CRITICAL APPROACHES OF CRIMINAL LITIGATION Flashcards
A man is on trial accused of occasioning actual bodily harm. The prosecution’s case is that his attack on the victim was unprovoked, however the man told the police during his interview under caution that he was acting in self-defence. He stated that he only punched the victim because he believed that he was about to be attacked by him.
Which of the following statements best describes how the burden and standard of proof operates for self-defence?
a) The man has an initial evidential burden. Once satisfied, the prosecution must disprove the defence to a legal standard—beyond a reasonable doubt.
b) The man has to prove that he was acting in self-defence to an evidential standard—the balance of probabilities.
c) The man has an initial legal burden, once satisfied the prosecution has to disprove self-defence to a legal standard—beyond a reasonable doubt.
d) The prosecution has to prove that he was not acting in self-defence to a legal standard—beyond a reasonable doubt.
e) The man has to prove that he was acting in self-defence to a legal standard—the balance of probabilities.
a) The man has an initial evidential burden. Once satisfied, the prosecution must disprove the defence to a legal standard—beyond a reasonable doubt.
A man is standing trial for theft. He denies the offence, telling the jury that he has no recollection of what he is accused of. He believes that he was insane at the time of the offence.
How should the judge direct the jury on the burden and standard of proof?
a) The man needs to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that he was insane at the time of the offence.
b) The prosecution needs to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that he was sane at the time of the offence.
c) The man needs to prove on the balance of probabilities that he was insane at the time of the offence.
d) The prosecution needs to prove on the balance of probabilities that he was sane at the time of the offence.
e) The man only needs to introduce some evidence of insanity, then the prosecution needs to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that he was sane at the time of the offence.
c) The man needs to prove on the balance of probabilities that he was insane at the time of the offence.
A man and a woman have both been charged with murder. The man has raised the partial defence of loss of control and the woman has raised the partial defence of diminished responsibility.
How should the judge direct the jury on the burden and standard of proof for the partial defences?
a) There is an evidential burden on the man but a legal burden on the woman.
b) There is legal burden on both the man and the woman.
c) There is no burden on the man but an evidential burden on the woman.
d) There is no burden on either the man or the woman.
e) There is an evidential burden on both the man and the woman.
a) There is an evidential burden on the man but a legal burden on the woman.
Following a fight in a pub, a man is arrested for assault occasioning actual bodily harm. In police interview, he says that he acted in self-defence. The man is charged with assault occasioning actual bodily harm and bailed to appear in the magistrates’ court. He has two previous convictions for drugs offences. The alleged victim gives a statement detailing the alleged offence and his injury. A friend of the accused also gives a statement, confirming that the accused man was at the scene. Both statements are passed to the CPS.
Which of the following can the CPS withhold from disclosure until after the beginning of the day of the first hearing?
a) The accused man’s criminal record.
b) The alleged victim’s statement.
c) The statement from the friend of the accused man.
d) The accused man’s account of the offence given in interview.
e) A summary of the circumstances of the offence.
c) The statement from the friend of the accused man
A woman is charged with GBH upon her husband. Her husband was attacking her, and she picked up a vase and hit him over the head with it to stop him. The blow caused a serious head injury. She has entered a not guilty plea and wishes to assert that she was acting in self-defence at her trial.
Which of the following statements best describes who bears the burden of proof in relation to the defence?
a) The prosecution only has an evidential burden to show that the defendant did not act in self-defence.
b) The prosecution only has a legal burden to show that the defendant did not act in self-defence, beyond reasonable doubt. There is no burden upon the defence.
c) The defence has the evidential burden to raise the issue of self-defence. The prosecution then has the legal burden of disproving self-defence beyond reasonable doubt.
d) The defence has the evidential burden of proving self-defence on the balance of probabilities.
e) The defence has a legal burden to prove the defendant was acting in self-defence. This is a reverse burden and, as such, the standard of proof is on the balance of probabilities.
c) The defence has the evidential burden to raise the issue of self-defence. The prosecution then has the legal burden of disproving self-defence beyond reasonable doubt.
A man and a woman have been married for seven years. For the duration of the marriage, the husband has been physically violent and emotionally abusive towards his wife. One evening, after another violent outburst from the husband, the wife waits until he is asleep and then stabs him in the back intending to kill him. He dies from the wound. A psychiatrist’s report states that the wife understood what she was doing and wanted her husband dead but that she had been suffering from severe depression and post-traumatic stress disorder caused by the years of abuse. As a result, the wife would have had difficulty in controlling her emotions and would have lost her temper very easily.
Can the wife rely on the defence of diminished responsibility for the murder of her husband?
a) The wife cannot rely on the defence as she did not use reasonable force against her husband.
b) The wife cannot rely on the defence because despite her diagnosis she understood the nature of her actions.
c) The wife may rely on the defence as she can discharge the evidential burden that her mental functioning has affected her ability to exercise self-control.
d) The wife may rely on the defence as she can prove that her mental functioning affected her ability to exercise self-control.
e) The wife cannot rely on the defence as she had ‘cooled off’ sufficiently from his violent outburst and will not be considered to have lost control.
d) The wife may rely on the defence as she can prove that her mental functioning affected her ability to exercise self-control.
A man is accused of causing grievous bodily harm to his wife. On the morning of the trial, his wife advises the prosecution that she now does not want to give evidence against her husband because of the stress the case is causing her.
Can the prosecution call his wife to give evidence?
a) His wife is competent but not compellable.
b) His wife is not competent but is compellable.
c) His wife is not competent and not compellable.
d) His wife is competent, and would be compellable, but only if the husband committed a sexual offence.
e) His wife is competent and compellable.
e) His wife is competent and compellable.
A woman is a victim of domestic violence and will be called by the prosecution to provide oral testimony against her husband. She is extremely fearful about testifying in front of her husband. The prosecution advised her that they will make an application for her to have special measures during the trial in the magistrates’ court.
What type of special measure will not be available to her?
a) Screens.
b) Live television link.
c) Video played of her examination–in-chief.
d) Video played of her cross-examination.
e) Clearing people from the court.
d) Video played of her cross-examination.
A man is on trial accused of assault occasioning actual bodily harm. He instructed his solicitor that he punched the complainant in self-defence, that when questioned at the scene the complainant provided a different account to the formal written statement he made at the police station and that the complainant was offered financial encouragement to make a false allegation to the police by his girlfriend’s previous partner.
In the defence of the man, what is his solicitor unable to do?
a) Call rebuttal evidence that the complainant threw the first punch.
b) Call rebuttal evidence that the complainant was offered a bribe.
c) Refer the complainant to the previous inconsistent statement he made at the scene.
d) Put it to the complainant that his account is a fabrication.
e) Call rebuttal evidence that the complainant colluded with his girlfriend’s previous partner.
b) Call rebuttal evidence that the complainant was offered a bribe.
A woman has made an allegation to the police that she was sexual assaulted by a man. She contacted the police six days after the alleged offence took place, but she told her friend what had happened two days later. Her friend knew that she had been on a date with the man and, because she was very upset, she asked if he had ‘done something’ to her. The woman then told her friend what happened. The man denies the allegation and told the police that the woman was lying.
At trial, can the prosecution adduce the conversation between the woman and her friend as a previous consistent statement?
a) No, the woman’s compliant against the man was elicited by a leading question.
b) Yes, but the prosecution can only adduce the woman’s account of the conversation.
c) No, as her friend cannot provide evidence of the conversation as it is hearsay.
d) No, the conversation with her friend did not take place as soon as was reasonably possible after the alleged conduct.
e) Yes, the woman can provide evidence of the conversation she had with her friend and her friend can also provide evidence of the conversation.
e) Yes, the woman can provide evidence of the conversation she had with her friend and her friend can also provide evidence of the conversation.
A man is charged with burglary of a dwelling-house. A neighbour watched the burglar leaving the house through a window at 4.00 am and running away, for about 10 seconds, at a distance of 50 metres. The neighbour gave a physical description of the burglar to police at the time. The man was arrested shortly afterwards in a nearby garden. He met the description given by the neighbour and was subsequently identified by the neighbour in a video identification parade. The man did not answer questions in police interview or account for his presence in the garden shortly after the burglary.
What steps should the judge take in relation to the identification evidence?
a) The judge should remind the jury that although the identification evidence is of poor quality, it is supported by the man’s failure to answer questions in interview or account for his presence in the garden.
b) The judge should withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal, as the identification evidence is of poor quality since the neighbour saw the burglar at a distance and in difficult lighting conditions.
c) The judge should direct the jury that the identification evidence is reliable because the neighbour identified the burglar at the video identification parade and is an independent witness.
d) The judge should refuse to admit the evidence of identification because it would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the trial that it ought not to be admitted.
e) The judge should withdraw the case from the jury and direct an acquittal because there is no evidence to corroborate the neighbour’s identification of the man.
a) The judge should remind the jury that although the identification evidence is of poor quality, it is supported by the man’s failure to answer questions in interview or account for his presence in the garden
A man has been charged with careless driving and stands trial six months after the alleged offence occurred. He is the owner of a car that was identified by a witness as driving at high speed through a red light. The witness wrote down the number plate on a piece of paper, which he handed to a community police officer who was in the vicinity. The community police officer radioed the police station where the number plate was recorded in the police incident log by a police sergeant. The piece of paper that the witness wrote the registration number on has since been lost.
What is the best approach for the judge to take when considering the admissibility of the police incident log?
a) The police incident log is inadmissible as it contains multiple hearsay.
b) The police incident log is inadmissible because the witness was not acting in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation.
c) The police incident log is admissible because the community police officer and police sergeant were acting in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation.
d) The police incident log is admissible because the community police officer and police sergeant were acting in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, and at least one of the five criteria where a witness is unavailable will be satisfied.
e) The police incident log is admissible because the community police officer and police sergeant were acting in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, and the witness cannot be reasonably expected to have any recollection of the number plate.
e) The police incident log is admissible because the community police officer and police sergeant were acting in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, and the witness cannot be reasonably expected to have any recollection of the number plate.
A man is on trial charged with driving whilst disqualified. The Crown Prosecution Service want to introduce into evidence his three–month-old conviction for drink-driving which resulted in a 12-month ban from driving.
What is the best approach for the judge to take regarding the use of this evidence?
a) The conviction is inadmissible. It is not bad character, as the conviction has to do with the alleged facts of the driving whilst disqualified offence (s98(a) Criminal Justice Act 2003).
b) The conviction is bad character and is admissible because it shows a propensity to commit an offence of driving whilst disqualified (s101(d) Criminal Justice Act 2003).
c) The conviction is bad character and is admissible because it is important explanatory evidence (s101(c) Criminal Justice Act 2003).
d) The conviction is admissible. It is not bad character as the conviction is evidence of misconduct in connection with the disqualified driving charge (s98(b) Criminal Justice Act 2003).
e) The conviction is bad character and is admissible to correct a false impression (s101(f) Criminal Justice Act 2003) .
d) The conviction is admissible. It is not bad character as the conviction is evidence of misconduct in connection with the disqualified driving charge (s98(b) Criminal Justice Act 2003).
A woman has been charged with GBH with intent on X. It is alleged that she stabbed the victim with a knife. She denies knowledge of the attack, or knowing X. The prosecution wants to admit into evidence of a text message that she sent to her boyfriend shortly after the attack. The message contained a picture of a knife, along with the words ‘X is having a great day’. The defence argued that the message is inadmissible hearsay.
Which of the following statements is correct about the admissibility of the evidence?
a) The text message is not hearsay and is inadmissible.
b) The text message is hearsay but it is in the interests of justice for it to be admissible.
c) The text message is not hearsay and is admissible.
d) The text message is hearsay but not admissible.
e) The text message is hearsay, but admissible under res gestae.
c) The text message is not hearsay and is admissible.
A man is on trial for the murder of his wife. Their neighbour found her bleeding heavily from a head wound. The neighbour told the police that before she died, she stated ‘my husband hit me with a hammer’. The defence has challenged the admissibility of the wife’s statement to the neighbour. It has argued that it is inadmissible hearsay.
What is the most likely outcome when the judge considers if the statement is hearsay?
a) Hearsay, and inadmissible.
b) Not hearsay, the statement is an implied assertion and admissible.
c) Hearsay, but admissible under the res gestae principle.
d) Hearsay, but admissible because the witness was in fear.
e) Hearsay, but it is in the interests of justice for it to be admissible.
c) Hearsay, but admissible under the res gestae principle.
Two men are charged with murder. The first man is alleged to have lured the victim to a location where the second man killed him with a single shot. The CPS want to admit as evidence against both men a WhatsApp message from the second man to the first man with a picture of the murder weapon and the words ‘one shot killer’. The second man’s defence is self-defence. The first man’s defence is that he did not plan to kill the victim and did not know that the second man had a gun.
Is the WhatsApp message admissible evidence against either or both men?
a) The message is admissible evidence against the first man to prove his knowledge of the plan to kill the victim, but is inadmissible against the second man because it is hearsay.
b) The text message is admissible evidence against the second man to prove that the gun could kill with one shot, and against the first man to prove his knowledge of the plan to kill the victim.
c) The text message is admissible evidence both against the second man to disprove his defence, and against the first man to prove his knowledge of the plan to kill the victim.
d) The text message is admissible evidence against the second man to disprove his defence, but inadmissible against the first man to prove his knowledge of the plan to kill the victim because it is hearsay.
e) The text message is inadmissible against either man because it is hearsay.
c) The text message is admissible evidence both against the second man to disprove his defence, and against the first man to prove his knowledge of the plan to kill the victim.
A man is charged with an offence of assault occasioning grievous bodily harm against his girlfriend. She is the only prosecution witness. The alleged victim gave a written statement to police detailing the assault but refuses to attend trial. She has given a second signed written statement saying that she fears that the man will harm her child if she gives evidence against him. The prosecution seeks leave to admit the alleged victim’s first statement as hearsay evidence.
Which of the factors below should be considered by the judge in deciding whether to admit the statement?
a) The fact that there are no other witnesses for the prosecution: the man should not be convicted solely on the basis of hearsay evidence.
b) The fact that the man cannot challenge the alleged victim’s credibility if she gives evidence by way of a written statement rather than in court.
c) The fact that the alleged victim’s fear is in relation to another person rather than in relation to her own death or injury.
d) The fact that a special measures direction could be made in relation to the alleged victim.
e) The fact that there is no evidence that the man has threatened to harm the alleged victim’s child.
d) The fact that a special measures direction could be made in relation to the alleged victim.
A man has been arrested on suspicion of committing a battery on his girlfriend. He would like his friend to be informed of his arrest.
Which of following statements correctly describes his right to have someone informed of his arrest?
a) He only has a right to inform a relative or a person interested in his welfare.
b) The right to have his friend informed of his arrest can be delayed by a custody officer.
c) The right to have his friend informed of his arrest can be delayed for a maximum of 36 hours.
d) The right to have his flatmate informed of his arrest cannot be delayed.
e) The right to have his friend informed of his arrest can only be delayed if there are reasonable grounds for believing that it will lead to the interference or harm of evidence or any person.
d) The right to have his flatmate informed of his arrest cannot be delayed.
A 16-year-old boy has been arrested on suspicion of robbery. He has advised the custody officer that he is currently on medication for anxiety. The police have requested the attendance of an appropriate adult and they have asked him whether he wishes to consult with a solicitor.
Which of the following statements correctly describe his right to legal advice?
a) The police should only contact a solicitor on the request of an appropriate adult.
b) An appropriate adult can consult with a solicitor and provide him with legal advice.
c) He can be forced to consult with a solicitor.
d) If the boy refuses legal advice, an appropriate adult is unable to request for a solicitor to attend the police station.
e) He can have a consultation with his solicitor before the appropriate adult arrives at the police station.
e) He can have a consultation with his solicitor before the appropriate adult arrives at the police station.
A man has been arrested on suspicion of robbery. He along with four others were part of a joint enterprise to steal £10,000 from a post office. He acted as the lookout and is the only suspect who has been arrested. The other suspects do not know of his arrest and the police have not recovered the £10,000. The man initially declined access to legal advice but part way through the police interview he changed his mind and informed the interviewing officer.
Which of the following statements best describes the man’s right to legal advice?
a) The interview can continue and he can consult with a solicitor once the officer has finished asking his questions.
b) The interview must be stopped even if the interviewing officer believes there are grounds to delay his access to legal advice.
c) The interviewing officer is likely to obtain authorisation from the custody officer to delay his access to legal advice.
d) The reasons for delaying access to legal advice must be in writing and handed to him.
e) His access to a solicitor could be delayed for up to 24 hours given the seriousness of the offence.
b) The interview must be stopped even if the interviewing officer believes there are grounds to delay his access to legal advice
A woman has been arrested on suspicion of committing a burglary. On her arrival at the police station she asked to speak to a solicitor, but after spending an hour in the police cells, she changed her mind about wanting legal advice. An inspector spoke to her to ascertain the reasons for her change of mind.
Before she is interviewed, which of the following statements best describes the actions that the inspector needs to take?
a) Make sure her reasons are recorded on the custody record.
b) Make sure her reasons are recorded on the custody record, contact her solicitor and remind her about the right to legal advice at the start of the interview.
c) Make sure her reasons are recorded on the custody record and contact her solicitor.
d) Make sure her reasons are recorded on the custody record, contact her solicitor and provide authority in writing for the interview to proceed.
e) Nothing, it is the custody officer who has other responsibilities.
d) Make sure her reasons are recorded on the custody record, contact her solicitor and provide authority in writing for the interview to proceed.
A woman has been arrested at 11 am on suspicion of aggravated criminal damage. She arrived at the police station at 11.30 am and the police station was extremely busy so her detention was not authorised by the custody officer until 12.10 pm. At 1 pm a man attended the same police station voluntarily to answer questions about his suspected involvement in an offence of theft. His interview began at 1.15 pm and concluded at 1.35 pm. At 1.40 pm he was arrested.
Which of the following statements accurately describes when the suspects’ maximum 24-hour periods of detention begin?
a) 11 am for the woman and 1.40 pm for the man.
b) 11.30 am for the woman and 1.40 pm for the man.
c) 11.30 am for the woman and 1 pm for the man.
d) 12.10 pm for the woman and 1.15 pm for the man.
e) 11 am for the woman and 1.15 pm for the man.
b) 11.30 am for the woman and 1.40 pm for the man
A man was arrested at 5 pm on suspicion of theft. It is alleged that he befriended his elderly neighbour and dishonestly obtained £5,000 from him. The police searched his home when he was arrested and accessed his bank accounts, but found no trace of the money. The man provided a ‘no comment’ interview. Desperate for evidence, the police conducted a second search of his home, this time finding £4,500 in cash under the floorboards in the man’s bathroom. The search finished at 4 pm the next day and the police would like to interview him about this new evidence.
Which of the following statements best describes whether the police can extend the man’s detention period?
a) An extension can only be granted by a magistrates’ court.
b) An extension cannot be granted as he has not been arrested for an indictable offence.
c) An extension can only be granted to secure or preserve evidence.
d) An extension can be granted by a superintendent.
e) An extension cannot be granted because the investigation was not carried out diligently and expeditiously.
d) An extension can be granted by a superintendent.
A woman was arrested on suspicion of criminal damage, but granted street bail to attend at the police station two days later at 4 pm. The officer wanted to obtain statements from a number of witnesses before interviewing her. She arrived at the police station at 4 pm, the custody officer authorised her detention at 4.20 pm and the police interview started at 5 pm. A man was arrested at 5.30 pm on suspicion of burglary, he arrived at the police station at 5.50 pm and his detention was authorise at 6 pm. His interview started at 6.30 pm and concluded at 8 pm.
Which of the following statements accurately describes when the suspects’ maximum 24-hour periods of detention begin?
a) 4 pm for the woman and 5.50 pm for the man.
b) 4.20 pm for the woman and 5.50 pm for the man.
c) 4.20 pm for the woman and 5.30 pm for the man.
d) 4 pm for the woman and 5.30 pm for the man.
e) 4.20 pm for the woman and 6 pm for the man.
a) 4 pm for the woman and 5.50 pm for the man.