Criminal Liability Flashcards

1
Q

What is assault?

A

Occurs when a person intentionally or recklessly causes another to apprehend the immediate application of unlawful force.

The defendant doesn’t need to touch the victim and words will be sufficient if the victim believes that violence is imminent, words can also negate the imminence (e.g. “I would punch you if it wasn’t illegal”).

‘Apprehend’ would not be present if defendant swung to hit a victim but missed and victim only then finds out about the attempt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is battery?

A

Battery arises when person intentionally or recklessly applies unlawful force on another person.

Something (the defendant or an object) must make contact with the victim’s body and the contact must be unwanted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a defence to assault and battery?

A

Consent.
Circumstances include surgery, tattoos and piercings, religious practices (circumcision etc.), sports (so long as actions not too far out the rules of the sport), sex acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Elements to prove assault occasioning actual bodily harm? (s. 47 Offences Against the Person Act 1861)

A

To be proven all elements of assault or battery must be proved as well as causation and actual bodily harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Elements to prove wounding or causing grievous bodily harm? (s. 20 Offences Against the Person Act 1861)

A

Requires proof of intention to cause some harm or recklessness regarding the risk of causing some harm.

Level of harm is higher for GBH than ABH e.g. break both layers of skin or causing long period of unconsciousness.

Intent – intent to cause some harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Elements to prove wounding or causing grievous bodily harm with intent? (s. 18 Offences Against the Person Act 1861)

A

Requires same type of injury as under s20 wounding or causing grievous bodily harm but also requires proof of intent to cause serious bodily harm or intent to resist lawful apprehension when a risk of some harm is foreseen i.e. recklessness not sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is theft? (s. 1 Theft Act 1968)

A

Person dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it.

Doesn’t matter if appropriation is made with a view to gain, or is made for the thief’s own benefit.

Dishonesty measured by an objective standard = whether a reasonable and dishonest person would think the defendant’s action was dishonest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What classes as theft for co-owned property?

A

Person can commit theft by appropriating property they co-own with another person or misapplying property they hold in trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does borrowing property class as theft?

A

If person intends only to borrow property (even without permission) then the mens rea for theft isn’t met as intent to permanently deprive is missing.
Intent is tested at the time of taking so if takes something with intent to keep then changes their mind and returns it theft still occurred.

If someone borrows something, then decides to keep it the theft arrives at the time they decide to keep it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In definition of s1 theft how is dishonesty measured?

A

By an objective standard = whether a reasonable and dishonest person would think the defendant’s action was dishonest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is robbery? (s. 8 Theft Act 1968)

A

If steals, and immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, uses force on any person or puts or seeks to put any person in fear of being subject to force then and there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If guilty of robbery, or of an assault with intent to rob what is the maximum penalty?

A

Imprisonment for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What proof do both types of s9 burglary require?

A

Proof that the defendant entered the building or part of the building as a trespasser.

Note this includes entering through open window and opening an unlocked door etc. also includes going into part of the building without permission and remaining in a building beyond the time permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Burglary by trespass with intent? (s. 9 Theft Act 1968)

A

Entering building with intent to steal anything inside the building, inflict GBH on anyone in the building and cause criminal damage to the building or anything inside the building.

Note: doesn’t matter if defendant actually did these things after entering the crime is committed if intention to do so at the time of entry and the crime is committed on entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Burglary by offence following trespassory entry? (s. 9 Theft Act 1968)

A

If the defendant actually stole or attempted to steal something from the building and inflicted or attempted to inflict GBH on any person within the building. For this the crime is committed when commits one of the above rather than on entry.

Note: committing criminal damage not included in this type of offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If guilty of burglary what is the maximum penalty?

A

If the offence committed on a dwelling can be liable to imprisonment for up to 14 years otherwise up to 10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is aggravated burglary? (s. 10 Theft Act 1968)

A

committing burglary while having a firearm, imitation firearm, explosive, or any item adapted or intended to cause injury (for example a screwdriver can count if brought to stab people).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If guilty of aggravated burglary what is the maximum penalty?

A

Imprisonment for life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is simple criminal damage?

A

Person without lawful excuse destroys or damages property belonging to another either intending to do so or being reckless as to whether the property is destroyed or damaged.

Note: Damage can be slight including damage that is easily fixed e.g. painting pavement with water soluble paint, can be basis for the offence of criminal damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Can it be simple criminal damage if own part of property?

A

Yes damage to property that is co-owned by the person causing the damage and another can be the basis of the offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are defences to simple criminal damage?

A
  1. consent or reasonable belief that the owner would have consented e.g. breaking down door to put out a fire; or
  2. destruction of someone else’s property to protect your own property
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is aggravated criminal damage?

A

Similar to simple criminal damage but the property can belong to the defendant alone and the defendant must intend to endanger life or be reckless with regard to endangerment (whether or not life was endangered).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are defences to aggravated criminal damage?

A

Defences used for simple criminal damage are not applicable to aggravated criminal damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is arson?

A

Criminal damage by fire. Fire must cause the damage, if is smoke damage is criminal damage not arson.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What conditions must be met for offence of murder to be met?

A

Offence of murder requires proof that the defendant caused the death of another human being unlawfully and with intention to kill or cause GBH.

Note: If the defendant did not want to kill their victim but hurt them badly can still be guilty of murder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When can voluntary manslaughter be used?

A

If prosecution proves the elements of murder the defendant can raise certain partial defences which will reduce the offence to voluntary manslaughter. The two most common are diminished responsibility and loss of control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

If someone kills another person without the intent to kill or cause GBH can still be liable for involuntary manslaughter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are two common types of involuntary manslaughter?

A

Unlawful act manslaughter and manslaughter by gross negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is unlawful act manslaughter?

A

Defendant commits a criminal offence that carries an objective risk to the victim who dies as a result. The act must be intentional, unlawful, dangerous and the cause of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is manslaughter by gross negligence?

A

Where the defendant didn’t commit an offence or knowingly take a risk but acted in an extremely negligent way.

The defendant must have breached a duty of care owed to the victim under circumstances in which there’s an obvious risk of death and the breach of duty must have caused the death. For example an anaesthetist failing to notice that their patient’s oxygen tube has become detached.

31
Q

What is fraud by false representation?

A

If person dishonestly makes a false representation and intend to make a gain for themselves or another or to cause or risk a loss to another.

False representation can be of a fact, law, intention or even of authority eg using a stolen card in ATM machine makes false representation to the machine or machine owner that there was authority to withdraw money.

Intentionally trying to mislead can be false representation for example placing replicas next to genuine antiques in a store and pricing them similarly.

Gain doesn’t need to be financial could be having person sit exam in someone’s place.

Gain doesn’t need to be realised ie offence is committed when representation made even if attempt to realise a gain from the representation fails.

32
Q

What is fraud by abuse of position?

A

Misuse of a post in which a person is expected to safeguard the financial interests of others. Requires intent to make a gain or cause or risk a loss to another.

33
Q

What is fraud by failing to disclose?

A

Failure to divulge information the person is under a legal or contractual duty to divulge in order to make a gain for themselves or another or to cause or risk a loss to another

34
Q

What is actus reus?

A

Physical act

35
Q

What is mens rea?

A

Mental state
This is intent for a number of crimes

36
Q

How can mens rea of intent be satisfied?

A
  1. Direct intention
  2. Indirect (oblique) intention
37
Q

What is direct intention?

A

Something that was the defendant’s aim or purpose

38
Q

What is indirect (oblique) intention?

A

the outcome was a virtual certainty and the defendant realised it was a virtual certainty. Can only be used for offences requiring specific intent e.g. GBH with intent. Offence of attempt is a specific intent offence even if offence attempted does not require specific intent.

39
Q

What does basic intent offence mean?

A

Offences which can be committed either intentionally or recklessly

40
Q

What is transferred malice?

A

If defendant has intention to commit an offence against one victim but inadvertently commits the offence against a different victim the intent is transferred to the new victim and mens rea requirement is satisfied.

41
Q

For transferred malice how can defendant be charged?

A

Can be charged and found guilty of completed offence against actual victim and attempted offence against intended victim.

42
Q

What must be true for transferred malice to apply?

A

offence intended is the same as the one committed

43
Q

What does crimes of recklessness require less culpability mean?

A

Defendant must subjectively foresee a risk from the act and continue regardless in all circumstances known to the defendant it must be an unreasonable risk to take (objective test).

44
Q

What does crimes which can be done negligently mean?

A

Conduct less culpable than recklessness.

Arise when defendant owed a duty of care and breached the standard of care expected

45
Q

Criminal offence usually requires concurrence, what does this mean?

A

Actus reas and mens rea to occur at the same time

46
Q

What is exception for concurrence?

A

A strict liability offence eg driving under the influence requires just the act not any mental state.

47
Q

When can omission to act be the basis for a criminal offence?

A

If defendant had a duty to act and breached that duty by failing to act sufficiently. Duty to act can be imposed by statute, close relationship (parent/child, doctor/patient), contract (railway and guards and passengers), defendant creating the dangerous situation.

48
Q

If crime is based on result i.e. murder requires victim to die then the defendant must have caused the result. What two tests must be satisfied?

A
  1. The but for test
  2. The legal cause test
49
Q

What is the but for test?

A

Result would not have occurred but for the defendant’s conduct

50
Q

What is the legal cause test?

A

Defendant’s action must be substantial (more than minimal, slight or trifling) and operative (another force didn’t intervene to break the causal chain).

Under the thin skull rule if the defendant caused more damage than would expect because victim has special vulnerabilities then chain not broken, victim can also refuse medical treatment on religious grounds without breaking chain of causation.

51
Q

What are two general defences?

A

Intoxication
Self-defence/defence of another

52
Q

What are two partial defences?

A

Diminished responsibility
Loss of control

53
Q

What must be present to use involuntary intoxication as a defence?

A

Involuntary intoxication can be a defence if it prevented the defendant from forming the mens rea for the crime charged. To be involuntary defendant must have become intoxicated through no fault of their own, note not knowing the strength of a substance doesn’t make the intoxication involuntary.

54
Q

What are rules for using voluntary intoxication after taking prescription medication as a defence?

A

This is considered intoxication by a non-dangerous substance and if intoxication negates the mens rea for the crime charged can be used as a defence.

55
Q

What are rules for voluntary intoxication if not after taking prescription medication as a defence?

A

Is considered intoxication through a dangerous drug:
* Cannot negate the mens rea of a basic intent offence which can be committed intentionally or recklessly e.g. grievous bodily harm under s20, actual bodily harm, battery, assault, criminal damage, arson;
* May negate the mens rea of a specific intent crime e.g. grievous bodily harm under s18, conspiracy, theft, robbery, burglary.

56
Q

When can self-defence/defence of another be a defence

A

If defendant acting to: protect themselves, another person or property; prevent a crime; or effect a lawful arrest.

Defendant must have subjectively believed that force was immediately required.

Amount of force must have been reasonable – based on facts defendant believed at the time. Reasonable has also been interpreted to mean proportionate.

57
Q

What is householder exception in self-defence/defence of another?

A

If intruder enters someone’s home the level of force deemed to be reasonable in self-defence is higher than in other circumstances. May use any force not grossly disproportionate or not so disproportionate to be unreasonable.

58
Q

What must defendant demonstrate for defence of diminished responsibility to be used?

A

Had an abnormality of mental functioning that arose from a recognised medical condition and the abnormality substantially impaired the defendant’s ability to:
* understand the nature of their conduct; or
* form a rational judgement; or
* exercise self-control.
Abnormality provides an explanation for the killing.

59
Q

What is the burden of proof for defence of diminished responsibility?

A

The burden of proof is on the defendant who must prove each element on the balance of probabilities.

60
Q

What must defendant demonstrate for defence of loss of control to be used?

A
  1. their role in the killing resulted from loss of self-control
  2. which was caused by a qualifying trigger of either
    a. fear of serious violence from the victim against the defendant or other identified person or
    b. thing(s) done or said which constituted circumstances of an extremely grave character and caused the defendant to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged
  3. a hypothetical person of the defendant’s age or sex might have reacted in the same way.
61
Q

What triggers are not sufficient for defence of loss of control to be used?

A

Revenge is not sufficient trigger and nor is sexual infidelity alone (but with taunting could be).

62
Q

What is the burden of proof for defence of loss of control?

A

If a judge is satisfied that there is sufficient evidence that elements of loss of control are made out then the prosecution bears the burden to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant did not lose control

63
Q

What does principal offender mean?

A

If two or more persons act together to commit an offence they may all be tried as principal offenders.

64
Q

What are the different acts where if do so for another in committing a crime may also be charged as a principal offender?

A
  • Aid = assisting or helping the commission of an offence
  • Abet = encouraging or inciting an offence
  • Counsel = advising or soliciting an offence
  • Procure = endeavouring to have someone commit the offence
65
Q

What intent is needed for principal offenders?

A

The participant must intend that the principal will commit the offence not enough to merely foresee the principal might commit an offence following assistance or encouragement.

66
Q

What must an accomplice or joint enterprise do?

A

Assist or encourage the commission of a crime and in this assistance or encouragement the participant intended to assist or encourage the commission of a crime committed by the principal.
The participant must intend the principal will commit the crime.

67
Q

What is an inchoate offences (or ‘incomplete offences’)?

A

Attempt to commit an offence – to be guilty must do something more than merely preparatory towards offence.

68
Q

In inchoate offences what are the rules for intent when the underlying crime can be committed recklessly?

A

Attempt of a crime requires the intent to commit the underlying crime even if the underlying crime can be committed recklessly.

For example a person who intends to cause actual bodily harm doesn’t have the mens rea for attempted murder.

69
Q

In inchoate offences what is the result of a physically impossible offence?

A

Can be guilty of attempt of an offence even if attempted to commit an offence that is physically impossible to complete.

70
Q

In inchoate offences what is the result of a legally impossible offence?

A

If is legally impossible to complete an attempt i.e. the activity attempted isn’t a criminal offence then cannot be guilty of attempt of the offence.

71
Q

What are the rules regarding being charged for completed offence and attempt (inchoate offences)?

A

If charged with completed offence can be held criminally liable for the completed offence or the attempt but not both. If only charge with attempt cannot be found guilty of the completed crime.

72
Q

What is conspiracy to commit a crime?

A

An agreement between two or more parties to carry out an offence. Conspiracy is a criminal act so crime need not be carried out.

73
Q

What are characteristics of conspiracy to commit a crime?

A
  • Minor or person who lacks capacity is incapable of agreeing to conspiracy so cannot conspire with them.
  • Spouses cannot conspire with each other if no other party involved
  • Proposed victim of an offence cannot be part of a conspiracy
  • Agreement can be conditional e.g. if the cashier resists giving us money we’ll kill her then this can be basis for charge of conspiracy to commit murder
  • As with attempt agreement to commit an act which is factually impossible can still be basis of charge of conspiracy but agreement to commit an act which is not a crime cannot be basis of conspiracy charge
  • Mens rea is the intent to form an agreement, defendant doesn’t need to know what they were agreeing to was a crime