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Cross Country Flight Planning > Cross Country Flight Planning > Flashcards

Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

3 common ways to navigate?

A

Pilotage- visual landmarks
Dead reckoning- computing direction
Radio navigation- use of radio aids

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2
Q

What types of charts are available for VFR?

A

Sectional charts- slow to medium aircraft
VFR Terminal Area Charts- Class B charts
VFR Flyway Planning Charts

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3
Q

Define: Isogonic Line

A

Connects points of equal magnetic variation

-dotted magenta line on sectional

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4
Q

Define: Magnetic Variation

A

The angle between true north and magnetic north

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5
Q

How do you convert true direction to magnetic direction?

A

Add west

Subtract east

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6
Q

Define: Magnetic Deviation

A

Because of magnetic influences in the airplane the compass needle is frequently deflected.
-use the card in the aircraft to calculate correction

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7
Q

What are radio aids to air navigation?

A

NBD- non directional radio beacon
VOR- very high frequency onmi-directional range
VORTAC- VHFVOR / Tactical Air Navigation
DME- Distance measuring equipment

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8
Q

What is a VOR/VORTAC?

A

VHF radio stations that project radials in all 360 degrees

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9
Q

What frequency range do VORs operate?

A

108-117.95

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10
Q

Define: VOR Radial?

A

Line of magnetic bearing extended from an omni-directional range

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11
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?

A

Terminal (T) - 25 mile range
Low (L) - 40 mile range
High (H) - 40+ mile range

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12
Q

What are VOR reception limitations?

A

Subject to line-of-sight limitations

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13
Q

What are different methods for checking VOR accuracy?

A 
VOT check: +/- 4 degrees
Ground checkpoint: +/- 4 degrees
Airborne checkpoint: +/- 6 degrees
Dual VOR check: 4 degrees between each other
Radial over ground point: +/- 6 degrees
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14
Q

Define: DME

A

Distance Measuring Equipment

-used to measure the slant range distance of an aircraft to the DME navigation aid.

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15
Q

Define: GPS

A

Satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position.

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16
Q

What are the 3 functional elements of GPS?

A

Space element- 30 satellites
Control element- network of ground based GPS monitoring/control stations that ensure accuracy
User element- consists of antennas on-board aircraft that provide positioning and precise timing.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM?

A

To ensure adequate GPS signals are being received at all times.

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18
Q

Where can a pilot receive RAIM availability info?

A

FSS during pre-flight.

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19
Q

Define: VFR Waypoint

A

Provides navigation aids for pilots unfamiliar with the area.

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20
Q

Define: DF Guidance

A

Given to aircraft in distress or to other aircraft that request it.

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21
Q

What is the most common type of radio equipment?

A

VHF

118.0 - 136.975

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22
Q

What is the VHF emergency frequency?

A

121.5

It is guarded by military/civil towers, FSS and radar facilities

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23
Q

What are the ground control frequencies?

A

121.6 - 121.9

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24
Q

Define: CTAF

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

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25
Q

Define: UNICOM

A

Non-governmental communication facility which may provide airport information.

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26
Q

Define: ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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27
Q

If operating into an airport without a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what is the procedure?

A

MULTICOM on 122.9 and self announce

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28
Q

Define: RCO

A

Remote Communications Outlet
-unmanned comm facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel that provides ground to ground comms between ATC and pilots at remote airports.

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29
Q

How can a pilot determine what frequency to use to activate a flight plan once airborne?

A

As the FSS briefer

Consult the AFD

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30
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot what authority/responsibility does the pilot have?

A

The PIC is directly responsible and has final authority for operation of the aircraft.
A pilot may deviate from any rule in Part 91.
Pilots who deviate rules must send a written report upon request to the administrator.

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31
Q

Is pre-flight action required for a local flight?

A

Yes. Pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight, including:

  • runway lengths
  • takeoff/landing distance data
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32
Q

What should pre-flight for flights away from the airport include?

A 
Weather reports
Fuel requirements
Alternatives
ATC traffic delays
Runway lengths and takeoff/landing distance data
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33
Q

If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, what regulations apply?

A

No person may operate so close to another aircraft as to create a hazard.
Formation flight has to be agreed upon by all pilots involved.
No formation flight if the flight is for hire.

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34
Q

What is the Right of Way order?

A 
Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Aircrafts
Rotorcrafts
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35
Q

What is the Minimum safe altitude to fly over a Congested area?

A

1,000 ft above

2,000 ft horizontally

36
Q

Define: Minimum Safe Altitude

A

An altitude allowing, if power fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property.

37
Q

What is the Lowest altitude a pilot can fly over wildlife refuge or National Park?

A

2,000 ft AGL

38
Q

When may a pilot deviate from ATC instructions?

A

1) When an amended clearance has been obtained
2) When an emergency exists
3) In response to traffic and collision avoidance system

39
Q

If the radio fails in-flight while operating into a towered airport, what conditions must be met before landing?

A

Weather must be VFR
Visual contact must be maintained with the tower
Clearance to land must be received

40
Q

Define: ELT

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter

-sends distress signal on 121.5 when activated

41
Q

When is an ELT not required?

A

Training operations within 50NM of the airport
Aircraft testing
New aircraft delivery
Aircraft involved in agricultural operations

42
Q

When do ELT batteries need to be replaced/recharged?

A

After 1 hour of cumulative use

After 50 percent of the useful life has expired

43
Q

Supplemental Oxygen Requirements

A

12,000-14,000MSL
-must be used by flight crew if at altitude 30+ minutes
Above 14,000MSL
-crew must use for entire duration above 14,000
Above 15,000MSL
-each occupant must be provided with oxygen

44
Q

Where is aerobatic flight not permitted?

A

Congested area
Open air assembly of persons
Lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D, E airspace
4 NM of federal airways
Below 1,500 ft AGL of visibility under 3 miles

45
Q

Define: Aerobatic Flight

A

Intentional, abrupt maneuvers that are not necessary for normal flight.

46
Q

When are parachutes required to be worn?

A

60 degree bank angles

30 degree nose up/down angles

47
Q

Class B weather minimums?

A

3 mile visibility

Clear of clouds

48
Q

Class B ATC services?

A

Sequencing and separation

49
Q

What are ‘established’ radio communications?

A

When the controller responds with your call-sign.

50
Q

What Terminal Radar Services are available for VFR aircraft?

A

Basic Radar Service
TRSA- sequencing and separation for participating aircraft
Class C
Class B

51
Q

Where is a Mode-C Altitude Encoding transponder required?

A

At or above 10,000 ft MSL
Within 30 NM of Class B airspace
Within and above Class C airspace (up to 10,000ft)

52
Q

What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace?

A

Not exceed 14,500 ft MSL

53
Q

What is the main difference between Class G and all other airspace?

A

Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements

54
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation into Class B, C, D, and E airports?

A

1,000 ft ceiling

3 mile visibility

55
Q

Define: Prohibited Area

A

Flight is prohibited

-established for security and national welfare

56
Q

Define: Restricted Area

A

Flight of aircraft is subject to restrictions
Denotes areas with unusual and often invisible hazards to aircraft
Must have permission of controlling agency to enter

57
Q

Define: Warning Area

A

Extends 3 NM out from the U.S. Coast

Activity may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft

58
Q

Define: MOA

A

Military Operating Area

  • use extreme caution
  • contact controlling agency before entering
59
Q

Define: Alert Area

A

May contain high volume of pilot training or unusual areal activity.
Not recommended to fly into. Not restricted.

60
Q

Define: Controlled Firing Area

A

Activities could be hazardous to aircraft
Activities suspended when radar sees an aircraft coming
Not on a sectional

61
Q

Define: National Security Area

A

Area of increased security and safety of ground facilities

Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid these areas.

62
Q

Define: Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)

A

Established operating requirements

ex: Washington DC, Grand Canyon, etc.

63
Q

Define: Airport Advisory Area

A

An area within 10 SM of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where an FSS is located.
-not mandatory to participate

64
Q

Define: Military Training Route

A

Used by military for conducting low altitude, high speed training.
Examples:
IR 1004 = below 1,500ft (IR = Instrument)
VR 103 = above 1,500ft (VR = visual)

65
Q

Define: ADIZ

A 
Air Defense Identification Zone
-identification, location, and control of the aircraft are required for national security.
Includes:
-international boundaries
-coastal waters
-metropolitan areas
66
Q

Define: Aircraft Incident

A

Other than an accident which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

67
Q

Define: Aircraft Accident

A

Any person suffers death or serious injury or where the aircraft suffers substantial damage.

68
Q

Define: Serious Injury

A

Hospitalization for 48+ hours within 7 days of the injury
Fracture to any bone
2nd/3rd degree burns on 5%+ of the body

69
Q

Define: Substantial Damage

A

Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength or flight characteristics
-or requires major repair/replacement

70
Q

Define: VASI

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

-provides visual descent guidance info during the approach to landing

71
Q

Define: PAPI

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

72
Q

What are the runway and taxiway marking colors?

A

Runway: white
Taxiway: yellow

73
Q

Define: Runway Threshold Marking

A

Helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing.

74
Q

Define: Displaced Threshold

A

White arrows
Used for taxi/takeoff
NOT landing

75
Q

Define: Runway Hold Position Marking

A

Hold short lines for entrance to runways

76
Q

How can a pilot determine the proper runway with no services available?

A

Look at the segmented circle
Look at the wind direction indicator
Look at the landing strip indicator
Look at the traffic pattern indicators

77
Q

When should you make your initial call-up when going into a tower controlled airport?

A

15 miles out

78
Q

Define: NOTAM

A

Notices to airmen

-time critical information of either temporary or permanent nature

79
Q

Types of NOTAMs?

A

(D) NOTAM
FDC NOTAM
(L) NOTAM
Military NOTAM

80
Q

Define: TFR

A

Temporary Flight Restrictions

-used to protect property or persons on the ground

81
Q

Where can NOTAMs be found?

A

Internet
NOTAM publication
FSS

82
Q

Define: Wake Turbulence

A

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. This includes:

  • wing tip vortices
  • thrust stream turbulence
  • jet blast
  • jet wash
  • propeller wash
  • rotor wash
83
Q

Illusions leading to landing errors?

A

Runway width illusion
Runway terrain slope illusion
Featureless terrain illusion-absence of ground features
Atmospheric illusion-rain, haze, etc.

84
Q

3 major areas that contribute to runway incursions?

A

Communications (misunderstanding)
Airport knowledge
Cockpit procedures (loss of situational awareness)

85
Q

Define: Hot Spot

A

A runway safety related problem area or intersection at an airport.

86
Q

When should a pilot request progressive taxi instructions?

A

When unfamiliar with the airport or confused.

87
Q

How can a pilot maintain situational awareness when taxiing?

A 
Keep a current airport diagram
Monitor ATC instructions to other aircraft
Focus attention outside the aircraft
Be alert 
Understand/follow all ATC instructions

Cross Country Flight Planning (1 decks)

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