Criminal Law LAST PUSH Flashcards

1
Q

Omission as an Act

A

the failure to act gives rise to liability only if:
(i) there is a legal duty to act
(ii) the defendant has knowledge of the facts giving rise to the duty to act; and
(iii) it is reasonably possible to perform the duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Legal Duty to Act Arises:

A

(1) by statute
(2) by contract
(3) relationship between parties
(4) voluntary assumption of care by defendant
(5) defendant created the peril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MPC Purposely

A

conscious object to engage in proscribed conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MPC Knowingly

A

awareness that conduct is of a particular nature or will cause a particular result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MPC Recklessly

A

consciously disregard a substantial and unjustifiable risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MPC Negligently

A

failure to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Transferred Intent Crimes

A

homicide, battery, and arson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Conspirary

A

(1) agreement between two or more persons
(2) an intent to enter into the agreement
(3) an intent by at least two people to achieve the objective of the agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Solicitation

A

asking, inciting, counseling, advising, urging, commanding, another to commit a crime with the intent that the person solicited commit the crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Attempt

A

act, done with the intent to commit a crime, that falls short of completing the crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter - Adequate Provocation Exists:

A

(i) it was provocation that would arose sudden and intense passion in the mind of an ordinary person, causing them to lose self control
(ii) defendant was in fact invoked
(iii) not sufficient time between provocation
(iv) defendant did in fact not cool off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Involuntary Manslaughter

A

a killing committed:
(i) with criminal negligence (reckless to substantial risk)
(ii) during commission of misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Battery

A

unlawful application of force to the person of another resulting in:
(a) bodily injury OR
(b) an offensive touching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Assault

A

either:
(1) the intentional creation of a reasonable apprehension in the mind of the victim of imminent bodily harm
(2) an attempt to commit a battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

False Imprisonment

A

unlawful confinement of a person without the person’s valid consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Kidnapping

A

unlawful confinement of a person that involves either:
(1) some movement of the victim or
(2) the concealment of the victim in a secret place

18
Q

Rape - Lack of Effective Consent

A

(1) intercourse is accomplished by actual force
(2) intercourse accomplished by threat of great and immediate bodily harm
(3) victim is incapable of consenting due to unconsciousness, intoxication, mental condition; OR
(4) victim is fraudulently caused to believe that the act is not intercourse

19
Q

Statutory Rape

A

carnal knowledge of a person under the age of consent

20
Q

Larceny

A

taking and carrying away of tangible personal property of another by trespass with the intent to permanently deprive

21
Q

Embezzlement

A

fraudulent conversion of personal property of another by a person in lawful possession of the property

22
Q

False Pretenses

A

obtaining title to personal property of another by an intentional false statement with intent to defraud the other

23
Q

Robbery

A

a taking of personal property of another from the other’s person or presence by force or threats of immediate death or physical injury with the intent to permanently deprive

24
Q

Extortion

A

the corrupt collection of a unlawful fee by an officer under color of office

25
Q

Receipt of Stolen Property

A

receiving possession and control of stolen personal property known to have been obtained in a manner constituting a criminal offense by another person with the intent to permanently deprive

26
Q

Forgery

A

making or altering of a false writing with intent to defraud

27
Q

Uttering a Forger Instrument

A

(1) offering as genuine, (2) an instrument that may be the subject of forgery and is false, (3) with intent to defraud

28
Q

Burglary

A

a breaking and entering of a dwelling of another at nighttime with the intent to commit a felony in the structure

29
Q

Arson

A

the malicious burning of the dwelling of another

30
Q

M’Naughten Rule

A

a defendant is entitled to acquittal if:
(1) a disease of the mind
(2) caused by a defect of reason
(3) such that the defendant lacked the ability at the time of their actions to either know the wrongfulness of their actions or understand the nature and quality of their actions

31
Q

Irresistible Impulse Test

A

entitled to acquittal if because of a mental illness, they were unable to control their actions or conform their conduct to the law

32
Q

Durham Test

A

a defendant is entitled to acquittal if the crime was the product of their mental illness

33
Q

ALI or MPC Test

A

a defendant is entitled to acquittal if they had a mental disease or defect and as a result they lacked the substantial capacity to: (1) appreciate the criminality of their conduct or (2) conform their conduct to the requirements of the law

34
Q

Use of Deadly Force

A

a person may use deadly force in self defense if the person:
(1) is without fault
(2) is confronted with unlawful force and
(3) reasonably believes that they are threatened with imminent death or great bodily harm

35
Q

Retreat Minority View Exceptions

A

(1) the attack is in the victims own home
(2) the attack occurs while the victim is making a lawful arrest or
(3) the assailant is in the process of robbing the victim

36
Q

Right of First Aggressor to use Self Defense

A

(1) they effectively withdraw from the confrontation and communicate to the other their desire to do so OR
(2) the victim of the initial aggressor suddenly escalates the minor fight into a deadly altercation and the initial aggressor has no chance to withdrawal

37
Q

Prejury

A

intentional taking of false oath in regard to a material matter in a judicial proceeding

38
Q

Subornation of Perjury

A

procuring or inducing another to commit perjury

39
Q

Bribery

A

at common law was the corrupt payment or receipt of anything of value for official action

modern: it may be extended to nonpublic officials, and either the offering of a bribe or the taking may constitute a crime

40
Q

Compounding a Crime

A

agreeing for valuable consideration not to prosecute another for a felony or to conceal the commission of a felony or the whereabouts of a felon

41
Q

Misprision of a felony

A

common law: failure to disclose knowledge of the commission of a felony or to prvent the commission of a felony

modern: no longer a crime