Criminal V2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

1st Degree Murder (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Killing a human
  2. With “malice aforethought”
  3. By:
    • Particular means specified by statute
    • During another crime specified by statute
    • With premedittation and deliberation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2nd Degree Murder (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Killing a human being
  2. With “malice aforethought”
  3. And is not first degree
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Killing a human being
  2. While in a “heat of passion
  3. The heat of passion was reasonable
  4. No time to cool off (by reasonable person standard)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Involuntary Manslaughter (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Killing a human being
  2. While being criminally negligent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

“Malice Aforethought” Defined

A
  1. Express Malice - intent to kill
  2. Implied Malice - (Generally 2nd Degree)
    • Intent to commit serious bodily injury
    • Depraved Heart
    • Felony Murder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Felony Murder Rule

A

A killing, even an accidental one, wil be murder if it was caused with the intent to commit a felony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Merger Doctrine

A

If a defendant commits a single act that simultaneously fulfills the definition of two seperate offesnes, the two charges merge together. (lesser offense drops out)

Felony murder rule does not apply to assaultive felonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Agency Rule

A

If a third party was proximate cause of death, no felony murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Murder (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Causing the death of another human being
  2. With
    • Purpose or knowledge
    • Extreme indifference to the value of human life
    • While committing a listed crime
      - Robbery, Rape, Arson, Burglary, Kidnapping, or felonious escape.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Manslaughter (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Murder (see elements for Murder)
  2. While under “extreme mental or emotional disturbance for which there is a reasonable excuse” from the view of the defendant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Involuntary Homicide (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Causing the death of another human being
  2. While reckless or negligent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Forcible Rape (Elements)

A
  1. Intercourse of any kind
  2. With lack of consent
    • Due to:
      - Force
      - Threat of Force
      - Unconciousness
      - Incapacity to Consent (Legal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mistake of Consent Defense

A

Defense is available if mistake is “reasonable and honest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Statutory Rape (Elements)

A
  1. Intercourse (Strict Liability)
  2. With a minor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Larceny (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Unlawful taking
  2. Carrying away (no matter how slight)
  3. From the possession of another
  4. With the intent to permanently deprive the owner
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Burglary (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Breaking and entering
  2. A dwelling
  3. At night
  4. With the intent to commit a felony
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Robbery (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Larceny
  2. From the victims person or immediate presence
  3. Using force or threat of force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Burglary (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Entering
  2. A building or occupied structure
  3. With purpose to commit a crime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Robbery (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Theft (basically larceny at common law)
  2. While threatening or inflicting serious bodily injury (or while committing a 1st or 2nd degree felony)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Attempt (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. Requires an “overt act”
  2. That is more than mere preparation
    • Unequivocally Test: do the acts unequivocally manifest criminal intent
    • Dangerous Proximity Test: acts were dangerously proximity to success.
  3. With the intent to commit the target offense; and
  4. With the intent to take the overt act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Renunciation Doctrine

A
  1. Voluntarily abandoned the attempt (not from fear of being caught or difficulty); and
  2. Renunciation is complete (not postponed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Attempt (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. Defendant does or omits to do anything
  2. That is a substantial step in the commission of the crime
    • Examples: lying in wait, following or searching for the victim, enticing the victim, reconnoitering, unlawful entry, possession of materials to be used in crime
  3. With the required mens rea of the underlying crime
  4. Defendant purposely took the substantial step
  5. Defendant planned to commit the crime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Accomplice Liability (Elements)

A
  1. Assisting the principal by: encouragement, physical assistance, or omission
  2. With the intent to assist the principal; and
  3. Intent that the principal commit the crime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conspiracy (Elements) - Common Law

A
  1. A bilateral agreement to commit a crime
  2. An overt act by one of the co-conspirators
  3. With the intent to enter into an agreement; and
  4. With the intent to commit, or aid in committing the targetted crime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Conspiracy (Elements) - MPC

A
  1. A unilateral agreement to commit a crime
  2. With the purpose to enter into an agreement; and
  3. Purpose to commit or aid in committing the targetted crime
  • An overt act for felonies 3rd degree or below (otherwise not required)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Voluntary Intoxication Defense - Common Law

A

Intoxication prevents the defendant from forming the criminal intent necessary to commit the crime

  1. Available for Specific Intent Crimes
    • Crimes that require intent to do some further harmful act (X with the intent to X, or X for the purpose of X)
  2. Unavailable for General Intent Crimes
    • All other crimes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Voluntary Intoxication Defense - MPC

A
  1. Defendant is voluntarily intoxicated
  2. Negates an element of the offense
  3. Not available to disprove recklessness or above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Involuntary Intoxication Defense - Common Law

A
  1. Defendant was involuntarily intoxicated
  2. Intoxication made the defendant temporarily insane
    • Four Circumstances:
      1. Fault of another (force, fraud, duress)
      2. Innocent Mistake (didn’t know it was an intoxicant)
      3. Unknowingly have a condition that makes them abnormally susceptible to intoxicants
      4. Unexpected Intoxication from medically prescribed drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Involuntary Intoxication Defense - MPC

A
  1. Defendant was involuntarily intoxicated
  2. Defendant was unable to appreciate the criminality of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mistake of Law Defense

A
  1. Not an excuse; unless
  2. Crime requires knowledge of the law as an element
    - Tax evasion, insider trading, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mistake of Fact Defense - Common Law

A
  1. Must negate the mens rea of the crime
    • Specific Intent Crime: mistake can be unreasonable
    • General Intent Crime: Mistake must be reasonable
      Legal Wrong Test: no defense if defendant’s view of facts, he was still committing a crime (punished for how facts actually were)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mistake of Fact Defense - MPC

A
  1. Must negate the mens rea of the crime
  • Mistake does not need to be reasonable
  • Mistake can sometimes result in lower level crime being charged/convicted
    Legal Wrong Test: No defense if facts as defendant believed them, defendant was still committing a crime (punished for crime based on facts as defendant believed them)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Insanity Defense (M’Naughten Test) - Common Law

A

At the time of the crime, defendant had a defect of the mind that prevented him from knowing:
1. the nature and quality of his conduct; or
2. that what he was doing was wrong

34
Q

Insanity Defense (Volitional Test) - Common Law

A

Defendant was driven by an “irresistible impulse” to commit the crime.

35
Q

Insanity Defense (Wild Beast Test) - Common Law

A

Defendant did not know what he was doing, no more than an infant or wild beast.

36
Q

Insanity Defense (MPC) - MPC

A

At the time of the crime defendant as a result of mental disease or defect, lacked substantial capacity either
* to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct; or
* conform his conduct to the requirements of the law

37
Q

Infancy Defense - Common Law

A
  1. Did the defendant know his acts were wrong/criminal?
    • Age Ranges:
      <7: Infancy is a defense
      >14: Infancy, not a defense
      7-14: Presumed infant but can show evidence that defendant knew right from wrong.
38
Q

Infancy Defense - MPC

A

< 16: Infancy is a defense
> 17: Infancy is not a defense
16-17: States decide

39
Q

Consent Defense - MPC & Common Law

A
  1. Negatives an element of the offense or precludes the harm sought to be prevented
  2. Not available for assaultive crimes
    • Unless it is a contact sport
    • (MPC) Unless it is not serious
40
Q

Burden of Proof

A

On the prosecutor (Presumption of Innocence)

41
Q

Standard of Proof

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt

42
Q

Justification: Specific Deterrence

A

Prevent individuals from reoffending

43
Q

Justification: General Deterrence

A

Prevent general public from offending due to potential charges

44
Q

Justification: Rehabilitation

A

Reform criminals so they no longer want to commit crimes

45
Q

Justification: Isolation

A

Separate criminals from public to prevent reoffenses

46
Q

Justification: Retributivism

A

Gives criminals their just desserts

47
Q

Ejusdem Generis

A

Of the Same Kind

48
Q

Expressio Unius

A

Expression of one thing is the exclusion of others

49
Q

Rule of Lenity

A

Unresolved ambiguities construed in favor of the defendant

50
Q

Statute Interpretation Rules

A
  1. Plain Meaning
  2. Constitutional Avoidance
  3. Avoid absurdity
  4. Undefined terms have common law meaning
  5. Ejusdem Generis
  6. Expression Unius
  7. Rule of Lenity
51
Q

Omission Liability (Elements)

A
  1. Must be physically capable of performing the omitted act
  2. Must have a legal duty to act
    (contracts, special duty, created the risk, started assisting then stopped)
  3. Must be aware that facts give rise to a duty to act
52
Q

Natural and Probable Consequences Doctrine

A

Natural and probable consequences of wrongful acts are assumed to be within the scope of purpose.

53
Q

Transferred Intent

A

Defendant intended to harm one person but accidentally harms another, intent carries over to second person

Transferred intent can not lead to a higher crime, but can lead to a lower crime

54
Q

Willful Blindness - Common Law

A
  1. Defendant deliberately shuts his eyes to avoid knowing what would otherwise be obvious
  2. They subjectively believed there was a high probability of its existence
  3. They took an affirmative step to avoid learning
55
Q

Willful Blindness - MPC

A

When knowledge of the existence of a particular fact is an element of an offense, such knowledge is established if a person is aware of a high probability of its existence, unless he actually believes that it does not exist.

56
Q

Strict Liability - Common Law

A
  1. No mens rea
  2. Applies to:
    • Statute explicitly says so
    • General Welfare Offenses
      • Wide-scale impersonal injuries
57
Q

Strict Liability - MPC

A
  1. Only if it plainly appears in statute
58
Q

Scope Ambiguity

A

Mens rea for one element applies to all elements excluding jurisdiction

59
Q

Mens Rea: Purpose (MPC)

A

Conscious Object

60
Q

Mens Rea: Knowledge (MPC)

A

Aware that it is practically certain (unless believes the opposite)

61
Q

Mens Rea: Recklessness (MPC)

A

Consciously disregard a substantial and unjustified risk

62
Q

Mens Rea: Negligence (MPC)

A

Should be aware of substantial and unjustified risk

63
Q

Common Law Mens Rea

A
  1. Intent (most common): intended to do X
  2. 1000s of mens rea and no relations to each other, required mens rea depends on statute
64
Q

Temporal Concurrence

A

Mens rea and actus reus must occur at the same time

65
Q

Motivational Concurrence

A

Mens rea must be the motivating force behind the actus reus

66
Q

Factual Cause

A

“But For” Cause

67
Q

Proximate Cause

A

Fairness Test: was act far enough away to remove fault?
- Direct Cause: defendant is a direct link in the causal chain
- Intervening Cause: other links in chain
- Dependant Intervening Cause: responsive to defendant’s act; breaks chain only if it bizarre
- Independent Intervening Cause: has an unrelated source; breaks chain unless it was foreseeable

68
Q

Self Defense - Common Law

A
  1. Defendant must have an honest and objectively reasonable belief that the threat is imminent, force is necessary to repel that threat, and the use of force was proportionate to the force threatened.
    (Does into apply if defendant is the initial aggressor)
69
Q

Self Defense (non lethal) - MPC

A
  1. Actor subjectively believes
  2. Force is immediately necessary
  3. To protect himself against unlawful force by another
    (No proportionality requirement except for use of deadly force)
70
Q

Self Defense (lethal) - MPC

A
  1. Actor subjectively believes
  2. Deadly force is necessary
  3. To protect himself from death, serious bodily injury, kidnapping or forcible rape
71
Q

Duty to Retreat - Common Law

A

Historically must retreat if possible
Most states now have “stand your ground” laws now
Most states now have “castle doctrine” no duty to retreat in your home

72
Q

Duty to Treat - MPC

A

No deadly force if the actor knows he could avoid the need for deadly force by retreating, surrendering an object, or refraining from an action he has no duty to take
No duty to retreat from dwelling or place of work

73
Q

Defense of Others - Common Law

A

Defendant must reasonably believe that imminence, necessity, and proportionality requirements are satisfied to protect third party from unlawful attack

74
Q

Defense of Others - MPC

A

Under circumstances as defendant believes them to be:
1. Defendant would be justified in defending himself were he in third party’s shoes
2. Third party would be justified, and
3. Intervention is necessary to protect

75
Q

Defensive Force to Resist Arrest - Common Law

A

Could resist unlawful arrest

76
Q

Defensive Force to Resist Arrest - MPC

A

Very hard to justify use of force to resist arrest

77
Q

Non-lethal Defense of Property - Common Law

A
  1. Defendant has reasonable belief that force is necessary
  2. Force is immediately necessary to prevent: trespass or taking, to retake property in hot pursuit, or to reenter when waiting for court order would produce exceptional hardship
  3. Must first ask actor to desist, unless asking would be useless or dangerous to person or property
78
Q

Non-lethal Defense of Property - MPC

A
  1. Force is immediately necessary to prevent trespass or taking, or to retake property in hot pursuit, or to reenter when waiting for court order would produce exceptional hardship.
  2. Must first ask actor to desist, unless useless or dangerous to person or property.
    (No reasonableness requirement)
79
Q

Deadly Force to Defend Property - MPC & Common Law

A
  1. Generally not allowed unless it is the defense of habitation
  2. Defendant must use deadly force to prevent and immediate, unlawful entry into habitation (common law requires reasonable belief)
  • Common Variations: The defendant though intruder intended to commit a felony or forcible felony.
  • Habitation Test: Is the nature of the structure in such that a reasonable person would not expect unauthorized intrusions?
80
Q

Duress - Common Law

A
  1. Defendant had a reasonable fear the threat would be carried out unless she committed the crime
  2. Defendant was responding to imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
  3. The recipient of the threat falls within the correct classification (classifications vary by statute, could include just defendant, defendant’s family, etc.)
  4. Defendant had no reasonable opportunity to escape

(Duress defense is not usually available for murder)

81
Q

Duress - MPC

A

Requires that the threat be such that a person of reasonable firmness in his situation would have been unable to resist

(does not have any of the common law requirements)

82
Q

Misdemeanor Manslaughter Rule

A

If a person dies during the commission of a misdemeanor or non dangerous felony the charge is involuntary manslaughter (Common law only)