Cross Infection Control Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is gained by a vaccination

A

Acquired

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2
Q

What is the sequence of PPE removal

A

Gloves, apron, visor/goggles, mask

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3
Q

Inhalation, ingestion and inoculation are all routes of entry for infection, which is the fourth one

A

Bodily fluids

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4
Q

Indirect cross infection is caused by

A

Transfer of infection from person, to equipment, to person

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5
Q

Direct cross infection is caused by

A

Transfer of infection from person to person

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6
Q

Which bacteria causes skin and gum boils

A

Staphylococci

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7
Q

Which bacteria would you find in ANUG

A

Bacillus fusiform

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8
Q

Some dental products are sterilised industrially using

A

Exposure to gamma rays

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9
Q

Bacillus fusiformis bacteria are

A

Rod shaped

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10
Q

Chicken pox is caused by

A

Herpes varicella

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11
Q

All impressions that are sent to the lab must be

A

Immersed in sodium hypochlorite

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12
Q

Legal obligations associated with injury following an accident at the dental surgery are covered by

A

RIDDOR

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13
Q

Why must alcohol based wipes not be used on metal items or instruments

A

Binds blood to metal

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14
Q

Which sterilisation method is used to sterilise pre-packed items such as needles and sutures

A

Radiation

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15
Q

What shape is bacilli

A

Rod

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16
Q

What is the correct cycle of a washer/disinfector

A

Flush, wash, rinse, thermal disinfect, dry

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17
Q

How should instruments to be sterilised in the autoclave be set out on the tray

A

Laid in a single layer on perforated trays

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18
Q

Which of the following cannot be destroyed by normal methods of sterilisation

A

Prion protein

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19
Q

Following a sharps injury, if the source patient is known to be or suspected as having HIV, or is a Hep C carrier, emergency anti-viral treatment must commence within how long of the injury

A

60 minutes

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20
Q

How long would you carry out a social hand wash for

A

10-15 seconds

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21
Q

What is the current expiry date for packaged items

A

1year

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22
Q

Where would you use a red coloured coded mop

A

Bathroom

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23
Q

Where would you use a green colour coded mop

A

Kitchen

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24
Q

Where would you use a blue colour coded mop

A

Waiting area

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25
Q

What is a type of microscopic plant organism that grows across cells and tissues

A

Fungi

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26
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation

A

Heat, swelling, redness, pain, loss of function

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27
Q

Ultrasonic baths are used to

A

Remove debris particles before autoclaving

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28
Q

The transfer of pathogenic micro-organisms from one person to another is known as

A

Cross infection

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29
Q

For how long should dental unit water lines be flushed for at the beginning and end of the session

A

2 minutes

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30
Q

What first action would you take if you suffered a sharps injury

A

Stop, bleed under running water

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31
Q

How is Hep B commonly transmitted

A

Bodily fluids

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32
Q

Which micro-organism is responsible for angular chelitis

A

Candida Albicans

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33
Q

“Kills all living pathogenic micro-organisms to produce asepsis” is a definition of what term

A

Sterilisation

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34
Q

What colour do TST strips turn to confirm sterilisation

A

Purple

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35
Q

How often must you change your uniform

A

Daily

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36
Q

What is the most effective method of pre-sterilisation

A

Washer/disinfector

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37
Q

Where would you dispose of a suction tip

A

Infectious hazardous waste

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38
Q

What type of wipe would you use to decontaminate your surgery surfaces

A

Anti-microbial no alcohol surface disinfectant wipes

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39
Q

What type of mouthwash may be prescribed to a patient to treat an infection

A

Chlorhexadine

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40
Q

What is used to keep the bearings in a hand piece from rusting

A

Lubricant

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41
Q

Exposure to which of the following can be monitored by a unrine sample

A

Mercury

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42
Q

Which technique is an adequate control of the release of mercury vapour during dental procedures

A

High speed aspiration

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43
Q

In the first months of life, a baby may develop resistance to specific micro-organisms, what describes this condition

A

Passive

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44
Q

What is the definition of disinfection

A

The killing /destruction of bacteria and fungi, but not spores nor some viruses

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45
Q

Surgical hand washing techniques must be carried out for a minimum of

A

2 minutes

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46
Q

To ensure that all persons understand the nature of ta chemical risk, a pictogram symbol is used, a skull and cross bone signifies which risk

A

Toxic

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47
Q

Which of the following classifications can be safely tackled with a water fire extinguisher

A

Class A fire

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48
Q

A pa Trent falls and fractures a long bone, which of the following regulations will be followed, in relation to determining the fall

A

RIDDOR

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49
Q

Which of the following is an example of an infection not caused by a micro-organisms

A

Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease

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50
Q

Which of the following diseases is a blood borne virus that can be spread via needle stick injuries, and increase the chances of those affected of liver cancer

A

Hepatitis B

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51
Q

Which of the following is an optional requirement of the decontamination room

A

Washer/disinfector

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52
Q

Which of the following options is the most likely method of reducing the cross infection risk to zero

A

Use of disposables

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53
Q

Which of the following items of PPE is the most efficient at preventing aerosol inhalation

A

Face mask

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54
Q

How are surgical swabs sterilised

A

Gamma radiation and packaged

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55
Q

If there was a major cross infection incident in the surgery, who would it be reported to

A

RIDDOR

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56
Q

Universal precautions imply

A

Have a written procedure for infection control

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57
Q

What does asepsis imply

A

Eliminates all visible pathogens

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58
Q

Which of the following would actions would you carry out at the end of the patients treatment

A

Remove disposable barriers

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59
Q

Bleach based disinfectants can be used to disinfect which of the following

A

Dental impressions

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60
Q

Why are dental nurses given a full course of immunisations

A

For long term immunity

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61
Q

Which of the following infectious conditions is more likely to be caused by direct cross infection

A

Herpes simplex

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62
Q

Under best practice guidelines, dental equipment such as chairs and light controls that cannot be moved should

A

Protective barriers placed

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63
Q

Non pathogenic micro-organisms cause

A

Nothing

64
Q

What is a feature of bacteria

A

Capable of producing spores

65
Q

How should you wear uniform to prevent cross infection

A

Wear only in practice

66
Q

When is a post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) vaccine given

A

After a dirty sharps injury from a patient with HIV

67
Q

When would an apron for protection be worn

A

When changing x-ray chemicals

68
Q

How far should a sharps bin be filled to

A

Two thirds full

69
Q

What would you use to handle an x-ray film packet before processing

A

Isopropyl alcohol wipes

70
Q

Sterilisation is the destruction of which of the following

A

Bacteria, fungi, spores, viruses

71
Q

When would you inspect decontaminated equipment

A

After every use

72
Q

Standard precautions imply which of the following should be carried out

A

Hand washing

73
Q

Which act does a “duty of care” for dental staff come under

A

Health and Safety at Work Act

74
Q

Which hand washing technique would be carried out before a complex oral procedure

A

Aseptic surgical hand wash

75
Q

Where would you dispose of a used blade

A

Yellow lidded bin

76
Q

If a patient presented with a cold sore and needed to be treated, what action could be taken

A

See them at the end of the day

77
Q

How would non digital x-ray holders be cleaned

A

Sterilised

78
Q

What is the effect of HIV on the human body

A

Reduced immunity

79
Q

How many years minimum should you keep validation records for

A

2 years

80
Q

What is the most important item of PPE listed below

A

Apron

81
Q

How do you effectively clean the dirty area

A

Use detergent then disinfect

82
Q

Where do the bacteria legionella contaminate in the surgery

A

Water supply

83
Q

What is the main chemical found in surface disinfectant wipes

A

Sodium hypochlorite

84
Q

What conditions are favourable for bacteria to grow

A

Warm and moist

85
Q

Who is required to comply with standard precautions in the dental setting

A

All dental personal

86
Q

Where unwrapped instruments are to be used in the same day in clinical areas, they should be stored and covered to protect from contamination by aerosols in clean and dry conditions until used. When should these instruments be reprocessed if not used in this time scale

A

Within that same day

87
Q

Dental practices can store un-pouched instruments in an unused clinical area. This can be either an unused surgery or the clean side of a decontamination room, how long can instruments be stored for in this way before being reprocessed

A

1 week

88
Q

Why do we test and ultrasonic bath

A

To check for ultrasonic activity

89
Q

When would you run a test cycle on an autoclave

A

Before the first cycle

90
Q

What shape is Treponema Vincenti

A

Spiral shaped

91
Q

Which micro-organisms are associated with ANUG

A

Treponema Vincenti and Bacillus fusiform

92
Q

How would you test an autoclave is reaching its optimum temperature in the morning test cycle

A

Empty load with a TST strip

93
Q

What is the most effective way of removing debris from instruments

A

Washer/disinfector

94
Q

What is the most common cause of cross infection

A

Ineffective hand washing

95
Q

After a surgical procedure, what is recommended to be used to flush through the dental unit water line

A

Saline

96
Q

How long would you carry out a social hand wash for

A

15-20 seconds

Isopharm - 15-30 seconds

97
Q

Where would you use a red coloured coded mop

A

Bathroom

98
Q

Where would you use a green colour coded mop

A

Kitchen

99
Q

Where would you use a blue colour coded mop

A

Waiting area

100
Q

What shape is cocci

A

Round

101
Q

Standard precautions imply that

A

All patients must be considered as a cross infection risk

102
Q

A micro-organism capable of causing disease is described as

A

Pathogenic

103
Q

What does PPE stand for

A

Personal protective equipment

104
Q

What is the optimum temperature and pressure for an autoclave

A

134 degrees 2.25 bar

105
Q

Which areas would you use a yellow mop in the practice

A

Clinical areas

106
Q

Which of the following is recommended for clinical hand hygiene washing

A

Antimicrobial liquid soap

107
Q

Which act is concerned with the disposals of waste

A

Environmental protection act

108
Q

What antibiotic is used for the treatment of ANUG

A

Metronidazole

109
Q

Which hepatitis is there currently not an immunisation for

A

Hep C

110
Q

A cold sore is also known as which virus

A

Herpes simplex

111
Q

A spillage of blood/urine/bodily fluid should be dealt with which substance

A

Sodium hypochlorite

112
Q

Name the name of the fungus responsible for denture stomatitis and angular chelitis

A

Candida Albicans

113
Q

Immunisations initiate the body to produce

A

Antibodies

114
Q

What does COSHH stand for

A

Control of substances hazardous to health

115
Q

If a sterile pack of gauze becomes damp in storage it should be

A

Discarded

116
Q

What is the term for a person who has no symptoms of a disease but may pass it on to another person

A

Carrier

117
Q

What is the bacteria which initiates dental caries called

A

Streptococcus mutans

118
Q

The antiviral agent “aciclovir” may be prescribed by a dentist in the treatment of which condition

A

Herpes simplex

119
Q

An N type autoclave produces steam and a wet load, true or false

A

True

120
Q

B and S type autoclave produce a wet load, true or false

A

False

121
Q

For how long should dental unit water lines be flushed for between patients

A

20-30 seconds

122
Q

How often should a patients medical history be checked

A

Every patient visit

123
Q

An effective measure in preventing the spread of infectious disease is

A

Wearing gloves

124
Q

Following the third inoculation for Hep B, a blood sample is taken to check

A

Titre levels

125
Q

The most common bacterial infection detected in the mouth of adult patients is

A

Dental caries

126
Q

What is an N type autoclave

A

Steam
Suitable for unwrapped solid items laid in single layer per tray
After cycle ends instruments will be dried before they are pouched

127
Q

What is a B type autoclave

A

Vacuum and uses air and it is suitable to sterilise inside of hollow and wrapped items
Air is sucked out the chamber so steam contacts all instruments as it is sucked through

128
Q

What is an S type autoclave

A

Vacuum and can sterilise packaged items

129
Q

What is bacteria

A

Microscopic single cell organism that survive as inactive spores when conditions are not favourable for them to grow and reproduce

130
Q

What is fungi

A

Type of microscopic plant organism that grows across cells and tissues as an extensive branching network of fungal tissue

131
Q

What is a virus

A

A type of ultramiscopic organism that lives within cells of other organisms such as humans

132
Q

What are prions

A

Not a micro organism a special type of infectious protein that is capable of causing disease

133
Q

What shape is cocci

A

Round

134
Q

What shape is bacilli

A

Rod

135
Q

What shape is spirochate

A

Spiral

136
Q

Steprotococcus mutans

A

Circular living in chains

Initiates caries

137
Q

Lactobacilli

A

Rod shaped with rounded ends

Found in established caries

138
Q

Staphylococci

A

Causes skin and gingival boils

Circular colonies living in clusters

139
Q

Bascillus fusiformis

A

Found in ANUG a specific periodontal condition which is often seen in young adults with poor oral hygiene
Rod shaped with pointed ends

140
Q

Borrelia vincenti

A
Found in ANUG 
Spiral shaped (spirocate)
141
Q

Acitinomyces

A

Rod shaped

142
Q

Porphyromonas gingivalis

A

Rod shaped

143
Q

Treponema denticola

A

Rod shaped

144
Q

Fusobacterium nucleatum

A

Rod shaped

145
Q

Campylobacter retus

A

Vary from spiral to rod or curved in shape

146
Q

Hep B

A

Transmitted by blood or other bodily fluids

Affects the liver, causing inflammation and symptoms such as headaches, fever and jaundice

147
Q

Hep C

A

Transmitted via blood to blood contact

This strain of the virus has a high mortality rate and there is no vaccination available

148
Q

HIV

A

Transmitted mainly be contact with blood containing the virus. The body’s natural defence mechanism is seriously impaired and patients succumb to infections. The virus will lead to AIDS and there is no vaccination

149
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

A

Caused by abnormal pieces of protein called prions
They damage cells of the nervous system, forming holes in the tissue which will eventually lead to severe brain damage and death
Single items must be used

150
Q

what is HTM 01

A

Decontamination

151
Q

What is HTM 02

A

Medical gases

152
Q

What is HTM 03

A

Heating and ventilation systems

153
Q

What is HTM 04

A

Water systems

154
Q

What is HTM 05

A

Fire safety

155
Q

What type of autoclave would a TST strip be used on

A

N and B

156
Q

What type of autoclave would a helix or Bowie dick test be used on

A

B