CRITICAL NTK Flashcards
What atmospheric characteristics are conducive to thunderstorm (cumulonimbus cloud) development?
Sufficient moisture
Unstable atmosphere
Lifting mechanism(s) such as buoyancy (surface heating), orography (rising terrain), and/or frontal lifting (cold or occluded front)
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is the difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady state (severe) thunderstorm?
Air mass = localized, results mostly from surface heating
Steady state = associated with organized surface weather systems (cold fronts, hurricanes)
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Name and describe the stages of a thunderstorm and which stage presents the greatest hazards?
1.Cumulous (continuous updrafts initially build cumulonimbus cloud)
2.Mature (precipitation produces downdrafts, updrafts continue)
3.Dissipating (downdrafts exceed updrafts, cloud collapses)
Greatest hazards exist during mature stage (turbulence, potential severe wind shear, lightning, hail, airframe icing).
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
List all thunderstorm hazards
1.Turbulence, potential severe wind shear, microburst
2.Lightning
3.Hail
4.Airframe icing
5.Pressure changes can cause altimeter inaccuracy.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is wind shear?
Any sudden change in wind direction and/or speed, particularly when it occurs over relatively short distance in flight. Low-level wind shear (LLWS) occurs below 2,000 feet AGL.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is a microburst?
Local wind shear as a result of heavy rain from a cumulonimbus (CB) cloud (thunderstorm).
Downdraft is caused by heavy rain falling, accelerated by its colder temperature than surrounding air. Can be as much as 6,000 fpm and causes horizontal winds as much as 45 knots upon striking the ground, resulting in potential total shear of as much as 90 knots across the microburst.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is a jet stream and how does time of year affect it?
High-speed organized band of wind with speeds 50 knots or greater in the vicinity of the tropopause. In the winter, the jet stream is higher speed, lower in height, and further south.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is the definition of potential icing conditions?
Visible moisture and temperature 0° Celsius or colder.
Aircraft manufacturers commonly define icing conditions as +10° and colder in visible moisture due to aerodynamic cooling over the wing surface.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
List types of airframe ice
Clear
Rime
Mixed
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe atmospheric conditions conducive to clear ice
0° to -15° Celsius
High water content and large water droplets found in cumulous/cumulonimbus clouds.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe atmospheric conditions conducive to rime ice
-25° to -40° Celsius
Low water content and small water particle size found in stratus clouds.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe mixed ice
When aircraft accumulates alternating layers of clear and rime depending on the environment.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What effect does airframe icing have on an aircraft, which type is the most hazardous, and why?
Ice affects aircraft controllability by altering airflow over wings, reducing ability to produce lift, and increasing drag. Stall speed may be higher than normal as a result of the change in aerodynamic shape of wings.
Clear ice is the most hazardous, due to its nature to form beyond the heated leading edge of wings, adds considerable weight, and can be difficult to detect visually.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe Clear Air Turbulence (CAT)
Turbulence in cloud-free regions not associated with thunderstorms, such as in the vicinity of the jet stream and mountain wave turbulence.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is holdover time?
Holdover time is the estimated time deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft.
Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid starts and expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid loses its effectiveness.
§121.629 Operation in icing conditions.
Definition of dew point
Temperature at which air will become saturated.
Visible moisture (fog) results from saturation.
Lowering air temperature reduces its capacity to hold water vapor.
Standard pressure at sea level in inches of Mercury and millibars
29.92 Hg / 1013.25 Mb
Standard temperature lapse rate
2° Celsius per 1,000 feet
Standard pressure lapse rate ______ inches Mercury per _______ feet
1” / 1,000 feet
Coldest time in a 24-hour period
Just after sunrise.
Shortly after sunrise, incoming solar radiation received at the Earth’s surface becomes greater than outgoing terrestrial radiation and the Earth’s surface warms.
Three basic properties of the atmosphere
Temperature, density, and pressure
Definition of jet stream
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind (50 knots or greater) in the upper levels of the atmosphere.
Definition of a front
A front is a boundary or transition zone between two air masses.
Common Sources of Vertical Motion
The most common types of vertical motion are orographic effects, frontal lift, and buoyancy.
Definition of atmospheric stability
Atmospheric stability is the property of the ambient air that either enhances or suppresses vertical motion of air parcels and determines which type of clouds and precipitation will develop. Low pressure = unstable, high pressure = stable
Three basic cloud forms
Cirriform (Cirrus), cumuliform (cumulous), and stratiform (stratus)
Definition of nimbus
A cloud producing rain
Four significant cloud types
Alto cumulous standing lenticular (ACSL)
Cumulonimbus (CB)
Towering Cumulous (TCU)
Cumulonimbus Mammatus (CBMAM)
Definition of wind shear
Wind shear is the change in wind speed and/or direction.
Wind shear generates turbulence between two wind currents of different directions and/or speeds.
Causes of turbulence
Turbulence is caused by convective currents (convective turbulence), obstructions in the wind flow (mechanical turbulence), and wind shear.
What is convective turbulence?
Convective turbulence is turbulent vertical motions that result from convective currents and the subsequent rising and sinking of air.
Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are light.
What is mechanical turbulence?
Mechanical turbulence is turbulence caused by obstructions to the wind flow, such as trees, buildings, mountains.
Obstructions to the wind flow disrupt smooth wind flow.
The higher the speed and/or the rougher the surface, the greater the turbulence.
What is a mountain wave or mountain wave turbulence (MWT)?
A mountain wave is an atmospheric wave disturbance formed when stable air flow passes over a mountain or mountain ridge. Mountain waves are a form of mechanical turbulence which develop above and downwind of mountains and may extend 600 miles or more downwind from the mountain range and have been documented up to 200,000 feet and higher.
Definition of clear air turbulence (CAT)
Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is a higher altitude (20,000 to 50,000 feet) turbulence phenomenon occurring in cloud-free regions associated with wind shear, particularly between the core of a jet stream and the surrounding air.
CAT frequency and intensity are maximized during winter when jet streams are strongest.
At what lowest temperature can water in the atmosphere exist in liquid form?
Pure water suspended in the air does not freeze until it reaches a temperature of -40 °C. Surface tension of the droplets inhibits freezing. The smaller and purer the water droplet, the more likely it is supercooled.
What is the specific risk associated with Supercooled Large Drops (SLDs)?
Supercooled Large Drops (SLDs) are common in freezing rain and freezing drizzle situations.
Necessary Ingredients for Thunderstorm Cell Formation.
Thunderstorm cell formation requires three ingredients:
1) sufficient water vapor
2) unstable air
3) a lifting mechanism
Life cycle (3 stages) of a thunderstorm (cumulonimbus) cell
Towering Cumulous
Mature
Dissipating
Thunderstorm hazards
1.Turbulence, potential severe wind shear, microburst
2.Lightning
3.Hail
4.Airframe icing
5.Pressure changes can cause altimeter inaccuracy.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What is a downburst? Microburst?
Intense downdrafts created by thunderstorm cells that create strong, often damaging winds.
Smaller, shorter-lived downbursts are called microbursts.
Question
Answer
List and describe the operation of primary flight controls
Primary flight controls cause motion in the three axes (vertical axis =yaw, lateral axis=pitch, and longitudinal axis=roll)
Elevator: Pitch up/down
Ailerons: Roll (bank)
Rudder: Yaw (horizontal left/right)
What are the forces at work on an airplane in flight?
Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag
What is the purpose of trailing edge flaps and leading edge flaps or slats?
To produce additional lift at low speeds such as during takeoff and landing by changing the chord line of the wings.
What is the purpose of flight spoilers and ground spoilers?
Flight spoilers reduce lift and enable a greater descent rate without an increase in speed when manually operated.
Flight spoilers also work automatically to assist ailerons in roll control.
Ground spoilers may only be operated upon landing to reduce lift, causing more aircraft weight to be placed on landing gear, therefore increasing braking effectiveness.
How do wings produce lift?
A combination of Bernoulli’s Principle (low pressure created due to greater distance across top surface) and Newton’s Third Law of Motion (air impacting bottom of wings, causing an equal, opposite reaction when deflected.
What is the impact of high temperature, high atmospheric moisture content, and high airport elevation on aerodynamic lift.
High temperature and atmospheric moisture content reduce air density. Air density decreases with altitude increases.
Low air density reduces wings’ ability to produce lift.
Question
Answer
When are Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) issued?
0000z
0600z
1200z
1800z
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
When are METARs issued?
Hourly, typically at approximately 50-55 minutes past the hour.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
What times are Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecasts (FB) issued?
0000z Based on 0000z data
0600z Based on 0000z data
1200z Based on 1200z data
1800z Based on 1200z data
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe the intensity of turbulence contained in an AIRMET
Moderate
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Describe the intensity of icing contained in an AIRMET
Moderate
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
List phenomena which can be contained in a SIGMET
A SIGMET advises of non−convective weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft.
(a) Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms.
(b) Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms.
(c) Widespread dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface visibilities to below 3 miles.
(d) Volcanic ash
SIGMETs are unscheduled and valid for 4 hours when issued, with updates and corrections issued as necessary.
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
List phenomena which can be contained in a Convective SIGMET
Convective SIGMETs are issued for Severe or embedded thunderstorms with the potential for any of the following:
Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
Hail greater than or equal to 3 / 4 inch in diameter
Tornadoes
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
From which source(s) must weather information be obtained?
Weather information must be prepared by the U.S. National Weather Service or a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service
§121.101 Weather reporting facilities.
Identify and describe this weather product
Convective Outlook
Indicates the potential for severe and non-severe convection and specific severe weather threats during the following 8 days.
MRGL: marginal risk
SLGT: slight risk
ENH: enhanced risk
MDT: moderate risk
HIGH: high risk
Identify this weather product
KOKC 011955Z AUTO 22015G25KT 180V250 3/4SM
R17L/2600FT +TSRA BR OVC010CB 18/16 A2992 RMK AO2 TSB25 TS OHD MOV E SLP132
METAR (Aviation Routine Weather Report.
The METAR report includes surface observations for the terminal (airport) area. A METAR report includes the airport identifier, time of observation, wind, visibility, Runway Visual Range (RVR), present weather phenomena, sky conditions, temperature, dewpoint, and altimeter setting.
What is a SIGMET?
Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET).
A SIGMET is a concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena that may affect the safety of aircraft operations.
SIGMET (Non-Convective) Issuance Criteria:
-The following affecting or are expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles.
• Severe or greater turbulence (SEV TURB).
• Severe icing (SEV ICE).
• Widespread duststorm (WDSPR DS).
• Widespread sandstorm (WDSPR SS).
• Volcanic ash (VA).
What is a convective SIGMET?
Convective SIGMETs are issued for thunderstorms affecting or expected to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles.
A Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level windshear.
What is an AIRMET?
Airmen’s Meteorological Information (AIRMET).
An AIRMET is a concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena that may affect the safety of aircraft operations.
An AIRMET may be issued when any of the following weather phenomena are occurring or are expected to occur over an area of at least 3,000 square miles:
• Ceiling less than 1,000 ft and/or visibility less than 3 SM (IFR). o Weather phenomena restricting the visibility
• Widespread mountain obscuration.
o Weather phenomena causing the obscuration
• Moderate turbulence.
• Sustained surface wind greater than 30 kts.
• Moderate icing.
• Non-Convective low-level wind shear.
List types of AIRMETS
Sierra: IFR conditions or mountain obscuration
Tango: Moderate turbulence
Zulu: Moderate icing
FAA-H-8083-28, Aviation Weather Handbook
Identify and describe this weather product
KPIR 111140Z 1112/1212 13012KT P6SM BKN100 WS020/35035KT TEMPO 1112/1114 5SM BR
FM111500 16015G25KT P6SM SCT040 BKN250
FM120000 14012KT P6SM BKN080 OVC150 PROB30 1200/1204 3SM TSRA BKN030CB
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
Identify and describe this weather product
Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (Graphic)
Computer-prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations.
Identify and describe this weather product
DATA BASED ON 010000Z VALID 010600Z
3000 6000 9000 12000 18000
MKC 9900 1709+06 2018+00 2130-06 2242-18
Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (Raw Data)
Computer-prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations.
When is wind and temperature data omitted in a winds and temperature aloft forecast?
Wind forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 1,500 feet of a location’s elevation.
Temperature forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 2,500 feet of a location’s elevation.
Identify and describe this weather product
Short-Range Surface Prognostic (Prog) Chart
Graphic forecast for surface pressure systems, isobars, fronts, and precipitation for a 2½-day period.
Identify and describe this weather product
Low-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) Charts
A 12-Hour forecast of aviation weather hazards, weather flying categories, turbulence, and freezing levels.
The forecast covers altitudes FL240 and below.
Identify and describe this weather product
Current Icing Potential/Forecast Icing Potential (CIP/FIP)
Geographic depiction of icing potential
SLD=Super Cooled Droplets (high potential for freezing rain)
Identify and describe this weather product
Graphic Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2)
Forecast for non-convective turbulence
Identify and describe this weather product
Mid-level SIGWX chart
Identify and describe this weather product
High-level SIGWX chart
What is ASOS?
Automatic Surface Observation System
Technology for observed weather conditions at an airport.
Audibly received via aircraft VHF radio
Source of hourly-issued METAR content
What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service
Audible broadcast which includes current airport weather conditions and certain operational information, such as active runways and instrument approaches in use, and cautionary information. Reduces radio frequency congestion by allowing pilots to self brief on relevant information so that ATC controllers don’t have to repeat the same information to all departing and arriving pilots.
Question
Answer
Describe VOR navigation.
VOR (VHF Omni Range) is a ground-based navigation technology in which stations or navaids transmit signals identifiable with aircraft receiver equipment for each radial of compass degree direction from the station, oriented to magnetic north. An aircraft may navigate directly TO or FROM a particular station within its range, known as service volume.
The greatest distance a VOR signal may be received when within ___________ altitude range
A high class or high altitude VOR signal may be received as much as 130 nautical miles from the station within FL180 to FL450. Two VOR stations may be as much as 260 nautical miles apart, and an aircraft navigated FROM a station up to 130 nm away, then TO the next station up to 130 nm away. VOR navigation is highly accurate (1-2°) but requires that the receiver be within the line-of-site of the navaid. An audible Morse code identifier may be heard through the receiver to enable positive identification of the navaid being received.
Describe DME
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is a signal available from many VOR navaids which may be received by a DME receiver onboard an aircraft, and indicates distance from or to a VOR navaid so equipped. A DME signal may be received close to 200 nautical miles from the transmitter. A DME receiver is required if using VOR navigation at any altitude.
What is a VORTAC?
A VORTAC is a location where a civilian VOR navaid is co-located with a military TACAN navaid. A TACAN navaid transmits a DME signal civilian aircraft equipment can receive.
What is NDB?
A nondirectional beacon (NDB) is a ground-based navaid which transmits a signal in all directions. Aircraft equipment capable of receiving an NDB signal is known as an automatic direction finder (ADF). Unlike a VOR, an NDB doesn’t transmit a signal which indicates a specific compass degree radial, rather a more generalized signal in which an ADF display will point to the navaid. If the pilot steers the aircraft such that the ADF display pointer coincides with the aircraft direction, the aircraft will eventually arrive (fly over) the navaid. NDB signal reception does not require line-of-site between the navaid and receiver, Precipitation static and thunderstorms can cause erroneous ADF indications, as the receiver may be inaccurate or point to the source of the static in the atmosphere.
What is GPS or GNSS?
GNSS stands for Global Navigation Satellite System and GPS stands for Global Positioning System. GNSS refers to a space-based navigation system. GPS refers to a GNSS operated and maintained by the US Department of Defense (DOD).
GNSS or GPS is a space-based time transfer system of navigation. An aircraft receiver receives signals simultaneously from several satellites to determine the aircraft position.
A signal from a minimum of three satellites must be received for basic location and navigation information, and a minimum of five for altitude accuracy when used for an instrument approach with vertical guidance. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a receiver indication that signals from five satellites are being received.
What is RNAV?
RNAV stands for Area Navigation. An aircraft RNAV navigation system uses as many VOR and/or DME signals to permit the pilot to navigate on any desired, direct course, rather than to have to navigate directly TO or FROM a VOR navaid.
RNAV also refers to use of GNSS/GPS navigation technology since it permits navigation on a direct course.
What is INS or IRS?
An Inertial Navigation System (INS) or Inertial Reference System (IRS) is onboard navigation technology which can receive external signals from navigation sources, but does not require reception to provide aircraft position and course guidance. INS/IRS technology is a self-contained navigation system. Such aircraft equipment uses gyros and accelerometers to determine the aircraft location and provide course navigation guidance in the absence of navigation signals in areas where it is unavailable or not reliable.
What is a Flight Management System or FMS?
A Flight Management System (FMS) is onboard aircraft navigation equipment which consolidates all navigation signals and information. An FMS contains a database of all ground navaids, published airways, and RNAV waypoints. All consolidated information is used to display course guidance.
What is an ILS?
An instrument landing system (ILS) is a ground-based navigation system in which signals received by onboard aircraft equipment provides lateral guidance to the runway center line and vertical guidance to the touchdown zone of the runway when the appropriate frequency is selected with aircraft receiver equipment.
Main components of an ILS
1.Guidance (localizer for lateral, glide slope for vertical)
2.Range (marker beacons and/or DME)
3.Visual (approach lights, precision approach path indicator/PAPI, Runway End Identifier Lights, touchdown zone lights, runway threshold lights, runway centerline lights, medium or high intensity runway lights)
Precision instrument approach versus a nonprecision approach
A precision instrument approach has operational vertical guidance (glide slope). A fully functional ILS is an example of a precision approach. Any instrument approach in which a ground-based glide slope is not available is considered a nonprecision approach. VOR, LOC, LDA, and SDF are examples of nonprecision approaches. A GPS approach may provide vertical guidance but is not considered a glide slope so therefore is considered an instrument approach with vertical guidance rather than a precision approach.
What is a Decision Height (DH)?
A Decision Height (DH) is a published height above ground level at which a descent on an ILS may not continue unless the pilot has visually acquired at least one of the following visual cues:
Approach lights*
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
Runway pavement, lights or markings
*Approach lights may only be used alone to no lower than 100’ AGL, unless red side row bars or red terminating lights are visible.
Decision Altitude (DA) is the published minimum altitude expressed above sea level (MSL)
What is Minimum Descent Height (MDH)?
Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is a published minimum height above ground at which a descent on a nonprecision instrument approach may not continue unless the pilot has visually acquired at least one of the following visual cues:
Approach lights*
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
Runway pavement, lights or markings
*Approach lights may only be used alone to no lower than 100’ AGL, unless red side row bars or red terminating lights are visible. Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is the published minimum altitude expressed above sea level (MSL)
What are typical approach minimums for a Cat I ILS?
200’ DH 1/2SM (2400 RVR) or 1800 RVR if touchdown zone lights or centerline lights are installed and operational
Definition of HAT with respect to a published instrument approach
HAT (Height Above Touchdown) is a reference to height, in feet, above the touchdown zone for a specific runway. A DH/A for a straight-in approach to a specific runway refers to HAT.
Definition of HAA with respect to a published instrument approach
HAA (Height Above Aerodrome) is a reference to height, in feet, above the highest landing surface. A circling approach MDH/A refers to HAA.
Where is the Final Approach Fix (FAF) for a precision (ILS) instrument approach?
Glide slope intercept no lower than the published height (as indicated by the lightning bolt on the profile view on approach plate)
Where is the Final Approach Fix (FAF) for a nonprecision instrument approach?
The Maltese cross published on the profile view of the approach plate.
When are circling minimums published for an instrument approach?
When guidance is more than 30° from the runway centerline or when terminating a landing on a runway other than the runway specified on the approach plate.
Can approach lights or other runway lighting affect instrument approach minimums?
Yes. Consult inoperative lighting aids in the terminal procedures publication.
Question
Answer
Describe how thrust is produced by a turbine (jet) engine
Turbine engines produce thrust in four stages.
1. Intake
2. Compression
3. Combustion
4. Exhaust
Air is compressed, therefore temperature increases, fuel is injected which burns the air, creating a high pressure in the combustion chamber. The high pressure air rushes to low pressure atmosphere via the exhaust section.
EPR
Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of high pressure within the combustion chamber of a turbine engine to the ambient atmospheric pressure and is a measure of thrust.
The higher the EPR number, the higher the ratio, or difference between internal and external pressure, therefore the higher the thrust.
Define V1
Takeoff Decision Speed is the maximum speed during a takeoff roll at which the pilot may begin to reject a takeoff and the minimum speed during a takeoff roll in which the aircraft can reach the required height (35’) above the takeoff surface in the event of a takeoff.
Define VR
Rotation speed is the minimum speed during the takeoff roll at which the pilot may begin the rotation process.
Define V2
Takeoff Safety Speed is the speed at which the required one engine inoperative climb performance can be achieved for obstacle clearance purposes in the event of an engine failure during takeoff
Define VS
Stall speed
Define VSO
Stall speed in the landing configuration
Define VS1
Stall speed in a specified (by manufacturer) configuration
Define VC
Design cruising speed
Define VMO/MMO
Maximum operating limit speed
V=KIAS
M=Mach number
Define VREF
Reference landing speed also known as approach speed
Describe the four segments of climb and significance
Four segments of climb refer to the profile to be flown in the event of an engine failure during takeoff. Takeoff weight limited by one engine inop climb requirement based on these specs.
1.Liftoff to gear up,
2.Gear up to 400’ AGL (2.4% min climb gradient required)
3.400’ AGL, level to flaps up
4.Flaps up to 1,500’ AGL (1.4% min climb gradient required)
Define takeoff distance
Takeoff distance is the manufacturer horizontal distance along from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface.
§25.113 Takeoff distance
Define accelerate-stop distance
Accelerate-stop distance is the distance necessary to accelerate an airplane from a standing start with all engines operating to the highest speed reached during a rejected takeoff, the pilot takes the first action to reject the takeoff at V1 for takeoff and come to a full stop.
§25.109 Accelerate-stop distance.
Define takeoff run available (TORA)
** TORA** is the total length of runway available for an aircraft to accelerate from brake release to liftoff and half the horizontal distance to climb to 35 ft.
It is effectively, the actual length of a runway that an aircraft can use for a takeoff roll.
Define takeoff distance available (TODA)
TODA is the distance available to accelerate from brake release, past lift-off, to the start of the takeoff climb.
TODA represents the entire distance that can be utilized for takeoff, including both runway and any clearway beyond the runway.
Define accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)
Accelerated-Stop Distance Available (TORA) is the total length of runway available (which may include a stopway) to accelerate from brake release to V1 plus the distance required to safely decelerate to a stop following a rejected takeoff.
Define clearway
A clearway is an area beyond the runway free of permanent obstacles like buildings, trees, or terrain features.
Define stopway
A stopway is an area beyond the runway specifically prepared to provide extra stopping distance for aircraft that cannot stop in the standard runway length due to a rejected takeoff or landing due to factors like a wet or contaminated surface on the runway, brake failure, or landing gear failure.
Key features of a stopway include:
-At least as wide as the runway
-Positioned on extended runway center line
-Able to support aircraft without causing structural damage
How does runway slope affect takeoff and landing distance?
Uphill slope increases takeoff distance and decreases landing distance.
Downhill slope decreases takeoff distance and increases landing distance.
Define driftdown method one and method two
Driftdown
Loss of altitude after an engine fails in flight.
Driftdown altitude
Manufacturer-published altitude at which the airplane can maintain after an engine fails in flight.
Determining maximum takeoff weight relative to driftdown:
Method one: weight which will result in driftdown altitude that complies with 1,000’ (2,000’ in mountainous area) obstacle clearance throughout flight.
Method two: flight is broken down into segments with specified alternates if an engine fails, which permits a higher takeoff weight than Method one.
Define effective runway length (ERL)
Full published runway length minus displaced threshold (if any).
How does use of anti icing bleed or pressurization bleed air affect turbine engine performance and allowable takeoff weight?
The use of bleed air will reduce engine thrust, and therefore, may reduce allowable takeoff weight.
Is a jet more or less fuel efficient at high altitudes? Why?
More fuel efficient at high altitudes due to lower air density, which reduces airframe drag (assuming higher altitude doesn’t result in a higher headwind, which can reduce the efficiency by reducing ground speed, thereby increasing flight time.
Define landing distance
Landing distance is manufacturer-published horizontal distance necessary to land and to come to a complete stop from a point 50 feet above the landing surface.
§25.125 Landing.
Define landing distance available (LDA)
LDA is the available distance from the threshold to complete the approach, touchdown, and decelerate to a stop.
Define displaced threshold
A displaced threshold is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway.
Displacement of a threshold reduces the length of runway available for landing.
Describe the effect on turbine engine performance at a high elevation airport, high ambient temperature, and high relative humidity
Thrust will be reduced under any of these conditions due to lower air density. Lower air density means there are fewer air molecules available for compression and combustion. Lower air density may cause lower allowable takeoff weight as a result of lower thrust output.
Define VX
Speed for best angle of climb
Achieves greatest altitude over distance
FT/NM (feet per nautical mile)
Define VY
Speed for best rate of climb.
Achieves greatest altitude over time
FPM (feet per minute)
Define Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
The maximum takeoff weight for any given takeoff is the lowest of the following weight limits:
Maximum structural takeoff weight
Maximum structural landing weight
Maximum runway limited takeoff weight
Maximum runway limited landing weight
Maximum second segment limited weight
Maximum driftdown limited weight
Maximum takeoff or landing weight due to aircraft condition (CDL)
Four segments of climb (engine inop)
Question
Answer
Define an alert area
An alert area is established to inform pilots of a specific area wherein a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted.
§1.1 General definitions.
RNAV
Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path.
GPS is a form of RNAV
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of ceiling
Ceiling means the height of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as “broken,” “overcast,” or “obscuration,” and not classified as “thin” or “partial.”
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of clearway
Clearway means an area beyond the runway, not less than 500 feet wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway, under the control of the airport authorities.
The clearway, expressed as a clearway plane, extends from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25 percent, above which no object nor any terrain protrudes.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define controlled airspace
Controlled airspace means an airspace within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.
Examples—Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define a controlled firing area
A controlled firing area is established to contain activities, which if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. A spotter suspends activities when aircraft approach area.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define an extended over-water operation
Extended over-water operation
An operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define VFE
Maximum flap extended speed (VFE)
The highest speed permissible with wing flaps extended.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of Decision Altitude (DA)
Decision altitude (DA)
A specified altitude (expressed in feet above mean sea level) in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of Decision Height (DH)
Decision height (DH)
A specified height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of IAS
Indicated airspeed (IAS)
The speed of an aircraft as shown on its pitot static airspeed indicator.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of FAF
Final approach fix (FAF) defines the beginning of the final approach segment and the point where final segment descent may begin.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of flight time
Flight time
Pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
§1.1 General definitions.
IAP
Instrument approach procedure (IAP)
Published maneuvers by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles and assurance of navigation signal reception capability. It begins from the initial approach fix, or from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define VLE
Landing gear extended speed (VLE)
The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown with the landing gear extended.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define VLO
Landing gear operating speed (VLO)
The maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of large aircraft
Large aircraft
Aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define Mach (M)
Mach (M)
The ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound.
Example: M .84 means 84% of the speed of sound.
§1.1 General definitions.
MOA
Military operations area (MOA)
Airspace established to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR Traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.
§1.1 General definitions.
MDA
Minimum descent altitude (MDA)
The lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering until the pilot sees the required visual references for the runway of intended landing.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define nonprecision instrument approach
Nonprecision instrument approach procedure
A standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glide slope is provided.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of operational control
Operational control
The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.
§1.1 General definitions.
Define precision instrument approach
Precision approach procedure
A standard instrument approach procedure in which an electronic glide slope is provided, such as ILS and PAR.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of restricted area
Restricted area
Designated airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of stopway
Stopway
An area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway, centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, and able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane, and designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.
§1.1 General definitions.
V2
Takeoff safety speed (V2)
Airspeed at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved (obstacle clearance).
§1.1 General definitions.
TCAS I and TCAS II
TCAS I
Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories to the pilot.
TCAS II
Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) that utilizes interrogations of, and replies from airborne radar beacon transponders and provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of time in service
Time in service
With respect to maintenance time records, means the time from the moment an aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing.
§1.1 General definitions.
Definition of warning area
Warning area
Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
§1.1 General definitions.
Question
Answer
Does an aircraft dispatcher certificate have an expiration date?
No.
An aircraft dispatcher certificate is effective until it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
§65.15 Duration of certificates.
Must a person have an aircraft dispatcher certificate in personal possession when exercising operational control?
Yes.
No person may act as an aircraft dispatcher (exercising responsibility with the pilot in command in the operational control of a flight) unless that person has in his or her personal possession an aircraft dispatcher certificate.
Each person who holds an aircraft dispatcher certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator or an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.
§65.51 Certificate required.
Question
Answer
Speed limit below 10,000 feet MSL, in general
250 knots unless otherwise authorized
§91.117 Aircraft speed.
Speed limit at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace area
200 knots unless otherwise authorized
§91.117 Aircraft speed.
Speed limit in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such Class B airspace area
200 knots unless otherwise authorized
§91.117 Aircraft speed.
Standard alternate weather minimums with respect to selecting an airport as an alternate
Unless otherwise authorized, no person may specify an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility will be at or above the following weather minima:
Precision approach procedure.
Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
Non-precision approach procedure.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
§91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
The applicable authorized DA/DH or MDA/MDH is the highest of what three factors?
(1) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH prescribed by the approach procedure.
(2) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH prescribed for the pilot in command.
(3) The DA/DH or MDA/MDH appropriate for the aircraft equipment available and used during the approach.
§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
Standard takeoff minimums if not prescribed for a particular airport
Aircraft having two engines or less
1 statute mile visibility.
Aircraft having more than two engines
1/2 statute mile visibility.
§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
The minimum IFR altitude when not published.
Mountainous area and non-mountainous area.
Designated mountainous area
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course flown.
Otherwise, 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course flown.
§91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
Can an aircraft be operated below the MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude)?
Yes. If both a MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 nautical miles of that VOR.
§91.177 Minimum altitudes for IFR operations.
IFR cruising altitudes based on direction of flight
Magnetic course 0° through 179°, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (or Flight Level at and above 18,000 feet MSL); or
Magnetic course 180° through 359°, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (or Flight Level at and above 18,000 feet MSL)
§91.179 IFR cruising altitude or flight level.
What route and altitude applies in the event of a two-way communication failure while in IFR conditions?
(1) Route.
(i) Route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
(ii) If being radar vectored, the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
(iii) In the absence of an assigned route, the route ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
(iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, the route filed in the flight plan.
(2) Altitude. The highest of the following altitudes for the route segment being flown
(i) The altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
(ii) The minimum altitude prescribed for IFR operations; or
(iii) The altitude ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
§91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.
Question
Answer
What is the flight time limit for a two-pilot crew in a domestic operation?
Per Table A
If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond the certificate holder’s control, a flightcrew member may exceed the maximum flight time specified and the cumulative flight time limits in 117.23(b) as necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate, as appropriate.
§117.11 Flight time limitation.
If unforeseen operational circumstances arises after takeoff, can a pilot exceed the maximum flight time allowed?
Yes
If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond the certificate holder’s control, a flightcrew member may exceed the maximum flight time specified in this section to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate.
§117.11 Flight time limitation.
What is the maximum flight duty period for pilots?
Per Table B
If a flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period in Table B is reduced by 30 minutes.
§117.13 Flight duty period: Unaugmented operations.
Define deadhead transportation
Deadhead transportation
Transportation of a flightcrew member as a passenger or non-operating flightcrew member, by any mode of transportation, as required by a certificate holder, excluding transportation to or from a suitable accommodation.
§117.3 Definitions.
Question
Answer
What are Operations Specifications?
A set of authorizations, limitations, and certain procedures under which each kind of operation is to be conducted.
§119.7 Operations specifications.
Question
Answer
What publication contains the following information?
U.S. Chart Supplement
What publication contains standard terminal arrival routes (STARs), departure procedures (DPs), instrument approach procedures, nonstandard takeoff minimums, and nonstandard alternate minimums?
U.S Terminal Procedures Publication
Question
Answer
Abbreviations and Definitions
Part ______
14 CFR Part 1
Certification: Pilots
Part ____
14 CFR Part 61
Certification: Aircraft Dispatchers
Part ____
14 CFR Part 65
General Operating & Flight Rules
Part ____
14 CFR Part 91
Air carrier definitions
Part ____
14 CFR Part 110
Certification: air carriers
Part ____
14 CFR Part 119
Aviation security rules
Part ____
49 CFR Part 1544
Flight and duty limitations and rest requirements for flightcrew members and certificate holders conducting passenger operations
Part ____
14 CFR Part 117
Airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates, and changes to certificates (transport category airplanes)
Part ____
14 CFR, Part 25
Air carrier definitions
Part ____
14 CFR, Part 110
Who must the operator of an aircraft involved in an incident or accident notify?
National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
49 CFR, Part 830
Question
Answer
Define a domestic flight operation
Domestic operation:
A scheduled operation conducted between any points within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia; or
(ii) Operations solely within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia; or
(iii) Operations entirely within any State, territory, or possession of the United States.
§110.2 Definitions
Define a flag flight operation
Flag operation:
A scheduled operation conducted between any point within the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States and any point outside the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States, respectively; or
(ii) Between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any point outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States and the District of Columbia.
(iii) Between any point outside the U.S. and another point outside the U.S.
§110.2 Definitions
Define a supplemental flight operation
Question
Answer
What does the V4 in the black box mean?
Low altitude VOR (Victor) airway designation from 1,200’ AGL to but not including FL 180 shown on IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts. Airways are predicated on VOR or VORTAC NAVAIDs are defined by the outbound radial from the NAVAID.
What does 16000 mean?
Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.
What does *11700 mean?
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.
What does 11700G mean?
GNSS MEA for an airway segment to ensure obstacle clearance and communications reception.
What does 29 mean?
Segment nautical mile distance along airway (between fixes, such as intersections, RNAV waypoints, and VOR/VORTAC NAVAIDS).
What does 78 in the box mean?
Nautical mile distance between VOR/VORTAC NAVAIDS
What does this symbol represent?
VORTAC NAVAID co-located with a military TACAN NAVAID surrounded by a Compass Rose oriented to Magnetic North of the NAVAID. Information box indicates NAVAID name and VHF frequency.
What does this symbol mean?
Airport with a minimum 5,000 feet hard-surface runway and an approved Instrument Approach Procedure.
What does T000 and the blue line indicate?
Low altitude RNAV route designation (below 18,000 feet), shown on low altitude IFR en route charts.
What does Q00 and the blue line indicate?
High altitude RNAV route designation (FL180 and above), shown on high altitude IFR en route charts.
Question
Answer
What information is indicated?
Nonstandard takeoff minimums
Terminal Procedures Publication
What information is indicated?
Nonstandard alternate minimums
Terminal Procedures Publication
What is the name and purpose of the following?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)
Published route into a terminal area
Terminal Procedures Publication
What is the name and purpose of the following?
Instrument Departure Procedure
Published departure route from a terminal area
Terminal Procedures Publication
What is the name and purpose of the following?
ILS Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)
Precision instrument approach procedure
Terminal Procedures Publication
What is the name and purpose of the following?
Airport diagram
Surface navigation (runways, taxiways, airport buildings)
Terminal Procedures Publication
What is the name and purpose of the following?
IFR preferred routes
Established for traffic movement efficiency
Question
Answer
Define accelerate-stop distance
Accelerate-stop distance
The distances necessary to accelerate the airplane from a standing start with all engines operating to rejection of the takeoff and come to a full stop.
Aircraft manufacturer published data.
§25.109 Accelerate-stop distance.
Define takeoff distance
Takeoff distance
The greater of—
(1) The horizontal distance from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface (assuming an engine failure occurs); or
(2) 115 percent of the horizontal distance along the takeoff path, with all engines operating, from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface.
Aircraft manufacturer published data.
§25.113 Takeoff distance and takeoff run.
Define landing distance
Landing distance
The horizontal distance necessary to land and to come to a complete stop from a point 50 feet above the landing surface.
Aircraft manufacturer published data.
§25.125 Landing.
Question
Answer
What is the definition of Class A airspace?
Class A airspace
Controlled airspace, including airspace overlying waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous States, from 18,000 feet MSL to and including FL600 excluding Alaska and Hawaii.
§71.33 Class A airspace areas.
What is the definition of Class B airspace?
Class B airspace
Controlled airspace encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated, from the surface to typically 10,000’ MSL.
§71.41 Class B airspace.
What is the definition of Class C airspace?
Class C airspace
Controlled encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. Surface to 4,000’ AGL with a core area 4-5 NM diam, a shelf floor at 1,200’ AGL, and shelf 10 NM diam.
§71.51 Class C airspace.
What is the definition of Class D airspace?
Class D airspace
Controlled airspace encompassing at least one primary airport around which the airspace is designated. 4-5 NM diam surface to 2,500’ AGL
§71.61 Class D airspace.
What is the definition of Class E airspace?
Class E airspace
Controlled airspace, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska, extending upward from either 700 feet AGL or 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including FL180, and airspace above FL600.
§71.71 Class E airspace.
What is RVSM?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (RVSM) is special aircrew, aircraft, and operator certification airspace at and above FL290 to and including FL410.
Question
Answer
What is ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service
Audible broadcast which includes current airport weather conditions and certain operational information, such as active runways and instrument approaches in use, and cautionary information. Reduces radio frequency congestion by allowing pilots to self brief on relevant information so that ATC controllers don’t have to repeat the same information to all departing and arriving pilots.
What does EDCT mean?
Expect Departure Clearance Time
An estimated delayed departure time, due to a GDP (Ground Delay Program).
Aircraft is expected to plan taxi to be airborne by this time.
What is EFC?
Expect Further Clearance
Issued as part of airborne holding instructions.
Time to expect a further clearance (release from hold)
Used to depart hold in event of radio communication failure.
What does clearance void time mean?
Included as part of an IFR clearance at non tower controlled airport.
Aircraft must be airborne by the issued void time, or IFR clearance becomes void.
New IFR clearance must be received.
What is a ground stop?
A ground delay program in effect for destination in which a delayed departure time cannot be determined. All inbound traffic must hold at the departure airport until further notice.
What is an ATC flight plan?
Proposed details for a future flight for ATC consideration.
IFR flights require flight plan be filed at least 30 minutes prior to proposed departure time. Pilots receive an IFR clearance prior to departure based on flight plan, which may be as filed, or with changes as assigned by ATC.
What is a transponder / ADS-B?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast
Aircraft transmitter equipment to enable aircraft to appear on ATC radar displays.
Any combination of four digits 0-7 may be issued by ATC for a unique code per aircraft.
