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Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

3 common ways to navigate?

A

Pilotage- visual landmarks
Dead reckoning- computing direction
Radio navigation- use of radio aids

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2
Q

What types of charts are available for VFR?

A

Sectional charts- slow to medium aircraft
VFR Terminal Area Charts- Class B charts
VFR Flyway Planning Charts

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3
Q

Define: Isogonic Line

A

Connects points of equal magnetic variation

-dotted magenta line on sectional

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4
Q

Define: Magnetic Variation

A

The angle between true north and magnetic north

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5
Q

How do you convert true direction to magnetic direction?

A

Add west

Subtract east

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6
Q

Define: Magnetic Deviation

A

Because of magnetic influences in the airplane the compass needle is frequently deflected.
-use the card in the aircraft to calculate correction

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7
Q

What are radio aids to air navigation?

A

NBD- non directional radio beacon
VOR- very high frequency onmi-directional range
VORTAC- VHFVOR / Tactical Air Navigation
DME- Distance measuring equipment

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8
Q

What is a VOR/VORTAC?

A

VHF radio stations that project radials in all 360 degrees

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9
Q

What frequency range do VORs operate?

A

108-117.95

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10
Q

Define: VOR Radial?

A

Line of magnetic bearing extended from an omni-directional range

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11
Q

How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?

A

Terminal (T) - 25 mile range
Low (L) - 40 mile range
High (H) - 40+ mile range

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12
Q

What are VOR reception limitations?

A

Subject to line-of-sight limitations

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13
Q

What are different methods for checking VOR accuracy?

A 
VOT check: +/- 4 degrees
Ground checkpoint: +/- 4 degrees
Airborne checkpoint: +/- 6 degrees
Dual VOR check: 4 degrees between each other
Radial over ground point: +/- 6 degrees
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14
Q

Define: DME

A

Distance Measuring Equipment

-used to measure the slant range distance of an aircraft to the DME navigation aid.

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15
Q

Define: GPS

A

Satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position.

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16
Q

What are the 3 functional elements of GPS?

A

Space element- 30 satellites
Control element- network of ground based GPS monitoring/control stations that ensure accuracy
User element- consists of antennas on-board aircraft that provide positioning and precise timing.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of RAIM?

A

To ensure adequate GPS signals are being received at all times.

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18
Q

Where can a pilot receive RAIM availability info?

A

FSS during pre-flight.

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19
Q

Define: VFR Waypoint

A

Provides navigation aids for pilots unfamiliar with the area.

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20
Q

Define: DF Guidance

A

Given to aircraft in distress or to other aircraft that request it.

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21
Q

What is the most common type of radio equipment?

A

VHF

118.0 - 136.975

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22
Q

What is the VHF emergency frequency?

A

121.5

It is guarded by military/civil towers, FSS and radar facilities

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23
Q

What are the ground control frequencies?

A

121.6 - 121.9

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24
Q

Define: CTAF

A

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

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25
Define: UNICOM
Non-governmental communication facility which may provide airport information.
26
Define: ATIS
Automatic Terminal Information Service
27
If operating into an airport without a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what is the procedure?
MULTICOM on 122.9 and self announce
28
Define: RCO
Remote Communications Outlet -unmanned comm facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel that provides ground to ground comms between ATC and pilots at remote airports.
29
How can a pilot determine what frequency to use to activate a flight plan once airborne?
As the FSS briefer | Consult the AFD
30
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot what authority/responsibility does the pilot have?
The PIC is directly responsible and has final authority for operation of the aircraft. A pilot may deviate from any rule in Part 91. Pilots who deviate rules must send a written report upon request to the administrator.
31
Is pre-flight action required for a local flight?
Yes. Pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight, including: - runway lengths - takeoff/landing distance data
32
What should pre-flight for flights away from the airport include?
``` Weather reports Fuel requirements Alternatives ATC traffic delays Runway lengths and takeoff/landing distance data ```
33
If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, what regulations apply?
No person may operate so close to another aircraft as to create a hazard. Formation flight has to be agreed upon by all pilots involved. No formation flight if the flight is for hire.
34
What is the Right of Way order?
``` Balloons Gliders Airships Aircrafts Rotorcrafts ```
35
What is the Minimum safe altitude to fly over a Congested area?
1,000 ft above | 2,000 ft horizontally
36
Define: Minimum Safe Altitude
An altitude allowing, if power fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property.
37
What is the Lowest altitude a pilot can fly over wildlife refuge or National Park?
2,000 ft AGL
38
When may a pilot deviate from ATC instructions?
1) When an amended clearance has been obtained 2) When an emergency exists 3) In response to traffic and collision avoidance system
39
If the radio fails in-flight while operating into a towered airport, what conditions must be met before landing?
Weather must be VFR Visual contact must be maintained with the tower Clearance to land must be received
40
Define: ELT
Emergency Locator Transmitter | -sends distress signal on 121.5 when activated
41
When is an ELT not required?
Training operations within 50NM of the airport Aircraft testing New aircraft delivery Aircraft involved in agricultural operations
42
When do ELT batteries need to be replaced/recharged?
After 1 hour of cumulative use | After 50 percent of the useful life has expired
43
Supplemental Oxygen Requirements
12,000-14,000MSL -must be used by flight crew if at altitude 30+ minutes Above 14,000MSL -crew must use for entire duration above 14,000 Above 15,000MSL -each occupant must be provided with oxygen
44
Where is aerobatic flight not permitted?
Congested area Open air assembly of persons Lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D, E airspace 4 NM of federal airways Below 1,500 ft AGL of visibility under 3 miles
45
Define: Aerobatic Flight
Intentional, abrupt maneuvers that are not necessary for normal flight.
46
When are parachutes required to be worn?
60 degree bank angles | 30 degree nose up/down angles
47
Class B weather minimums?
3 mile visibility | Clear of clouds
48
Class B ATC services?
Sequencing and separation
49
What are 'established' radio communications?
When the controller responds with your call-sign.
50
What Terminal Radar Services are available for VFR aircraft?
Basic Radar Service TRSA- sequencing and separation for participating aircraft Class C Class B
51
Where is a Mode-C Altitude Encoding transponder required?
At or above 10,000 ft MSL Within 30 NM of Class B airspace Within and above Class C airspace (up to 10,000ft)
52
What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace?
Not exceed 14,500 ft MSL
53
What is the main difference between Class G and all other airspace?
Flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements
54
What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation into Class B, C, D, and E airports?
1,000 ft ceiling | 3 mile visibility
55
Define: Prohibited Area
Flight is prohibited | -established for security and national welfare
56
Define: Restricted Area
Flight of aircraft is subject to restrictions Denotes areas with unusual and often invisible hazards to aircraft Must have permission of controlling agency to enter
57
Define: Warning Area
Extends 3 NM out from the U.S. Coast | Activity may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft
58
Define: MOA
Military Operating Area - use extreme caution - contact controlling agency before entering
59
Define: Alert Area
May contain high volume of pilot training or unusual areal activity. Not recommended to fly into. Not restricted.
60
Define: Controlled Firing Area
Activities could be hazardous to aircraft Activities suspended when radar sees an aircraft coming Not on a sectional
61
Define: National Security Area
Area of increased security and safety of ground facilities | Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid these areas.
62
Define: Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)
Established operating requirements | ex: Washington DC, Grand Canyon, etc.
63
Define: Airport Advisory Area
An area within 10 SM of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where an FSS is located. -not mandatory to participate
64
Define: Military Training Route
Used by military for conducting low altitude, high speed training. Examples: IR 1004 = below 1,500ft (IR = Instrument) VR 103 = above 1,500ft (VR = visual)
65
Define: ADIZ
``` Air Defense Identification Zone -identification, location, and control of the aircraft are required for national security. Includes: -international boundaries -coastal waters -metropolitan areas ```
66
Define: Aircraft Incident
Other than an accident which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
67
Define: Aircraft Accident
Any person suffers death or serious injury or where the aircraft suffers substantial damage.
68
Define: Serious Injury
Hospitalization for 48+ hours within 7 days of the injury Fracture to any bone 2nd/3rd degree burns on 5%+ of the body
69
Define: Substantial Damage
Damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength or flight characteristics -or requires major repair/replacement
70
Define: VASI
Visual Approach Slope Indicator | -provides visual descent guidance info during the approach to landing
71
Define: PAPI
Precision Approach Path Indicator
72
What are the runway and taxiway marking colors?
Runway: white Taxiway: yellow
73
Define: Runway Threshold Marking
Helps identify the beginning of the runway available for landing.
74
Define: Displaced Threshold
White arrows Used for taxi/takeoff NOT landing
75
Define: Runway Hold Position Marking
Hold short lines for entrance to runways
76
How can a pilot determine the proper runway with no services available?
Look at the segmented circle Look at the wind direction indicator Look at the landing strip indicator Look at the traffic pattern indicators
77
When should you make your initial call-up when going into a tower controlled airport?
15 miles out
78
Define: NOTAM
Notices to airmen | -time critical information of either temporary or permanent nature
79
Types of NOTAMs?
(D) NOTAM FDC NOTAM (L) NOTAM Military NOTAM
80
Define: TFR
Temporary Flight Restrictions | -used to protect property or persons on the ground
81
Where can NOTAMs be found?
Internet NOTAM publication FSS
82
Define: Wake Turbulence
A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. This includes: - wing tip vortices - thrust stream turbulence - jet blast - jet wash - propeller wash - rotor wash
83
Illusions leading to landing errors?
Runway width illusion Runway terrain slope illusion Featureless terrain illusion-absence of ground features Atmospheric illusion-rain, haze, etc.
84
3 major areas that contribute to runway incursions?
Communications (misunderstanding) Airport knowledge Cockpit procedures (loss of situational awareness)
85
Define: Hot Spot
A runway safety related problem area or intersection at an airport.
86
When should a pilot request progressive taxi instructions?
When unfamiliar with the airport or confused.
87
How can a pilot maintain situational awareness when taxiing?
``` Keep a current airport diagram Monitor ATC instructions to other aircraft Focus attention outside the aircraft Be alert Understand/follow all ATC instructions ```

Cross Country Flight Planning (1 decks)

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