Criminal Law And Procedure - Knowledge Set Flashcards
Some constitutional rights applicable in criminal cases are offense specific (i.e., when invoked, they apply only to the specific charge for which they were invoked), and some are not offense specific (i.e., once invoked, they apply to all charges against the defendant and not just the charge for which they were invoked). Which of the following statements is correct regarding whether the Fifth and Sixth Amendments are offense specific?
A Neither the Fifth Amendment nor the Sixth Amendment is offense specific.
B The Fifth Amendment is not offense specific, but the Sixth Amendment is offense specific.
C The Fifth Amendment is offense specific, but the Sixth Amendment is not offense specific.
D Both the Fifth Amendment and the Sixth Amendment are offense specific.
B
The correct choice is that the Fifth Amendment is not offense specific, but the Sixth Amendment is offense specific. Thus, if a defendant invokes his right to counsel, under the Fifth Amendment the police cannot interrogate the defendant about any charge without counsel. But under the Sixth Amendment, the defendant can be interrogated regarding a different charge. The difference is significant when a defendant requests counsel after being charged and is put into a cell with an informer. The Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies to any post-charge interrogation—whether or not the defendant knows he is being interrogated by a government agent. The Fifth Amendment right to counsel, on the other hand, applies only when the defendant knows that he is being interrogated by a government agent. Thus, an undercover informer in the defendant’s cell can question the defendant about anything without violating his Fifth Amendment right to counsel, and under the Sixth Amendment, the informer can question the defendant about any crime but the one with which he is charged. Therefore, if the cellmate informer questions the defendant and obtains information regarding a crime different from the one with which the defendant was charged, the questioning violates neither the Fifth nor the Sixth Amendment.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.C.3. Offense Specific
In criminal cases, certain rights may be waived. Which of the following statements is correct regarding waiver of the right to counsel under the Fifth and Sixth Amendments?
A Neither the Fifth nor Sixth Amendment right to counsel can be waived, because the rights provided by each are fundamental to a fair trial.
B The Fifth Amendment right to counsel may be waived by a knowing and voluntary waiver, but the Sixth Amendment right cannot be waived.
C The Fifth and Sixth Amendment right to counsel may each be waived by a knowing and voluntary waiver.
D The Sixth Amendment right to counsel may be waived by a knowing and voluntary waiver, but the Fifth Amendment right cannot be waived.
C
The correct choice is the Fifth and Sixth Amendment right to counsel may each be waived by a knowing and voluntary waiver. Whether a waiver is knowing and voluntary is judged by a totality of the circumstances. Note that as to the Fifth Amendment, if a defendant is given Miranda warnings (e.g., notice of a right to counsel and to remain silent) and chooses to speak, the court usually will find a valid waiver. Indeed, to exercise the Fifth Amendment right to counsel, the defendant must make an unambiguous and specific request for counsel. Words like “Maybe I should talk to a lawyer,” do not equal a request to do so. Note also that the Supreme Court has held that waiver of the Sixth Amendment right to counsel does not require the presence of counsel, unless the defendant had already requested counsel.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.C.4. Waiver and III.D.3.b. Waive Rights
Which of the following statements is true about the right to remain silent under Miranda?
A A detainee may invoke the right to remain silent by not saying anything after being given Miranda warnings.
B If the detainee invokes the right to remain silent, all questioning must cease unless and until the defendant reinitiates questioning.
C The right to remain silent can be waived only in the presence of the detainee’s attorney.
D The police may reinitiate questioning if they scrupulously honor a request to remain silent.
D
The police may reinitiate questioning if they scrupulously honor a request to remain silent. The Supreme Court has allowed the police to reinitiate questioning where: (i) the police ceased questioning immediately upon the detainee’s request and did not resume questioning for several hours; (ii) the detainee was given a fresh set of Miranda warnings; and (iii) the questioning was limited to a crime that was not the subject of the earlier questioning. It is not true that if a detainee invokes the right to remain silent, all questioning must cease unless and until the defendant reinitiates questioning. As discussed above, the police may reinitiate questioning about a different crime after several hours and rewarning the detainee. If a detainee is given Miranda warnings and says nothing, he has not invoked the right to remain silent. The right to remain silent must be explicitly invoked. If the detainee does not explicitly state that he wishes to remain silent, the police may continue to question the detainee. It is not true that the right to remain silent can be waived only in the presence of the detainee’s attorney. While a detainee has a right to an attorney, he may waive the right and decide to talk on his own.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.D.3.c. Right to Remain Silent
Which of the following statements is true about the effect at trial of the Miranda rules?
A A confession obtained in violation of Miranda may be used to impeach the defendant’s testimony.
B A question at trial about the defendant’s silence during an interrogation results in a mistrial.
C A defendant’s silence after receiving Miranda warnings may be used to counter an insanity defense.
D If the police intentionally fail to give Miranda warnings, any statement obtained directly from the violation cannot be used at trial, but other evidence derived from such statements may be used.
A
A confession obtained in violation of Miranda may be used to impeach the defendant’s testimony if the defendant takes the stand at trial and the confession was otherwise voluntary. However, the confession is not admissible in the state’s case in chief as evidence of guilt, and a truly involuntary confession (e.g., one obtained through torture) is never admissible for any purpose. A question at trial about the defendant’s silence during an interrogation might NOT result in a mistrial. A mistrial can be avoided if the admission was a harmless error. A single question may be harmless error if it is followed by an objection from the defense, sustained by the judge, and then the jury is instructed to disregard the question. A defendant’s silence after receiving Miranda warnings may NOT be used to counter an insanity defense. (The prosecution’s claim would be, how insane could the defendant have been? He understood well enough to remain silent after being told that anything he says can be used against him in court.) The warnings carry an implicit assurance that silence will carry no penalty. If the police intentionally fail to give Miranda warnings, the fruit of an interrogation may NOT be used at trial. Following an intentional failure by the police to give a detainee his Miranda warnings, if he gives the police information that leads to nontestimonial evidence, it will be suppressed. If the failure to warn was not intentional, however, the evidence will probably not be suppressed.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.D.4. Effect of Violation
Miranda warnings are required as a prerequisite to the admissibility of confessions resulting from custodial police interrogation. Which of the following statements is true about the custody requirement under Miranda?
A In considering whether a person was in custody during an interrogation, a court will consider the person’s experience with the criminal justice system.
B For Miranda purposes, a person may be in custody in his own home.
C For Miranda purposes, a voluntary detention may constitute custody.
D Whether a person is in custody depends on the subjective views of the person and the interrogator.
B
For Miranda purposes, a person may be in custody in his own home. Whether a person is in custody depends on whether his freedom of action is denied in a significant way. This is an objective test—whether a reasonable person under the circumstances would think that he is in custody. For example, if police officers handcuff a suspect in his own home, he is clearly in custody. Similarly, if they surround a person in the middle of the night in his own bedroom, awaken him, and begin questioning him, custody will be found. It is not true that custody depends on the subjective views of the person and the interrogator. As discussed above, the test is objective—what a reasonable person would think. Similarly, the courts will not consider a person’s experience with the criminal justice system in determining custody. This is a subjective factor. Neither is it true that a voluntary detention may constitute custody. If a person consented to the detention, he has not been denied the requisite freedom of action; he is there by choice.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.D.2.b. Custody Requirement
If a detainee requests the presence of counsel at an interrogation under Miranda:
A The prohibition against questioning the detainee ends immediately after he is released.
B The request must be clear to the police officer present.
C The police may continue to interrogate if the request is ambiguous.
D The request can be met by halting the interrogation to allow the detainee to consult with counsel and reinitiating the interrogation once counsel leaves.
C
If a detainee requests the presence of counsel at interrogation, under Miranda the police may continue to interrogate if the request is ambiguous. Once a detainee has expressed an unequivocal desire for counsel, all questioning must cease. However, when the request is ambiguous, the police may continue to interrogate until the detainee gives an unambiguous request. The police may also ask clarifying questions when the request is ambiguous. It is inaccurate to state that the detainee’s request for the presence of counsel must be clear to the police officer present. The test is objective—the request must be sufficiently clear that a reasonable police officer in the same situation would understand the statement to be a request for counsel. Following a request for the presence of counsel by a detainee, the prohibition against questioning the detainee does NOT end immediately after he is released. Instead, the prohibition lasts the entire time the detainee is in custody for interrogation, plus 14 more days after the detainee returns to his normal life. After that point, the detainee may be questioned about the same matter upon receiving a fresh set of Miranda warnings. Finally, if there has been a request for counsel, it is not enough for the police merely to halt the interrogation to allow the detainee to consult with counsel and then reinitiate the interrogation once counsel leaves. Mere consultation with counsel prior to questioning does not satisfy the right to counsel; the police cannot resume questioning the detainee in the absence of counsel.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure III.D.3.d. Right to Counsel
In a criminal proceeding, the fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine provides that:
A not only must illegally obtained evidence (i.e., the “tree”) be excluded at trial, but also all evidence obtained or derived from exploitation of that evidence (i.e., the “fruit”)
B illegally obtained evidence (i.e. the “tree”) must be excluded at trial, but evidence obtained or derived from exploitation of that evidence (i.e., the “fruit”) is admissible
C evidence that a person has performed bad acts in the past (i.e., the “tree”) can be introduced at trial to show a proclivity for committing the present criminal act (i.e., the “fruit”)
D evidence that a person has performed bad acts in the past (i.e., the “tree”) cannot be introduced at trial to show a proclivity for committing the present criminal act (i.e., the “fruit”)
A
The fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine provides that not only must illegally obtained evidence be excluded at trial, but also all evidence obtained or derived from exploitation of that evidence. There are exceptions to the rule (e.g., when officers rely in good faith on a facially valid search warrant; when seeking to impeach trial testimony), and the rule generally applies only at criminal trials (i.e., it does not apply at civil proceedings or parole proceedings); neither does it apply to violations of agency rules or state laws. The choice indicating that evidence obtained or derived from exploitation of illegally obtained evidence is admissible is the opposite of the exclusionary rule. The choices regarding evidence that a person has performed bad acts in the past are based on an evidence law concept. Generally, evidence of prior bad acts cannot be used to imply that the defendant acted improperly in the case being tried due to concerns of relevance and undue prejudice and confusion. In any case, these choices do not reflect what is commonly called the “fruit of the poisonous tree” doctrine in the lexicon of criminal procedure.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure V.A.2.a. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
The probable cause to arrest standard requires that a police officer have __________ of reasonably trustworthy facts and circumstances sufficient to warrant a reasonably prudent person to __________ that the suspect has committed or is committing a crime for which arrest is authorized by law.
A Personal knowledge; believe beyond a reasonable doubt
B Knowledge; believe
C Personal knowledge; believe
D Knowledge; believe beyond a reasonable doubt
B
The best statement of the probable cause requirement is the officer must have knowledge (but not necessarily personal knowledge) of reasonably trustworthy facts and circumstances sufficient to warrant a reasonably prudent person to believe that the suspect has committed or is committing a crime for which arrest is authorized by law. This is a totality of the circumstances test, and a police officer’s training and experience can come into play. The choices indicating that the officer must have personal knowledge of the facts are incorrect; the officer can base the decision on reliable “tips” from others, on a police report, on a police radio broadcast, or the like. The choices indicating that the officer must believe beyond reasonable doubt that the suspect is committing or has committed a crime are incorrect because the standard is too onerous; it is sufficient that a reasonable person would believe that a crime has been or was being committed.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.B.2.a. Probable Cause Requirement
If the police do not have probable cause to make an arrest, which of the following statements best reflects their ability to stop a person for investigatory purposes?
A The police may stop a person for investigatory purposes as long as they have at least a scintilla of suspicion.
B The police may not stop a person for investigatory purposes absent probable cause to arrest.
C The police may stop a person for investigatory purposes if they have at least reasonable suspicion to investigate based on articulable facts.
D The police may not stop a person for investigatory purposes absent probable cause to investigate.
C
The statement that the police may stop a person for investigatory purposes if they have at least reasonable suspicion to investigate based on articulable facts reflects the correct standard for making an investigatory stop, also known as a Terry stop. Such stops should be brief and for no longer than necessary to verify or refute the officer’s suspcion. Reasonable suspicion requires less than probable cause, but more than a vague notion or gut feeling. The suspicion can be based on personal observation, reliable tips, police flyers, a bulletin, or the like. Whether the standard is met is judged under the totality of the circumstances. The choices indicating that the police may not stop a person for investigatory purposes absent probable cause are both incorrect, because, as indicated above, probable cause is not required. Reasonable suspicion is sufficient. Moreover, the choice requiring probable cause to arrest also is incorrect because a stop can be made for suspicion of criminal activity; investigatory stops are not limited to cases where the police already believe an arrest is warranted. It is not correct that the police may stop a person for investigatory purposes as long as they have at least a scintilla of suspicion, because a scintilla is a very small amount. The scintilla of proof standard is too little suspicion to satisfy the Fourth Amendment requirement that searches and seizures be reasonable. It is sometimes used as the standard for determining whether a case may be taken from a jury and decided on a motion for summary judgment (i.e., if there is a scintilla of evidence regarding a material issue, the case should not be taken from the jury).
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.B.3.a. Investigatory Detentions (Stop and Frisk)a
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ability of police officers to stop automobiles for investigatory purposes?
A The police may stop an automobile for investigatory purposes without cause because automobiles are not areas protected by the Fourth Amendment.
B The police may not stop an automobile for investigatory purposes unless they have probable cause to believe that the driver has broken a law.
C The police may not stop an automobile for investigatory purposes unless they have reasonable suspicion that the driver has broken a law.
D The police may stop automobiles for investigatory purposes even without reasonable suspicion if they make the stops on a neutral, articulable basis to investigate a problem closely related to the mobility of automobiles.
D
It is true that the police may stop automobiles on a neutral, articulable basis to investigate a problem closely related to the mobility of automobiles. Generally, to make an investigatory stop of an automobile, the police must have at least reasonable suspicion that the driver or an occupant violated or was about to violate some law (i.e., the normal Terry standard). However, the Supreme Court has recognized that the mobility of automobiles can cause special problems, and allow the police to set up roadblocks to stop automobiles even without individualized suspicion to investigate these problems. A good example would be a roadblock that stops every car to determine whether the drivers are intoxicated. The police do not need to have probable cause to believe that the driver has broken the law to stop an automobile for investigatory purposes, because automobiles can be stopped on reasonable suspicion or even without any individualized suspicion, as discussed above. The police do not need to have even reasonable suspicion that the driver has broken the law to stop an automobile for investigatory purposes. First, the driver is not the only possible object of reasonable suspicion. And second, as discussed above, automobiles can be stopped even without any individualized suspicion, to investigate a problem closely related to automobiles and their mobility, as long as the stops are made on a neutral and articulable basis. The choice indicating that automobiles are not areas protected by the Fourth Amendment is incorrect. The Fourth Amendment protects people rather than places. And the courts have held that people do have a privacy interest (albeit a diminished one) when in their automobiles and are protected by the Fourth Amendment.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.B.3.b. Automobile Stops
For Fourth Amendment purposes, which of the following people is LEAST likely to be found to have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place searched?
A A person who came to the premises that were searched to buy illegal drugs.
B A person who owns the premises that were searched but does not live there.
C A person who lives in the premises that were searched but does not own it.
D A person who was an overnight guest at the place searched.
A
The Supreme Court has held that a person who was on the premises that were searched to buy illegal drugs does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the premises. A claim that a search violated the Fourth Amendment can be raised only by a person who has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the place searched. The Supreme Court has held that a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy any time she owns the place that was searched or has a right to possession of it; whether or not she lives there would not affect this interest. The Court has also held that if the place searched is the person’s home, then she has a reasonable expectation of privacy, regardless if she owned or had a right to possess it. Finally, the Supreme Court has held that an overnight guest at the place searched also has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the premises for Fourth Amendment purposes.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.C.3. Physical Intrusion into Constitutionally Protected Area or Violation of Reasonable Expectation of Privacy
The search incident to arrest exception to the warrant requirement applies:
A Only if the police fear for their safety
B After any constitutional arrest
C After any arrest, even if the arrest itself is unconstitutional
D Only if the arrest is for a felony crime
B
The police may conduct a search incident to arrest after any constitutional arrest. The Fourth Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures. Generally, for a search to be valid, it must be pursuant to a warrant issued by a neutral and detached magistrate and based on probable cause to believe that seizable evidence or fruits of a crime will be found on the premises to be searched. However, searches incident to arrest are an exception to the general rule. The choice that this search can be made after any arrest, even if it is unconstitutional is wrong. The police may conduct a search incident to an arrest whenever they arrest a person, even if the arrest is invalid under state law, as long as the arrest was constitutionally valid (e.g., reasonable and based on probable cause). Although the exception is based on safety concerns, the Supreme Court has held that it is not necessary that the police fear for their safety for a warrantless search to be conducted following an arrest. The search may be conducted incident to arrest in any case, as long as it is conducted contemporaneously with the arrest. It is not true that the exception applies only in the case of felony arrests. As discussed above, the exception applies after any lawful arrest.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.C.5.a. Search Incident to a Lawful Arrest
Under the plain view exception to the warrant requirement, which of the following is NOT required?
A The police must be legitimately on the premises where the item is found.
B The item must be evidence, contraband, or a fruit or instrumentality of a crime.
C The police must have inadvertently discovered the item.
D It must be immediately apparent that the item is evidence, contraband, or a fruit or instrumentality of a crime.
C
For the warrantless seizure of an item under the plain view exception, it is not required that the item be inadvertently discovered. Formerly, this exception to the warrant requirement applied only if the item was inadvertently discovered. Inadvertence, however, is no longer a requirement. To make a warrantless seizure, the police (i) must be legitimately on the premises where the item is found; (ii) the item must be evidence, contraband, or a fruit or instrumentality of a crime; (iii) the item must be in plain view; and (iv) it must be immediately apparent (i.e., probable cause) that the item is evidence, contraband, or a fruit or instrumentality of a crime.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure II.C.5.c. Plain View
What separates voluntary manslaughter from murder is:
A The killing is “caused” by the commission of a felony
B The killing is “caused” by the commission of a crime not amounting to a felony
C The lack of express malice
D Adequate provocation
D
A killing committed under adequate provocation is voluntary manslaughter. A killing committed during the commission of an unlawful act not amounting to a felony is involuntary manslaughter. Committing a felony that results in death is murder. The intent to commit a felony satisfies the malice requirement to classify a killing as murder. A killing committed without express malice may be murder if malice is implied. “Malice aforethought” for common law murder can be satisfied by (i) the intent to kill; (ii) the intent to inflict great bodily injury; (iii) a reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life; or (iv) the intent to commit a felony. The intent to kill is deemed to be “express malice,” whereas, in the latter three, malice is implied. Although “implied,” the latter three states of mind also satisfy the malice requirement for common law murder.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure VII.C.2.b. Voluntary Manslaughter
Felony murder generally requires that:
A The killing be committed during the course of the felony, the felony must be independent of the killing, and the death must have been a foreseeable result of the felony
B The killing be committed during the course of the felony, the felony must be independent of the killing, and the defendant must have been convicted of the underlying felony.
C The killing be committed during the course of the felony, the death must have been a foreseeable result of the felony, and the defendant must have been convicted of the underlying felony
D The death must have been a foreseeable result of the felony, the felony must be independent of the killing, and the defendant must have been convicted of the underlying felony
A
To convict a defendant of felony murder, the prosecution must prove, beyond a reasonable doubt, that the defendant committed a felony (i.e., he is factually guilty of the felony). However, the defendant need not actually be convicted of the underlying felony if the statute of limitations for the felony has expired. The killing must take place while the felony is being committed. When the defendant reaches “a place of temporary safety,” the felony is deemed terminated. The felony must be independent of the killing (e.g., the felony of manslaughter cannot be the underlying felony for felony murder). Finally, most states require that the death must be a foreseeable result of the commission of the felony.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure VII.C.4. Felony Murder (and Related Matters)
In most states, murder is of the second degree, but the murder is of the first degree when:
A deliberation and premeditation can be shown, or the defendant acted “with a depraved heart”
B deliberation and premeditation can be shown, or the killing occurred during an enumerated felony
C “a depraved heart” can be shown
D the killing occurred during an enumerated felony, or the defendant acted “with a depraved heart”
B
In most states, murder is of the second degree unless deliberation and premeditation can be shown, or the killing occurred during an enumerated felony, in which case the murder is of the first degree. If neither can be shown, the killing will usually be second degree murder (unless the killing is downgraded to manslaughter based on adequate provocation). Depraved heart murder would ordinarily be second degree murder in most states.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure V.B.1.c. Defense to First Degree Murder, But Not Second Degree Murder
Which of the following is true regarding the provocation required to reduce murder to manslaughter?
A As long as the defendant was in fact provoked, it does not matter if an ordinary person would have been provoked under the circumstances.
B Whether the defendant had sufficient time to cool off is measured solely by an “ordinary person,” objective standard.
C The provocation must be such as to raise a sudden and intense passion in the mind of an ordinary person, and the defendant must have in fact been provoked.
D As long as an ordinary person would have been provoked, it does not matter whether the defendant was in fact provoked.
C
For reducing murder to manslaughter, the provocation must be such as to raise a sudden and intense passion in the mind of an ordinary person, and the defendant must have in fact been provoked. The provocation requirement for voluntary manslaughter has both objective and subjective elements. The provocation must be such that an ordinary person would have been provoked, and the defendant must have been so provoked. There are also objective and subjective elements as to the “cooling off” issue. If sufficient time elapsed between the provocation and the killing such that a reasonable person would have cooled off, or if the defendant in fact “cooled off,” a reduction to voluntary manslaughter is not available.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure V.B.1.c. Defense to First Degree Murder, But Not Second Degree Murder
Which of the following presents the strongest intervening event to relieve the defendant of homicide liability?
A The defendant stabs the victim; the victim commits suicide due to the resulting pain.
B The defendant stabs the victim, who is treated at a hospital. Due to negligent care, the victim contracts an infection and dies.
C The defendant stabs the victim; the victim refuses medical treatment and dies.
D The defendant stabs the victim, who is treated for two hours at a hospital. On his way home from the hospital, the victim is killed in an automobile accident.
D
The case where the defendant stabs the victim, who after being treated at the hospital, is killed in an automobile accident, is likely to present an intervening event sufficient to relieve the defendant of homicide liability. As a general rule, an intervening act will shield the defendant from liability if the act is a mere coincidence or is outside the foreseeable sphere of risk created by the defendant’s act. The automobile accident presents a case of a mere coincidence that is outside the foreseeable sphere of risk. It could be said that, but for the defendant’s act of stabbing the victim, the victim probably would not have been in an automobile accident. However, the connection between the stabbing and the automobile accident is too tenuous and unforeseeable to allow for homicide liability against the defendant. Acts by third parties that are within the foreseeable sphere of risk created by the defendant’s act will not be sufficient intervening acts to relieve the defendant of homicide. Unforeseeable risks, however, will be sufficient. Negligent medical care (as opposed to grossly negligent or intentional mistreatment) is not a sufficient intervening act to relieve the defendant of homicide liability. Acts by the victim, such as refusing medical care and committing suicide, generally will not be considered intervening acts.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure VII.C.5.c. Intervening Act
For the purposes of felony murder, the felony is deemed to terminate when:
A the defendant reaches a place of temporary safety
B the defendant leaves the scene of the felony
C the victim dies
D the last act required to complete the felony is committed
A
Deaths caused while fleeing a felony may also give rise to felony murder liability. Such liability, however, is generally terminated when the defendant reaches a place of temporary safety. Although the death of the victim is obviously required for a charge of felony murder, the felony is deemed to continue as to a fleeing felon until the felon reaches a place of temporary safety. It is conceivable that the felon may kill other individuals and thus be liable for multiple counts of felony murder. The completion of the felony, and leaving the scene of the felony, do not terminate potential felony murder liability. The felon may also be liable for deaths resulting from flight from the felony.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure VII.C.4. Felony Murder (and Related Matters)
Under common law, the elements of a conspiracy include:
A A written agreement between two or more persons, an intent to enter into an agreement, and an intent to achieve the objective of the agreement.
B An agreement between two or more persons, an intent to enter into an agreement, an intent to achieve the objective of the agreement, and completion of the crime originally agreed upon.
C An agreement between two or more persons, an intent to achieve the objective of the agreement, and completion of the crime originally agreed upon.
D An agreement between two or more persons, an intent to enter into an agreement, and an intent to achieve the objective of the agreement.
D
Under common law, the elements of conspiracy include an agreement between two or more persons, an intent to enter into an agreement, and an intent to achieve the objective of the agreement. The agreement between the parties need not be written. Although most states require some overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy for the crime of conspiracy to be complete, the crime agreed upon does not need to be completed for the conspirators to be guilty of conspiracy.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure IV.C. Conspiracy
The Wharton rule states that:
A If the crime requires two or more parties to commit it, there can be no conspiracy to commit the crime unless more parties take part in the crime than are necessary for its commission
B There can be no conviction for conspiracy if all parties with whom the defendant has conspired have been acquitted
C A conspiracy requires two or more “guilty minds”
D An overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy is required, but an act of mere preparation will suffice
A
If two or more people are necessary for the commission of the substantive offense (e.g., adultery, dueling, sale of contraband), the “Wharton rule” states that there is no crime of conspiracy unless more parties participate in the agreement than are necessary for the crime. Traditionally, there can be no conviction for conspiracy if all parties with whom the defendant has conspired have been acquitted. However, this is not a statement of the Wharton rule. At common law, a conspiracy requires two or more “guilty minds.” (The Model Penal Code and the modern trend is to follow a “unilateral approach” that requires only one guilty mind.) This is not, however, a statement of the Wharton rule. At common law, an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy is not required; however, this is not the Wharton rule.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure IV.C.1.a.4)c) Wharton-Type Problems
Which of the following describes sufficient intent to convict a defendant of an attempted crime?
A The awareness by the defendant that he is acting in a proscribed way and that any attendant circumstances required by the crime are present.
B The intent to perform an act and obtain a result that, if achieved, would constitute a crime.
C A reckless disregard of an obvious or high risk that a particular harmful result might occur from the conduct.
D The intent required for the completed offense.
B
The intent required for an attempted crime is the intent to perform an act and obtain a result that, if achieved, would constitute a crime. Note that regardless of the intent required for a completed offense, an attempt always requires a specific intent. The awareness by the defendant that he is acting in a proscribed way and that any attendant circumstances required by the crime are present more closely describes “general intent.” Attempt is a specific intent crime. A reckless disregard of an obvious or high risk that a particular harmful result might occur from the conduct more closely describes “malice.” Attempt is a specific intent crime.
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure IV.D.1. Intent
Traditionally, which of the following is a defense to solicitation?
A The solicitation could not have been successful due to actual circumstances.
B There was no overt act committed in furtherance of the solicitation.
C The solicitor is exempt from liability for the completed crime.
D The solicitor withdrew the solicitation.
C
The solicitor would have a defense if she could not be guilty of the intended crime because of a legislative intent to exempt her. It is not a defense that the solicitation could not have been successful due to actual circumstances surrounding the crime. (This is factual impossibility.) The culpability of the solicitor is measured by the circumstances as she believed them to be. It is generally not a defense that the solicitation has been withdrawn once it has been made. However, note that the M.P.C. recognizes renunciation as a defense if the defendant prevents the commission of the crime, such as by persuading the person solicited not to commit the crime. For solicitation, no overt act in furtherance of the solicitation is required. (An overt act is usually required for conspiracy.)
Recommended Activity: Read Criminal Law and Procedure IV.B.3. Defenses
Acting with probable cause, the police arrested a man in connection with the armed robbery of a liquor store. After being given Miranda warnings, the man confessed to the robbery but denied his involvement with several other recent armed robberies of businesses in the area. He was formally charged with the one robbery and put into a cell with a paid informant working undercover for the police. The informant had been instructed to find out what he could about the other robberies but not to ask any questions. The informant began talking about a convenience store robbery in which a bystander was shot and seriously injured by the robber, and he deliberately misstated how it happened. The man, unaware that his cell mate was an informant, interrupted to correct him, bragging that he knew what really happened because he was there, and proceeded to make incriminating statements about the robbery. The man was subsequently charged with armed robbery and attempted murder in the convenience store robbery.
At a motion-to-suppress hearing on that charge, if the man’s attorney moves to exclude the statements made to the informant, should the motion be granted?
A
Yes, because the informant deliberately elicited incriminating statements in violation of the man’s Sixth Amendment right to counsel.
B Yes, because the informant’s conduct constituted custodial interrogation in violation of the man’s Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination.
C No, because the man had not yet been charged with the robbery of the convenience store when he made the statements to the informant.
D No, because the informant’s conduct did not constitute interrogation.
C
The man’s motion should be denied because neither his Fifth nor Sixth Amendment rights were violated by the informant’s conduct. The Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies to all critical stages of a criminal prosecution after formal proceedings have begun, but does not apply in precharge custodial interrogations. Because this right is “offense specific,” the fact that the right to counsel has attached for one charge does not bar questioning without counsel for an unrelated charge. Because the man has not been charged with the convenience store robbery, his Sixth Amendment right to counsel has not been violated. The Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination requires Miranda warnings and a valid waiver before any statement made by the accused during custodial interrogation can be admitted. However, this requirement does not apply where interrogation is by an informant who the defendant does not know is working for the police, because the coercive atmosphere of police-dominated interrogation is not present. [Illinois v. Perkins (1990)] Because the man was not aware of the informant’s status, the informant’s conduct did not constitute a police interrogation. (A) is wrong despite the fact that the informant’s conduct may have been deliberately designed to elicit incriminating remarks. As discussed above, the man’s right to counsel did not attach for purposes of the convenience store robbery. (B) is incorrect because, as discussed above, the Miranda warnings need not be given before questioning by a cellmate working covertly for the police. (D) is incorrect because interrogation refers not only to express questioning, but also to any words or actions on the part of the police that the police should know are reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response from the suspect. Here, the informant, working for the police, made statements about the convenience store robbery that were intended to, and reasonably likely to, prompt a response from his cellmate. Hence, it is not the absence of “interrogation” that avoids the Miranda problem, but the fact that the man did not know that his cellmate was working for the police.