Cross-Section of Returns Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Sharpe Ratio

A

The Sharpe ratio measures the asset’s excesses return over total risk and is defined as
SR=(μ_i-r_f)/σ_i
It describes how much excess return you receive for the volatility of holding a riskier asset.

The tangency portfolio has the maximum possible Sharpe ratio. The Sharpe ratio can be illustrated as the slope of the line through the risk-free return to the portfolio.

Testing the mean-variance efficiency of a portfolio is equivalent to testing whether the Sharpe ratio of the portfolio is the maximum of the set of Sharpe ratios of all possible portfolios, i.e. alpha is statistically indistinguishable from zero for all portfolios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CAPM Time Series Test

A

There are different hypothesis we can test:
A. Test whether all assets lie on the security market line by (a) testing alphas individually using t-tests (H_0: α_i=0), or by (b) testing for joint significance of the alphas (a Wald-test)

B. Test whether the market portfolio has the highest Sharpe Ratio, i.e., testing if the ex post tangency portfolio and the market portfolio are identical (Gibbons-Ross-Shanken test).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Asymptotic Joint Test

A

t-tests of individual alphas (=0) may be too strict. Assets may have non-zero alphas (over limited time) even if the CAPM is true. Instead, we consider an economy-wide test of the CAPM by testing whether all α_i’s are jointly zero at time t. This can be considered a test of whether the average α is zero. It requires the covariance structure of the α_i’s. Since the population covariance structure is unknown, we have to rely on sample estimates. This results in an asymptotic Wald-test for joint significance of the alphas:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type I Error

A

Reject H_0, although H_0 is true (i.e., a false positive, size) with probability is α

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type II Error

A

Failure to reject H_0, when H_0 is true (i.e., a false negative) with probability is β

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Correct Inference

A

Accept H_0 and H_0 is true (i.e., true negative) with probability 1-α.
Reject H_0 when H_a is true (i.e., true positive, power) with probability 1-β.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Size of the Test

A

Size is the probability of making a Type I error (probability of falsely rejecting H_0 when H_0 is true). For a finite sample test, size is equal to the chosen significance level (e.g., 5%). For an asymptotic test, there may be serious deviations between the true size and the chosen significance level α, especially if the sample is small.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Power of Test

A

Power is the probability of making a Type II error (Failure to reject H_0, when H_0 is true (i.e., a false negative) with probability β). A reasonable power is typically set at 80%, i.e., Type II error rate is β=20%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trade of Power and Size

A

There is a trade-off between error rates α and β. For any given sample size, the effort to reduce one type of error generally results in increasing the other type of error. For a given test, the only way to reduce both error rates is to increase the sample size, and this may not be feasible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Testing the CAPM - Implications for Empirical Design

A

Number of securities N should be kept small relative to T. We have thousands of securities trading at any point in time. But we cannot just throw stocks away to decrease N. Instead, form portfolios (usually based on firm characteristics). N then refers to the number of portfolios NOT to the number of stocks. However, then the tangency portfoliio will consist of fewer assets (less diversification, bigger standard deviation σ_q, smaller δ, lower power). So, there is a trade-off between having too many or too few portfolios. Especially if your T is small, you should be careful. N should be big enough to form a well-diversified tangency portfolio.
Rule of thumb N=10.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When do we need cross sectional returns?

A

Time-series regressions only work for portfolios and when factors are returns, so if we wish to test whether investing in a single asset yields alpha, or if a factor that is not a return yields re-turns beyond risk compensation, we need cross-sectional tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Testing the CAPM in Cross Sectional Tests

A

A zero intercept (α) is not the only testable implication of the CAPM. Alternatively, the CAPM also implies a linear positive relationship between beta and the expected excess return i.e. the SML line.

  1. Beta Estimation: Estimate betas for all assets (firms, portfolios) making N time-series regressions
  2. Formulate the Regression: Perform a cross-sectional regression at a point in time or averaged over time, where the dependent variable is the excess return (return over the risk-free rate) of each asset, and the independent variable is the beta of each asset –> Regress N average returns on N betas

Interpretation; In CAPM, 𝛼 (the intercept) should statistically not differ from zero, and the slope 𝛽 should equal the market risk premium. Significant deviations would imply CAPM does not hold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Testing the CAPM in Cross Sectional Tests - Empirical Challenges

A

Problem I: The market portfolio is not observable (Roll’s critique). A common proxy for the market return is the value-weighted portfolio of all traded equities.
Problem II: Which risk-free rate to use. Is there a risk-free rate, and is it reasonable to assume it is non-stochastic?
Problem III: Betas are not observable. We ca estimate using OLS, but which sample period (and data frequency) should be use to estimate OLS?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why do we test Portfolios?

A

The economic issue when testing individual firms is that (a) CAPM is a one-period model where (b) beta do not change through time. In real life, firms change (products, size, market)
The statistical issue when testing individual firms is
(1) Some firm returns are highly correlated (cross-sectional correlation). OLS SE are too small
(2) Betas are estimated, and if the standard error of the betas is too large, the point estimate will be biased so γ ̂_0 is too large and γ ̂_1 is too small. Standard errors are also too small.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Testing the CAPM in CS Tests: Approach to Problem I fixed firm beta

A

(1) Time-varying betas. Compute rolling betas, so each year compute beta based on the past data.
(2) Portfolio sort. Build portfolios based on estimated betas, e.g., each year take the estimated beta and sort stocks into portfolios according to their beta. Hold the portfolio for one year and rebalance.
Interim conclusion: Economically sensible to compute time-varying betas for firms. For portfo-lios, constant betas are easier to justify (if CAPM holds, stocks can switch portfolios when sys-tematic risk changes). Portfolio betas have lower standard errors as they are more diversified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Testing the CAPM in CS Tests: Approach to cross-sectional correlation.

A

Fama-MacBeth estimator. Standard OLS regressions assume observations are independent. However, firm returns have strong cross-sectional correlation. This means the data is less in-formative than OLS implies. The Fama-MacBeth method provides a possible solution frequently applied

17
Q

Fama-MacBeth Regression

A
  1. Estimate Betas: For each asset, run a time-series regression to estimate rolling betas.
    This would involve regressing the excess returns of each asset over the risk-free rate against the excess returns of the market portfolio over the risk-free rate.
    R_it-R_f= alpha + β_im * (R_mt-R_f)+ e_it
  2. In the second step, the betas (𝛽_im) estimated from the first step are used in a series of cross-sectional regressions. Each month (or period), regress the excess returns of all assets against the estimated betas from the first step:
    R_it-R_f=γ_0t+γ_1t β ̂_i+u_it
    γ0 should be close to zero if the asset pricing model is correct.
    𝛾m represents the price of risk associated with the market risk factor (it should be the market risk premium if the model holds).
  3. Average Coefficients: After running these cross-sectional regressions for each time period, calculate the average of the estimated coefficients (γ0 & γm) across all periods. The standard errors of these averages are adjusted for the clustering of errors over time to account for any serial correlation.
18
Q

FMB Features

A

FMB standard errors account for cross-sectional correlation. The intuition is a measurement error is how an estimator changes through samples. FMB method uses max subsamples and looks at how the statistic changes through samples. Cross-sectional correlation increases varia-tion across subsamples.
Point estimators of FMB are identical to OLS when the betas (regressors) are constant. The standard errors of FMB are identical to OLS when there is no cross-sectional correlation.

19
Q

FMB Limitations

A

Fama-MacBeth standard errors do not account for the fact that betas (regressors) are estimated. If the betas (regressors) are constant (i.e., the assets are portfolios), then Shanken(1992) pro-vides correction formulas for standard errors. If the betas (regressors) are time-varying, there is no correction.

20
Q

What are classic anomalies

A

Classic anomalies are size, value and momentum. These firm characteristics have been found to predict returns after controlling for beta.

Fama and French (1992) look at several anomalies at the same time (size, value, and E/P ratio). They find a negative size effect and a positive value effect.

21
Q

Classic Anomalies: Fama-French 3-Factor-Model

A

It aims to explain the variation in stock returns through three distinct factors: market risk, size of firms, and the book-to-market value.

  1. Market Risk Factor: Like in the CAPM, the first factor is the excess return on the market portfolio over the risk-free rate. This factor captures the overall market’s premium over risk-free securities.
  2. Size Factor (SMB for “Small Minus Big”): This factor represents the excess return of small-cap stocks over large-cap stocks. The rationale is that smaller companies tend to have higher risk-adjusted returns than larger companies. This factor aims to capture this size effect in asset pricing.
  3. Value Factor: This factor measures the excess return of stocks with high book-to-market ratios (value stocks) over those with low book-to-market ratios (growth stocks). Historically, value stocks have been observed to outperform growth stocks, and this factor accounts for the value premium observed in the market.
22
Q

5 big areas of anomalies

A

(1) Value: BE/ME, P/E, D/P (…)
(2) Profitability: Gross profits-to-assets, ROE (…)
(3) Investment: Investment/assets, investments in growth (…)
(4) Momentum: Past returns, analyst/earnings surprise (…)
(5) Trading: Beta, size, idiosyncratic volatility (…)

23
Q

Classic anomalies: Fama-French-Carhart 4-Factor-Model:

A

The four-factor model can price size, value, and momentum portfolios by construction. We add the factor WML (winner-minus-loser) where we are long winner stocks and short loser stocks.

24
Q

Why should alphas be jointly zero when CAPM holds

A
  1. Alpha represents the abnormal return or excess return of a security or portfolio over its expected return based on its beta. It’s calculated as the difference between the actual returns and the expected returns given the security’s beta.
  2. If CAPM perfectly describes the risk-return relationship, then all correctly priced securities should have an alpha of zero. This means that the securities are priced such that their expected returns compensate exactly for their risk (as measured by beta).
  3. Zero alphas support the notion of market efficiency, implying that all available information is already reflected in stock prices, and there are no consistent, unexploited arbitrage opportunities. This is aligned with the efficient market hypothesis, a foundational concept that underpins CAPM.
25
Q

Why should betas equal the market risk premium when CAPM holds

A
  1. The coefficient on beta (β) in the regression model used in cross-sectional tests should ideally equal the market risk premium. This is because, under CAPM, beta is the only relevant measure of risk that should explain the return on a security, and the market risk premium is the reward for bearing this systematic risk.
  2. If the slope coefficient (on β) exactly equals the market risk premium, it confirms that the market compensates investors proportionally to the amount of market risk (systematic risk) they bear, and no other variables are necessary to explain the variation in stock returns. This outcome supports CAPM’s assertion that all diversifiable risk (idiosyncratic risk) can be eliminated through appropriate diversification.
  3. Implications: A perfect match supports the hypothesis that the market operates efficiently in the sense that only systematic risk is rewarded, aligning with CAPM’s predictions.
    If the coefficient on β significantly deviates from the observed market risk premium, it implies that other factors might also be influencing returns, suggesting the presence of anomalies or the need for extended models beyond CAPM, such as the Fama-French three-factor model.