Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ground School > CRJ CFM Ch.2 Limitations > Flashcards

CRJ CFM Ch.2 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

RVSM Required Equipment

A

Autopilot

Altitude Alerting System

Altitude Reporting Transponder
-2 installed, one must be operational

Air Data Computers (2), both operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flight Deck Door Limitation

A

The flight deck door must be kept closed and locked at all times during flight except to permit access and egress in accordance with the FOM and CFM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Flight Deck Door Opening Procedure (In-Flight)

A

Any time the flight deck door is opened in flight, a challenge and response closing and locking verification must be used to verify the door is closed and locked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Required Crew Leaving Flight Deck Limitation

A

Any time one of the required flight crew leaves the flight deck, another crewmember must be present in the flight deck to ensure that the required crewmember is not locked out of the flight deck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CRJ700 Approach Category

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CRJ900 Approach Category

A

D

-C if performing an operation with Reduced Landing Reference Speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would indicated stricter, company policy?

A

Items that are preceded by company or followed by “Company” are more restrictive, company imposed limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Items with a ____________, shaded box are _______________ that affect aircraft operations. Pilots must be familiar with them and be able to recall from memory.

A

Double Lines

Limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Kinds of Operations

A

Certificated in transport category
Day and Night
VFR and IFR
Flight in icing conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) CRJ700

A

75,250lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) CRJ900

A

85,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) CRJ700

A

75,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) CRJ900

A

84,500lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) CRJ700

A

67,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) CRJ900

A

75,100lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) CRJ700

A

62,300lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) CRJ900

A

70,750lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Minimum Flight Weight CRJ700

A

42,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimum Flight Weight CRJ900

A

45,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Note about MTOW and MLW….

A

The MTOW and MLW may be further limited due to performance considerations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aft Cargo Compartment Limit

A

3,650lbs (company)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CRJ900 Fwd Cargo Limit

A

1,700lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CRJ700 Fwd Cargo Limit

A

1,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max Cruising Speed in RVSM CRJ700

A

.83 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Max Cruising Speed in RVSM CRJ900

A

.82 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

A

280 KIAS/.75M, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Maximum Tailwind Component for T/O and Landing

A

10 knots, both fleets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum Crosswind Components for Takeoff DRY RUNWAY

A

CRJ900 - 35kts

CRJ700 - 28kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum Crosswind Components for Landing DRY RUNWAY (Company)

A

CRJ900 - 32kts

CRJ700 - 30kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum Allowable Crosswind Component for Takeoff and Landing WET RUNWAY (Company)

A

27 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum Allowable Crosswind Component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the Runway Condition Code is “3” (company)

A

20 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum Allowable Crosswind Component for takeoff and landing on a runway when the Runway Condition Code is “2” or “1” (company)

A

15 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maximum Allowable Crosswind Component for takeoff and landing on a DRY runway for a crewmember on a high minimums status (company)

A

25 knots

15 knots SIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Does AeroData AOC consider (company) wind limitations?

A

No!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maximum Airport Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

A

8,000ft Takeoff and Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

41,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum Ambient Air Temperature Approved for Takeoff and Landing

A

ISA + 35 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Minimum Ambient Temperature Approved for Takeoff

A

-40 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CRJ700 LAHSO

A

Group 7 Aircraft

Minimum of 6000ft required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CRJ900 LAHSO

A

Group 8 Aircraft

Minimum of 7000ft required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Maximum Runway Slope

A

+ or - 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Flights must be within ___________ of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either compartment.

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Taxi Lights must be switched _________ whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of _______ minutes.

A

OFF

10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Circuit Breaker Reset (In Flight)

A

A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in the QRH or unless, in the judgment of the PIC, that resetting or cycling of the CB is necessary for the safe completion of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cowl Anti Ice (Ground Operations)

A
  • Must be ON when OAT is 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture of any form is present. (such as fog with vis less than a mile, rain, snow, sleet, and ice)
  • Must also be on when OAT is below 10 degrees C and aircraft is operating on runways or taxiways contaminated with snow, slush, ice, standing water.

NOTE: If cont ignition and cowl anti-ice are required at the same time, select cowl anti ice on prior to continuous ignition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cowl Anti Ice (Flight Operations)

A

Systems must be ON:

  • When in icing conditions, or
  • When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection systems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Icing conditions in flight

A

Total Air Temperature (TAT) of 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture in any form is present, except when the Static Air Temperature (SAT) is -40 degrees C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Wing Anti Ice (Ground Operations)

A
  • Must be ON for takeoff when OAT is 5 degrees C or below and any visible moisture is present.
  • Must be ON for takeoff when the OAT is 5 degrees C or below and the runway is contaminated.
  • When Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluids have been applied, the wing anti ice system must only be selected ON, if required, just prior to thrust increase on takeoff.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Wing Anti-Ice (Flight Operations)

A

The wing anti ice system must be ON:

  • When ICE is annunciated by ice detection system
  • When in icing conditions and the airspeed is less than 230KIAS

Do not hold in ice with flaps/slats extended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Wing and/or cowl ice selection is ___________ with the APU as a bleed source in manual mode.

A

Prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Continued operation in areas where SLD icing conditions exist is:

A

Prohibited

52
Q

SLD icing conditions are indicated by:

A

Ice accretion on the side windows.

Leave Icing conditions when side window icing occurs.

53
Q

Ice Systems in SLD icing

A

Wing ON

Cowl ON

54
Q

Takeoff with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surface (wings, winglets, h stab, v stab, control surfaces and engine inlets) is…..

A

Prohibited

55
Q

Takeoff with frost is permitted if….

A

Frost is on top of fuselage or underneath the wing due to cold soaked fuel. Frost must be thin enough to distinguish surface features such as paint lines or markings underneath.

56
Q

Where to find comprehensive procedures for operating in cold weather?

A

Chapter 4 of CFM
The ODH
Winter Ops Handbook

57
Q

Cold Soaked APU Start Limitation

A

Minimum ambient temperature to start is -40 degrees C on the ground.

58
Q

APU starter motor duty cycle

A

Do not perform more than 3 starts/start attempts in one hour.

Two minute delay in between attempts must be observed to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU drainage.

59
Q

Engine Warm Up

A

The engines must remain at idle until oil pressure reaches normal operating range.

Do not exceed 75% N1 for two minutes after start, or until all operating indications are in normal range, whichever is longer.

60
Q

What limitations must we follow if the Airplane is Cold Soaked?

A
  • The engines must be motored for 60 seconds and the fan rotation must be verified before an engine start is initiated.
  • Thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less.
61
Q

Cold Soaked Definition.

A

Before the first flight of the day, when the airplane is cold-soaked at an ambient temperature of -30C or below for more than 8 hours.

62
Q

Reduced (flex) Thrust Takeoff

A

Flex Thrust Takeoff must not be used:

  • If wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use.
  • On runways contaminated with standing water, slush or snow.
  • When warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast.
  • When the anti-skid system is inoperative

Flex Takeoff may be used on wet runways if wet runway performance data is used.

63
Q

Vmo / Mmo ?

A

335kias / 0.85 mach

64
Q

Flap Extension Speeds (CRJ900)

A 
Flaps 1 - 230 KIAS
Flaps 8 -230 KIAS
Flaps 20 - 220 KIAS
Flaps 30 - 185 KIAS
Flaps 45 - 170 KIAS
65
Q

Flap Extension Speeds (CRJ700)

A 
Flaps 1 - 230 KIAS
Flaps 8 -230 KIAS
Flaps 20 - 230 KIAS
Flaps 30 - 185 KIAS
Flaps 45 - 170 KIAS
66
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Speed (Extension)

A

220 KIAS

67
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Speed (Retraction)

A

200 KIAS

68
Q

Maximum Speed aircraft may be flown with Landing gear extended and locked.

A

220 KIAS

69
Q

Maximum Airspeed for Windshield Wiper Operation

A

250 KIAS

70
Q

If the windshield wiper has failed in a non-parked position, this airplane speed must not be exceeded.

A

250 KIAS

71
Q

CRJ700 Max Tire Speed

A

182 KIAS

72
Q

CRJ900 Max Tire Speed

A

195 KIAS

73
Q

Maximum Airspeed for ADG Operation

A

Vmo / Mmo

74
Q

Flight must be within ___________ of a _______ _______ if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.

A

60 minutes

Suitable Airport

75
Q

The taxi lights must be switched ________ whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of _____ minutes.

A

OFF

10 minutes

76
Q

Brake cooling times must be observed between a _________ or a _____________ and a subsequent takeoff to ensure that _____________ _______ __________ is available to bring the airplane to a complete stop if the subsequent takeoff is rejected.

A

landing
low-energy rejected takeoff (RTO)

sufficient brake energy

77
Q

The maximum relief differential pressure

A

8.7psi

78
Q

The maximum negative differential pressure

A

-0.5psi

79
Q

During Taxi and takeoff, the differential pressure must not exceed.

A

0.1psi

80
Q

During initial landing (at touchdown), the maximum differential pressure must not exceed

A

1.0psi

81
Q

CRJ900 : Maximum altitude for single pack operations with more than 82 cabin occupants including flight attendants.

A

25,000ft

82
Q

CRJ900 : Maximum altitude for single pack operations if total cabin occupants including flight attendants is less than or equal to 82.

A

31,000ft

83
Q

CRJ700 : Maximum Altitude or single pack operation.

A

31,000ft

84
Q

The airplane must be completely depressurized prior to opening ______ of the airplane doors.

A

Any

85
Q

To preclude possible crew and/or passenger ear damage, use of the _________ switch above _________ feet is prohibited.

A

EMER DEPRESS

15,000ft

86
Q

The ADC source coupled to the active autopilot must be _________ as that coupled to the ATC transponder during flight in RVSM airspace.

A

the same

87
Q

Operation with the autopilot engaged is prohibited at altitudes below _________, except when performing the following…

  1. ________________________
  2. ________________________
  3. ________________________

Operations with an ILS glidepath angle that exceeds 3.5 degrees are _____________.

A

600ft. AGL

  1. For visual and non-precision approaches, the minimum autopilot height is 400ft. AGL
  2. For precision (ILS) approaches, with both engines operating, the minimum autopilot use height is 80ft AGL.
  3. For precision (ILS) approaches with one engine inoperative, the minimum autopilot use height is 110ft AGL.

prohibited

88
Q

Permissible Loads on AC System (0-41,000ft.)

Main Generator =
APU Generator =

A

Main Generator : 40kVA (each)

APU Generator : 40kVA

89
Q

Permissible loads on DC system

In flight, the maximum permissible continuous load on each TRU is _________.

A

120 Amps

90
Q

Permissible loads on DC system

To protect the flight compartment _____ ________, the maximum permissible time for ground operations with DC power only is __________.

A

CRT displays

5 minutes

91
Q

Circuit Breaker Reset (In flight)

A

A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled (i.e. opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in the QRH or unless, in the judgement of the PIC, that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the safe completion of the flight.

92
Q

Minimum Descent Altitude

A

When setting the MDA marker on the barometric altimeter using the DH/MDA knob on the air data reference panel, the next highest 10 foot increment must be selected if the altitude is not at a 10 foot increment.

93
Q

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)

A

Pilots are authorized to deviated from their ATC clearance in order to comply with a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) resolution advisory (RA) command.

94
Q

Fuel Load

Center Tank Quantity must be _______ throughout the flight.

A

Monitored

95
Q

Fuel Load

The maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the main left tank and the main right tank are (Takeoff and Landing) :

A

During Takeoff : 300lbs

During Landing : 800lbs

96
Q

Fuel remaining in a tank when the appropriate fuel quantity indicator reads ____ is ____ ______

A

zero

not usable

97
Q

Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of ______ in the center tank is not permitted unless each wing tank is above _________.

A

500lbs

4400lbs

98
Q

The minimum fuel for go-around is ______ per wing (aircraft level) and assuming a maximum airplane climb attitude of ____________.

A

600lbs

10 degrees nose up

99
Q

Fuel Temperature Limitation

A

Takeoff with engine fuel temperature indications below 5 degrees Celsius (41 degrees F) is prohibited.

100
Q

Fuel Cross Flow

A

Powered cross-flow and gravity cross-flow must be off for takeoff.

101
Q

APU BLEED AIR LIMITATIONS

Bleed Air Extraction

A

APU bleed air extraction is not permitted above 25,000ft

102
Q

APU BLEED AIR LIMITATIONS

Engine Start during Ground Operations

A

No bleed air extraction limitation.

Each engine may be started using the APU as a bleed air source.

103
Q

Use of the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switch is ____ ________ for normal operations.

A

not permitted

104
Q

Continuous Engine Ignition

A

Cont. Ignition must be used during the following…

  1. Takeoff and Landing on contaminated runways
  2. Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain
  3. Flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulence
  4. Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms

Note: If use of cowl anti-ice and continuous ignition are required at the same time, select the cowl anti-ice on prior to selecting continuous ignition.

105
Q

Continuous Engine Ignition Note

If use of cowl anti-ice and continuous ignition are required at the same time, select the cowl anti-ice on _________ selecting continuous ignition.

A

prior to

106
Q

Maximum permissible load on APU Gen

A

40 kVA

107
Q

Reduced (Flex) Thrust Takeoff Limitations

A

Flex Thrust Takeoff Procedure must not be used:

  1. If wing and/or cowl anti-icing bleeds are in use
  2. On runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice.
  3. When warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
  4. When anti-skid system is inoperative

Flex thrust can be used on wet runways if wet runway performance data is used.

108
Q

The starter must not be used if indicated ____ rpm exceeds _____.

A

N2 rpm exceeds 45%

109
Q

Engine Start (Ground)

Starts 1 & 2 - Max Time On….., Followed by….

A

90 seconds ON, followed by 10 seconds cool down

110
Q

Engine Start (Ground)

Starts 3 through 5 - Max Time On….., Followed by….

A

90 seconds ON, followed by 5 minutes cool down

111
Q

Engine Start or Motoring (Flight)

Start 1 - Max Time On….., Followed by….

A

120 seconds ON, followed by 10 seconds cool down

112
Q

Engine Start or Motoring (Flight)

Starts 2 through 5 - Max Time On….., Followed by….

A

60 seconds ON, followed by 5 minutes cool down

113
Q

Motoring (Ground)

Start 1 - Max Time On……, Followed by…..,

A

90 seconds ON, followed by 5 minutes cool down

114
Q

Motoring (Ground)

Starts 2 through 5 - Max Time On……, Followed by…..,

A

30 seconds ON, followed by 5 minutes cool down

115
Q

At initiation of thrust level movement from SHUT OFF to IDLE:

A

ITT must be 120C or less for all ground starts

ITT must be 90C or less for all air starts

116
Q

Thrust reversers are approved for _______ use only; activation of thrust reversers _______ is prohibited.

A

Ground

In-flight

117
Q

Can you initiate a go-around after thrust reverser deployment?

A

No

118
Q

Takeoff with thrust reverser icons or EICAS warning and/or caution messages displayed is ________.

A

Prohibited

119
Q

Can we use thrust reverser to powerback?

A

NO.

120
Q

During landing, maximum reverse thrust is prohibited below _____ kias, and reverse idle must be achieved by ____ kias.

A

75 kias

60 kias

121
Q

During preflight check of the thrust reversers with the airplane stationary, reverse thrust must be limited to _________ ______.

A

Reverse Idle

122
Q

Enroute use of slats/flaps is _______.

A

Prohibited

123
Q

Flight with slats/flaps extended at altitudes above 15000ft is _____

A

Prohibited

124
Q

Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight below an altitude of ______.

A

1000ft AGL.

125
Q

To ensure adequate maneuver margins, flight spoilers must not be extended in flight at airspeeds below ___________ for the current weight and flap configuration.

A

Vref + 10 knots

126
Q

Both stall protection system switches must remain ____ for all phases of flight.

A

ON

Ground School (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions