Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[Ther 201] E3 > Crossover > Flashcards

Crossover Flashcards

1
Q

False about Natural penicillin:

A. Good against Streptococci and Meningococci
B. Good against Staphylococci
C. Repository formula= Penicillin G Benzathine
D. Oral preparation= Phenoxymethy penicillin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In addition to Penicillin G, aminopenicillin has added activity to:

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Staphylococcus
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Streptococcus

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tue of Oxacillin except:

A. Has an activity to Staphylococcus
B. Has an activity to Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Primarily used for parenteral treatment of serious S. pneumoniae
D. Has an activity to Streptococcus

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True for Piperacillin-Tozabactam except:

A. Most broad spectrum available in the Philippines
B. With anaerobic activity
C. For MRSA
D. For P. aeruginosa

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rina is a 2 day old with untreated syphilis. Which penicillin would be given?

a. piperacilin-tazobactam
b. Co-amoxiclav
c. Meropenem
d. Penicillin G

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

compared to a 1st gen cephalosporin, a 3rd gen cephalosporin would be expected to exhibit?

A. improved activity against certain gram negative bacteria
B. lower levels of activity in the CSF
C. improved inhibition of folate synthesis by sensitive bacteria
D. AOTA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which among the ff statements about cefazolin is FALSE:

A. It is effective against Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus
B. It has good oral bioavailability.
C. It may used for skin infections and cellulitis.
D. It has no activity against enterococcus.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the advantage of using Cefepime over Ceftazidime?

a. lesser activity against gram positive bacteria
b. higher activity against Chlamydia
c. better activity against gram negative bacteria
d. should be used in all cases in the ER

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cefuroxime is useful for treatment of infections caused by the following pathogens except:

a. Haemophilus influenza
b. E. coli
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Legionella

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

[T/F] All clinically useful antibacterials are selectively toxic to microorganisms

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

[T/F] For an antibacterial antibiotic to be effective, it must first gain access to the target sites of action, that is or in the human host cell.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

[T/F] The basic mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics is inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis or function

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

[T/F] Compared with other pharmacological agents, antibacterial chemotherapeutic agents are reasonably safe.

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

[T/F] The word antibiotic is now often used to include antimicrobial agents, produced by microorganisms and those that are totally synthetic

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amoxicillin

A.       Aminopenicillin
B.       Carboxy Penicillin
C.       Natural Penicillin
D.       Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
E.        Ureide Penicillin
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Benzyl Penicillin

A.       Aminopenicillin
B.       Carboxy Penicillin
C.       Natural Penicillin
D.       Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
E.        Ureide Penicillin
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Carbenicillin

A.       Aminopenicillin
B.       Carboxy Penicillin
C.       Natural Penicillin
D.       Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
E.        Ureide Penicillin
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cloxacillin

A.       Aminopenicillin
B.       Carboxy Penicillin
C.       Natural Penicillin
D.       Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
E.        Ureide Penicillin
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Piperacillin

A.       Aminopenicillin
B.       Carboxy Penicillin
C.       Natural Penicillin
D.       Penicillinase-resistant penicillin
E.        Ureide Penicillin
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The beta-lactam antibacterial antibiotics include the following EXCEPT:

A. Penicillin V
B. Cefuroxime
C. Meropenem
D. Cilastatin

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This third generation cephalosporin is relatively resistant to hydrolysis by beta-lactamases and has the broadest gram-negative spectrum

A. Cefepime
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Cefuroxime
D. Cephalexin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Penicillin of choice for Streptococcus pyogenes is

A. Penicillin G
B. Penicillin V
C. Cloxacillin
D. Amoxicillin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Depot formulations of Penicillin G i.e., Benzathine Penicillin G and Procaine Penicillin G are inappropriate for meningitis

A. True
B. False

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The activity of extended spectrum penicillins goes beyond that of the aminopenicillins as it is active against

A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Enterococci
D. Pseudomonas

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

[T/F] Appropriate specimen collection from the infected organ system should be done day after starting antibiotic therapy

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

[T/F] Having a previous hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin G, would also predispose the patient to having a hypersensitivity reaction to another penicillin like piperacillin

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

[T/F] in treating bacterial infection in immunocompromised patient, such as those with leukemia a bacteriostactic agent is sufficient

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Beta-Lactam Antibacterial antibiotics are selectively toxic. Selective toxicity is

a. What the drug does to the patient
b. What the patient does to the drug
c. What the pathogen does to the patient
d. What the drug does to the pathogen
e. What the pathogen does to the drug

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of these drugs are beta-lactam antibiotics EXCEPT

a. Ampicillin
b. Aztreonam
c. Cephalexin
d. Gentamycin
e. Imipenem

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The basic mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics is

a. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
b. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
c. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. Inhibition of cell membrane function
e. Interference of microbial folic acid synthesis

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The penicillin of choice for Streptococcus pyogenes is

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Ampicillin
e. Piperacillin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In order to use Beta-Lactam antibiotics effectively and safely the following principles may be followed

a. Determine the pathogen causing the infection
b. Choose the right drug
c. Administer the drug properly
d. Prevent/minimize adverse drug reaction
e. All of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The following are side effects of Penicillin, EXCEPT:

A. Rashes
B. Ototoxicity
C. Diarrhea
D. Interstitial nephritis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

compared to a 1st gen cephalosporin, a 3rd gen cephalosporin would be expected to exhibit?

A. improved activity against certain gram negative bacteria
B. lower levels of activity in the CSF
C. improved inhibition of folate synthesis by sensitive bacteria
D. AOTA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Indications for Cotrimoxazole except

a. Burkholderia cepacia
b. Pneumocystis jiirovecii
c. candidiasis
d. H. influenza otitis media

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Indication for combination therapy of aminoglycosides with beta-lactams

a. empiric therapy for serious infections, e.g. neonatal sepsis
b. infective bacterial endocarditis
c. systemic pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
d. AOTA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True of Tetracycline EXCEPT:

A. Has good activity against intracellular bacteria such as Legionella and Chlamydia
B. Is safe for long term use in patients less than eight years old and pregnant women
C. Long acting preparations can be given once a day or every 12 hrs
D. Side effects include photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity, and SLE

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Erythromycin is used as an alternative drug for penicillin for many indications EXCEPT

A. Streptococcus pneumonia pneumonia
B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
C. Rheumatic fever prophylaxis
D. Syphilis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the correct indication for the usage of Chloramphenicol?

A. Malaria
B. Typhoid fever
C. Staphylococcal impetigo
D. Otitis media

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True of Ciprofloxacin

a. It is the drug of choice for methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
b. It has good activity for S. pneumonia
c. It inhibits topoisomerase II and IV
d. It is active against plasmodium

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Aminoglycoside

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cotrimoxazole

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tetracycline

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Vancomycin

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clindamycin

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Meropenem

A. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
B. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
C. Inhibitor of DNA gyrase
D. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Clindamycin

A.     Teeth discoloration in children
B.     Gray baby syndrome
C.    Arthropathy in children
D.    Redman syndrome
E.     Indicated for pseudomembranous colitis
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tetracycline

A.     Teeth discoloration in children
B.     Gray baby syndrome
C.    Arthropathy in children
D.    Redman syndrome
E.     Indicated for pseudomembranous colitis
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A.     Teeth discoloration in children
B.     Gray baby syndrome
C.    Arthropathy in children
D.    Redman syndrome
E.     Indicated for pseudomembranous colitis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Chloramphenicol

A.     Teeth discoloration in children
B.     Gray baby syndrome
C.    Arthropathy in children
D.    Redman syndrome
E.     Indicated for pseudomembranous colitis
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Vancomycin

A.     Teeth discoloration in children
B.     Gray baby syndrome
C.    Arthropathy in children
D.    Redman syndrome
E.     Indicated for pseudomembranous colitis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is used for the following indications EXCEPT

a. Haemophilus influenza upper respiratory tract infection
b. sepsis due to Candidemia
c. Typhoid fever
d. Pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include the following EXCEPT

a. Ototoxicity
b. Neuromuscular blockade
c. Nephrotoxicity
d. Redman syndrome

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Use of tetracyclines have been limited by its:

a. Being contraindicated in young children and pregnant women
b. narrow spectrum of activity
c. poor bioavailability
d. renal elimination

A

A

56
Q

Tetracyclines are appropriate therapy for the following indication EXCEPT:

a. leptospirosis
b. typhoid fever
c. Legionalla pneumonia
d. Chlamydia uethritis

A

B

57
Q

The advantage/s of Clarithromycin over Erithromycin is/are:

a. It has reduced gastrointestinal side effects
b. It has activity against methicilline resistant Staph aureus
c. It can be used for Haemophilis influenza infections
d. A and C
e. A and B

A

D

58
Q

Which of the items below is an INCORRECT indication for the use of chloramphenicol

a. treatment of community acquired bacterial meningitis and other CNS infections
b. treatment of typhoid fever
c. treatment of impetigo
d. treatment of very severe pneumonia

A

C

59
Q

The following are correct uses Ciprofloxacin EXCEPT

a. 19 year old female with Chlamydia urethritis
b. 12 year old with multi-resistant pseudomonas sepsis
c. 45 year old with dysentery
d. five year old with community acquired pneumonia

A

D

60
Q

The following are true statement about Vancomycin EXCEPT

a. has good oral bioavailability
b. may cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
c. reserved for treating Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
d. has no activity against gram negative bacteria

A

A

61
Q

piperacillin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. inhibitor of DNA gyrase
c. inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibitor of folic acid metabolism

A

C

62
Q

chloramphenicol

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. inhibitor of DNA gyrase
c. inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibitor of folic acid metabolism

A

A

63
Q

vancomycin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. inhibitor of DNA gyrase
c. inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibitor of folic acid metabolism

A

D

64
Q

ciprofloxacin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. inhibitor of DNA gyrase
c. inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibitor of folic acid metabolism

A

B

65
Q

Erythromicin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

A

66
Q

Cotrimoxazole

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

B

67
Q

Ciprofloxacin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

C

68
Q

Tetracyclin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

A

69
Q

Fansidar

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

B

70
Q

Ampicillin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

D

71
Q

Vancomycin

a. inhibitor of protein synthesis
b. Inhibitor of folate metabolism
c. Inhibitor of DNA Gyrase
d. Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis

A

D

72
Q

Which is true about penicillin group of antibacterials

a. blocks transpetidation
b. bacteriostatic
c. low doses may be used for meningitis
d. contraindicated for soft tissue infection

A

A

73
Q

The following statement is true regarding Carbapenems

a. It has low affinity to penicillin binding proteins
b. It is not easily hydrolyzed by beta lactamases
c. It has narrow spectrum of activity
d. It cannot be used for anaerobic infections

A

B

74
Q

true about broth dilution technique for measuring antimicrobial susceptibility

a. provides only qualitative information
b. radius of zone of inhibition is measured
c. standardized zone of inhibition sizes specific to bacterial species and antimicrobial determine if test strain is susceptible
d. uses serially diluted concentrations of the antibiotic in a broth medium containing culture of the test organism.

A

D

75
Q

Indications for the use of cotrimoxazole include the following except :

a. prophylaxis of Pneumocystii jirovecii pneumonia
b. treatment of susceptible Burkholderia cepacia sepsis
c. treatment of Histoplasma
d. treatment of H. influenza otitis media

A

C

76
Q

Combination therapy of an aminoglycoside with a beta lactam is indicated in the following

a. empiric therapy for serious infections
b. infective bacterial endocarditis
c. Systemic Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
d. AOTA

A

D

77
Q

True of tetracycline except:

a. has good activity against intracellular bacteria such as legionella and Chlamydia
b. is safe for long term use in patients less than eight years old and pregnant women
c. long acting preparations can be given once a day for every 12 hours
d. side effects include photosensitivity, hypatotoxicity and SLE

A

B

78
Q

Erythromycin is used as an alternative drug for penicillin for many indications except:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia
b. mycoplasma pneumonia
c. rheumatic fever prophylaxis
d. Syphilis

A

B

79
Q

what is a correct indication for the usage of chloramphenicol?

a. malaria
b. typhoid fever
c. staphylococcal impetigo
d. otitis media

A

B

80
Q

True of Ciprofloxacin:

a. it is the drug of choice for methicillin resistant S. aureus
b. it has good activity for S. pneumoniae
c. it inhibits topoisomerase II and IV
d. It is aactive against plasmodium

A

NA

81
Q

It is important to know the mechanism of action of antibiotics because it is needed

a. To choose drugs for combination
b. To know correct dose and interval
c. To predict hypersensitivity reactions
d. A and b only

A

D

82
Q

True about the disk diffusion technique for measuring antimicrobial susceptibility

a. Provides only definite quantitative information
b. Radius of zone of inhibition depends is measured
c. Standardized zone sizes specific to the bacterial species and antimicrobial determine if test strain is susceptible
d. Uses serially diluted concentrations of the antibiotic in a broth medium containing a culture of the test organism

A

A

83
Q

Indications for the use of Cotrimoxazole include the following except

a. Treatment and prophylaxis of Pneumocystis jervecii pneumonia
b. Treatment of susceptible Burkholderia cepacia sepsis
c. Treatment of Candida spp.
d. Treatment of typhoid fever

A

C

84
Q

Combination therapy of an aminoglycoside with a beta-lactam and/or anti-anaerobes is indicated in the following:

a. Empiric therapy for serious infections, e.g. neonatal sepsis, febrile neutropenia, nosocomial infections
b. Infective bacterial endocarditis
c. Systemic Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
d. All of the above

A

D

85
Q

True of tetracycline except

a. Has good activity against intracellular bacteria such as Mycoplasma and Chlamydia
b. Is safe for patients less than eight years old and pregnant women
c. Long acting preparations can be given once a day or every 12 hours
d. Side effects include photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity and SLE

A

B

86
Q

Erythromycin is used as an alternative drug for penicillin for many indications including

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa sepsis
d. Syphilis

A

D

87
Q

What is a correct indication for the usage of Chloramphenicol

a. Acute bacterial tonsillitis
b. Brain abscess
c. Staphylococcal impetigo
d. Otitis media

A

B

88
Q

True of Quinolones

a. It is the drug of choice for methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
b. It has poor activity against gram negative bacteria
c. It inhibits topoisomerase II and IV
d. It is active against Histoplasma

A

C

89
Q

True of artemether except:

A. combined with pyrepanthine for synergistic action.
B. inhibits ATPase
C. is rapidly absorbed

A

A

90
Q

Raltegravir

A. inhibits the microtubule synthesis thus irreversibly impairing glucose uptake and formation of the ATP by-products.
B. Inhibits integrase
C. Increases membrane permeability to Ca++ causing marked contraction and then trematode paralysis
D. Blocks chemokine receptor.. CCR5
E. Inhibits neuraminidase

A

B

91
Q

Maraviroc

A. inhibits the microtubule synthesis thus irreversibly impairing glucose uptake and formation of the ATP by-products.
B. Inhibits integrase
C. Increases membrane permeability to Ca++ causing marked contraction and then trematode paralysis
D. Blocks chemokine receptor.. CCR5
E. Inhibits neuraminidase

A

D

92
Q

Oseltamivir

A. inhibits the microtubule synthesis thus irreversibly impairing glucose uptake and formation of the ATP by-products.
B. Inhibits integrase
C. Increases membrane permeability to Ca++ causing marked contraction and then trematode paralysis
D. Blocks chemokine receptor.. CCR5
E. Inhibits neuraminidase

A

E

93
Q

Praziquantel

A. inhibits the microtubule synthesis thus irreversibly impairing glucose uptake and formation of the ATP by-products.
B. Inhibits integrase
C. Increases membrane permeability to Ca++ causing marked contraction and then trematode paralysis
D. Blocks chemokine receptor.. CCR5
E. Inhibits neuraminidase

A

C

94
Q

Albendazole

A. inhibits the microtubule synthesis thus irreversibly impairing glucose uptake and formation of the ATP by-products.
B. Inhibits integrase
C. Increases membrane permeability to Ca++ causing marked contraction and then trematode paralysis
D. Blocks chemokine receptor.. CCR5
E. Inhibits neuraminidase

A

A

95
Q

Which statement is false?

A. Drug of choice for ascariasis is Abendazole
B. Drug of choice for filariasis is Diethylcarbamate
C. Drug of choice for schistosoma is Praziquantel
D. Drug of choice for Taenia saginata is pyrantel embonate

A

D

96
Q

True of Metronidazole except:

A. Nitro group activation by ferrodoxin resulting in reactive cytotoxic products leading to death of parasite
B. Treatment for Ascaris and Trichuris
C. Contraindicated with alcohol
D. Used for Amebiasis

A

B

97
Q

True of Quinine except:

A. First line drug against severe malaria.
B. Good bioavailability
C. Has anti-inflammatory properties and can be used as an alternative drug for rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythmatoses.
D. May cause hypoglycemia even in therapeutic doses.

A

C

98
Q

All are true statements about Metronidazole EXCEPT

a. Undergoes a reductive bioactivation of its nitro group by ferrodoxin to form reactive cytotoxic products which react with DNA
b. May be used for ascariasis and trichomonas
c. Concomitant use with alcohol is contraindicated
d. May be used for the treatment of amoebiasis

A

B

99
Q

True of Chloroquine EXCEPT

a. It is the first line of drug for the treatment of malaria
b. Its mechanism of action includes decreased DNA synthesis of the parasite
c. It has anti-inflammatory actions and may be used in arthritis and discoid lupus erythematosus
d. May cause folic acid deficiency

A

D

100
Q

True of Artemether EXCEPT

a. Combined with pyrimethamine for synergism
b. Given as first-line treatment for malaria
c. Has its antiparasitic effects on the younger, ring-forming parasites
d. Not recommended for prophylaxis because of its short half-life

A

A

101
Q

Which statement is FALSE

a. The drug of choice for ascariasis is albendazole
b. The drug of choice for filariasis is diethylcarbamazine
c. The drug of choice for shcistotomiasis is praziquantel
d. The drug of choice for taenia saginata is pyrantel embonate

A

D

102
Q

which is an incorrect indication?

a. diethylcarbamazine for filariasis
b. artemether-lumefantrine for plasmodium flaciparum
c. praziquantel for schistosomiasis
d. pyrantel embonate for candida spp.

A

D

103
Q

true about quinine

a. it is an alternative drug for taenia saginata
b. complexes with double stranded DNA to prevent strand separation of plasmodium
c. may cause steven Johnsons’s Syndrome
d. AOTA

A

B

104
Q

True about QUININE:

a. It is an alternative drug for taenia saginata
b. Complexes with double stranded DNA to prevent strand separation of plasmodium
c. May cause steven Johnson’s syndrome
d. All of the above

A

B

105
Q

The following are true of Coartem except:

a. Is a combination of two antifolate drugs
b. Is the current drug choice for falcifarum (by the department)
c. Is a tissue schizonticide ® alternative answer… or correct answer.
d. Is given IV only

A

B

106
Q

Metronidazole may be used to treat the following

a. Extraintestinal amoebiasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Giardiasis
d. All of the above

A

D

107
Q

True of Albendazole except:

a. Is a narrow spectrum antihelminthic and can only be used to treat ascariasis
b. Inhibits microtubule synthesis and inhibits glucose uptake
c. May induce clearance of the parasite from the GIT after few days of treatment
d. Is a benzimidazole carbamate

A

A

108
Q

True about acyclovir

A. polymerase inhibitor
B. HBV and HIV treatment
C. 20-30% bioavailability

A

A

109
Q

False about valacyclovir

A. After oral administration it is rapidly converted to acyclovir in the intestine and liver
B. After absorption, serum levels is 3-5% higher tha acyclovir
C. Produces nausea and vomiting
D. Should be given intravenously

A

D

110
Q

True of Efavirenz except:

A. It is the recommended anti-protease drug
B. A monotherapeutic use is treatment of Varicella Zoster
C. It is contraindicated in pregnant women
D. It is available in fixed combination with Tenofovir and Emtricitabine

A

A

111
Q

True of Tenofivir except:

A. Inhibits reverse transcription in HIV infected cell
B. Usually recommended NRTI with Emtricitabine in combination with a protease inhibitor/NNRTI
C. Causes osteomalacia
D. Cure for HIV/AIDS

A

D

112
Q

A true statement about Acyclovir

a. It is a protease inhibitor
b. It is active against HIV and CMV
c. It has a poor bioavailability of only 20-30%
d. The oral preparation may be used for HSV encephalitis

A

C

113
Q

All are true statements about Zidovudine EXCEPT

a. Competitively inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme
b. May be used to treat Hepatitis A
c. It was the first drug to be discovered to be active against HIV
d. Side effects include anemia and GI distress

A

B

114
Q

A true statement about Ritonavir

a. Known to cause lactic acidosis due to hepatic steatosis
b. Noncompetitively inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase by binding to a site distant from the enzyme’s active site
c. May develop serum lipid abnormalities (hyperlipidemia, hypertriglyceridemia), redistribution of body fat (lipodystrophy)
d. Has good CNS penetration

A

C

115
Q

Starting Oseltamivir as therapy is appropriate for the following

a. Treatment of Influenza A in elderly patients
b. Treatment of Influenza B in a 32 yr old who has symptoms already for 5 days
c. Prophylaxis for AH1N1 in a pregnant patient
d. Treatment of chicken pox in a leukemic patient

A

C

116
Q

Acyclovir

a. inhibits DNA polymerase
b. excellent activity against herpes
c. generally well tolerated
d. AOTA

A

D

117
Q

True of Valacyclovir except

a. is a prodrug of ritonavir
b. produces serum levels 3-5times that of acyclovir
c. may be used to treat genital herpes
d. used as prophylaxis against CMV in organ transplant patients
explanation: it is a prodrug of acyclovir

A

A

118
Q

True of Ganciclovir:

a. is a protease inhibitor
b. has excelent activity against CMV
c. may be given for treatment of varicella zoster
d. used for herpes encephalitis

A

B

119
Q

Principles in treating HIV patients include

a. must consist of at least three drugs including NRTI
b. goal of therapy includes preservation of immunologic function
c. risk of delayed therapy include increased risk of HIV transmission
d. AOTA

A

D

120
Q

True of NRTIs

a. inhibitor of protease
b. may cause lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis
c. may be used as monotherapy in patients with AIDS
d. has negligible side effects

A

B

121
Q

True of protease inhibitors

a. enhanced CNS penetration
b. may cause lipodystrophy
c. has minimal drug interactions
d. prevents fusion of the HIV virus with host cell

A

B

122
Q

Oseltamivir

a. Blocks M2 protein involved in activation of the virus
b. best way to prevent influenza pandemics
c. may be used for treatment and prophylaxis against influenza A and B
d. may be effective when starting the medication 4 days after the start of symptoms

A

C

123
Q

False about Natural penicillin:

a. Good against Streptococci and Meningococci
b. Good against Staphylococci
c. Repository formula= Penicillin G Benzathine
d. Oral preparation= Phenoxymethy penicillin

A

B

124
Q

Rina is a 2 day old with untreated syphilis. Which penicillin would be given?

a. piperacilin-tazobactam
b. Co-amoxiclav
c. Meropenem
d. Penicillin G

A

D

125
Q

Compared to a 1st gen cephalosporin, a 3rd gen cephalosporin would be expected to exhibit?

a. Improved activity against certain gram negative bacteria
b. Lower levels of activity in the CSF
c. Improved inhibition of folate synthesis by sensitive bacteria
d. AOTA

A

A

126
Q

Cefuroxime is useful for treatment of infections caused by the following pathogens except:

a. Haemophilus influenza
b. E. coli
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Legionella

A

A

127
Q

Erythromycin is used as an alternative for penicillin for may indications except:

a. S. pneumoniae
b. M. pneumoniae
c. Rheumatic fever prophylaxis
d. Syphilis

A

B

128
Q

Ascaris

a. Chloroquine
b. Albendazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e. Praziquantel
f. NOTA

A

B

129
Q

Enterobius

a. Chloroquine
b. Albendazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e. Praziquantel
f. NOTA

A

B, C

130
Q

Filariasis

a. Chloroquine
b. Albendazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e. Praziquantel
f. NOTA

A

D

131
Q

Schistosomas laconicum

a. Chloroquine
b. Albendazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e. Praziquantel
f. NOTA

A

E

132
Q

Plasmodium falcifarum

a. Chloroquine
b. Albendazole
c. Mebendazole
d. Diethylcarbamazine
e. Praziquantel
f. NOTA

A

A

133
Q

True of Quinine except:

a. First line drug against severe malaria.
b. Good bioavailability
c. Has anti-inflammatory properties and can be used as an alternative drug for rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythmatoses.
d. May cause hypoglycemia even in therapeutic doses.

A

C

134
Q

True of Metronidazole except:

a. Nitro group activation by ferrodoxin resulting in reactive cytotoxic products leading to death of parasite
b. Treatment for Ascaris and Trichuris
c. Contraindicated with alcohol
d. Used for Amebiasis

A

B

135
Q

True about acyclovir

a. polymerase inhibitor
b. HBV and HIV treatment
c. 20-30% bioavailability

A

A

136
Q

False about valacyclovir

a. After oral administration it is rapidly converted to acyclovir in the intestine and liver
b. After absorption, serum levels is 3-5% higher tha acyclovir
c. Produces nausea and vomiting
d. Should be given intravenously

A

D

[Ther 201] E3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions