The 3000ft winds are parallel to the isobars, the most probability of the wind on the surface is…

A

30° off and 20kts

78
Q

If you descend at a constant TRUE airspeed, indicated airspeed will ______ and Mach will ______.

A

increase, decrease

79
Q

What is SSB (Single Side Band)?

A

A method of compressing speech to send it further.

80
Q

Exam Q: 15) GFA ,the distance between the FZRA and first warm front: 45 NM

A
81
Q

Common front in continental north American in winter time:

A

CA, MP, MA

82
Q

What does it mean when LOC is listed with an “X”?

A

LOC alignment is 3° degrees off runway heading

83
Q

Where can find the micro burst?

A

When there’s virga.

84
Q

Questions to remember for Exam:

  • Jet stream : 110 kts FL340
  • 250/*** means: 10,000 below
  • TS dissipating stage: down draft of all but the top of the cloud
  • Decode PIREP: radial 095, YHZ, 55NM
  • Fly from CYVR TO KFLA : moderate icing and occasional moderate to server turbulence
  • Aerodynamic : at least 500kts to prevent icing(not remove)
  • Where to find lenticuler clouds: on the downwind wave crest
  • How to determin the type of the front - which way the cold air moves
A
85
Q

An air mass that is rarely in North American during the summer is?

A

CA

86
Q

ADF night effect is most at DUSK & DAWN

A
87
Q

According to TACAN which one is correct…

A

DME ground sent and receive the different frequency same pulse

88
Q

What type of fog is produced when a warm, stable air mass moves towards the Rocky mountains from the Pacific ocean?

A

Upslope fog

89
Q

A warm and stable air mass moves westward through the Prairies, the wind is light to moderate, will this cause?

A

Upslope fog

90
Q

What’s the process that causes steam fog?

A

raising dew point to the temperature

91
Q

Exam Q: Counter line or altitude gradient is the slope of the pressure surface

A
92
Q

Exam Q: There is a SPECI in the CYFC according to the GFA: weather happen as the indicate direction but faster

A
93
Q

The temperature increases but there is no moisture changes, what will change

A

The relative humidity

94
Q

For VASI approach lights, use the Upper and Middle bars for aircraft with a wheel to eye height of more than 25°

A