Criminal (law) Flashcards

1
Q

What are some strict liability offences?

A

Road traffic offences:
- speeding
- driving while disqualified
- drink driving

Health and safety offences:
- failure to ensure employee safety
- employing underage workers

Food safety offences:
- selling food unfit for human consumption
- selling alcohol to a minor

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2
Q

What is the course of conduct theory?

A

If there is a series of actions that lead to the actus reus, then provided the mens rea occurred at some point during that course of conduct, that will be sufficient

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3
Q

What is the continuous act theory?

A

If the actus reus is something that can be done over a period of time, it will be sufficient if, at some point during that time, the defendant had the required mens rea

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4
Q

What is assault?

A

Where a defendant intentionally or recklessly caused another person to apprhend (just need to believe/expect it to occur) immediate unlawful physical force

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5
Q

What does it mean that assault can be intended of reckless?

A

Intent = defendant intends the victim to apprehend

Recklessness = defendant foresees the risk that the victim will apprehend as a result of their acts (defendant must actually realise this)

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6
Q

What is a battery?

A

Where a defendant intentionally or recklessly applies unlawful physical force to another person

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7
Q

What can battery be caused by?

A

Act

Omission (e.g., defendant applies force accidentally without intent or recklessness but then refuses to remove the force)

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8
Q

What is the mens rea of reckless in relation to committing a battery?

A

Recklessness requires the actual recognition of a risk rather than it being obvious

Defendant needs to have actually recognised that there was a risk, and went on to take that risk needlessly

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9
Q

How can consent be given?

A

Expressly or by implication.

Must be given by someone with sufficient capacity / freedom / information to make an actual choice.

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10
Q

When will law not interfere with harm by consent?

A

If the harm is caused by actions just outside of the rules of the game

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11
Q

When will a person be guilty of a s.20 offence?

A

If they foresaw some harm as a result of their act at any point

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12
Q

When will a person be guilty of a s.18 offence?

A

When they have intended to cause grievous bodily harm

When they intended to resist or prevent the lawful apprehension of any person

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13
Q

What is Actual Bodily Harm?

A

An injury that interferes with the health and comfort of a victim

More than merely trifling

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14
Q

To carry out ABH, what must be proven?

A

That the defendant actually completed the act of hurting the person with the intention / recklessness as to causing unlawful physical force.

No need to prove that defendant intended to cause (or was reckless as to causing) any harm - enough to show that defendant intended to inflict unlawful physical force

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15
Q

What are some example of ABH?

A

Temporary loss of consciousness

Psychiatric injury

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16
Q

What is a wound?

A

An injury that breaks through both layers of the skin

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17
Q

What is grievous bodily harm + examples?

A

Really serious harm

  • broken bones
  • severe burns
  • severe bleeding
  • lengthy incapacitation
  • psychiatric harm
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18
Q

When does a person commit a murder?

A

If they:

  • cause the death of another human (not including foetus)
  • unlawfully
  • with an intention to kill or cause GBH
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19
Q

What must be shown for the mens rea element of murder?

A

Jury must be sure that death / serious harm was a virtually certain consequence of the defendant’s act and the defendant knew it was

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20
Q

If defendant is being prosecuted for murder but denies having the full mens rea, what can the jury conclude?

A

If the jury conclude that the defendant foresaw death / serious injury as a virtually certain consequence, they may conclude that defendant is guilty of murder

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21
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Where murder has happened but there are specific partial defences (diminished responsibility / loss of control) that lead to the offence being treated as manslaughter instead

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22
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

An unlawful killing, but where the full mens rea of manslaughter is not established (unlawful act manslaughter / gross negligence manslaughter)

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23
Q

What is unlawful act manslaughter?

A

Where defendant, with the relevant mens rea, commits a dangerous criminal act that carries an objective / obvious risk to the victim and they die as a result

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24
Q

What are the requirements for unlawful act manslaughter?

A
  1. Defendant intends the act (cannot be committed by omission)
  2. Act is unlawful
  3. Act is dangerous (no requirement for the defendant to have foreseen death / no need for harm or death to have reasonably foreseeable)
  4. Act causes victim’s death
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25
Q
A
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26
Q

What must the jury conclude to convict a person of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

That a reasonable person in the defendant’s position would have thought that their act created a risk of physical harm

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27
Q

What is gross negligence manslaughter?

A

Where defendant breaches a duty in such an extremely negligent way that they are deemed criminally culpable

There must be a serious and obvious risk of death (regardless of if defendant realises)

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28
Q

What are the requirements of an offence of gross negligence manslaughter to be committed?

A
  1. Duty of care to the victim
  2. Duty is breached and causes death
  3. There is a serious and obvious risk of death
  4. Breach is so bad that it gives rise to criminal liability
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29
Q

What does it mean that there must be a serious and obvious risk of death for gross negligence manslaughter?

A

At the time of breach, a reasonably prudent person in the same position as the defendant must have foreseen an obvious and serious risk of death

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30
Q

What are the requirements for diminished responsibility?

A
  1. Defendant was suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning
  2. Which arose from a recognised medical condition
  3. Which substantially impacted their ability to:
    - understand their conduct
    - form rational judgement
    - exercise self control
  4. This provides an explanation for the killing
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31
Q

What are the requirements for loss of control?

A
  1. Defendant’s role in killing resulted from a loss of self control
  2. The loss of self control was caused by a qualifying trigger
  3. A hypothetical person of the defendant’s age / sex might have reacted the same way
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32
Q

What is the fear trigger for loss of control?

A

Loss of control resulting from the defendant’s fear of violence against themselves

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33
Q

What is the anger trigger?

A

Where something is said to the defendant that:

  • constitutes circumstances of an extremely grave character (objective test)
  • makes them upset and angry
  • which causes the defendant to justifiably feel that they have been seriously wronged
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34
Q

For loss of control, how much must the defendant prove?

A

Defence must simply call sufficient evidence to raise the defence, then prosecution must prove beyond reasonable doubt that defendant did not lose control

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35
Q

What is automatism?

A

Where defendant loses control of their body due to an external cause

Complete defence

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36
Q

When is automatism not available?

A

Where defendant is at fault for allowing themselves to get into that condition

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37
Q

What is theft?

A

dishonest appropriation of property of another with intent to permanently deprive them of it

38
Q

What constitutes property for the purposes of theft?

A
  • money
  • intangible property
  • real property
  • personal property
39
Q

What does not constitute property for the purposes of theft?

A
  • electricity
  • confidential information
  • wildflowers
  • fruit
  • wild animals
40
Q

Can land and things attached to them be stolen?

A

No, except:

  • detached by trustee / trespasser / visitor
  • tenant taking fixtures or structures from a rental property
  • wild plants being picked for commercial purposes
41
Q

When is intent determined for theft?

A

Intent is determined at the time of appropriation, such that if there is coincidence of the actus reus and mens rea at this time, the offence is committed, even if the defendant changes their mind later and puts the item back

42
Q

What is the two-part test for dishonesty?

A
  1. Ascertain what facts the defendant knew (subjective)
  2. Judge whether the behaviour based on this knowledge was objectively dishonest
43
Q

What are the defences for dishonesty?

A

Person will not be dishonest where:

  • they believed that they have a right in law to the property

or

  • they believed that they would have had the owner’s consent or the owner cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps
44
Q

When is a robbery committed?

A

When

  • defendant commits theft
  • and immediately before or at the same time
  • they use force to put a victim / another person in fear of force
  • in order to steal
45
Q

What is force for robbery satisfied by?

A
  • the actual infliction of force
  • the causing of apprehension of force (threatening force)
  • the intention to cause the apprehension of force (e.g., using a fake gun, and victim knows it is fake, but defendant intended victim to apprehend)
46
Q

What is s9(1)(a) burglary?

A

Intentional based

Only requires intent

47
Q

What is s9(1)(b) burglary?

A

Action based (where an additional action was committed after trespassing)

48
Q

To be guilty of s9(1)(a) burglary, what mens rea must the defendant have had?

A

At the time of entry, defendant must have had:

  1. Intention to steal
  2. Intention to inflict GBH
  3. Intention to cause unlawful criminal damage

AND

  1. Knowledge that they are trespassing
49
Q

To be guilty of s9(1)(b) burglary, what actus reus must the defendant have committed?

A

after entry, defendant needs to:

  1. Steal or attempt to steal something from the building

OR

  1. Inflict or attempt to inflict GBH on any person in the building

(Criminal damage is therefore irrelevant)

50
Q

What does it mean that a defendant must enter the building?

A

Must enter the building as a trespasser

Defendant must know or be reckless as to the fact that they are a trespasser

51
Q

What does it mean for burglary to be committed on a building?

A

Building must be a structure with some degree of permanence

52
Q

When is burglary updated to aggravated burglary?

A

If the defendant has a weapon (made or adapted to cause injury) / firearm / explosive at the relevant time

Relevant time:

S9(1)(a) = time of entry
S9(1)(b) = time of committing the other offence

53
Q

What is fraud by false representation?

A

Where defendant / their agent dishonestly (objectively judged) makes a false/misleading impression, knowing it is false or misleading

54
Q

What is fraud by failing to disclose?

A

Where defendant fails to disclose information, and is dishonest in doing so

55
Q

What is fraud by abuse of position?

A

Being dishonest as to abusing a position in which a defendant is expected to safeguard the financial interest of another

56
Q

For all three fraud offences, what must the defendant have intended?

A

To cause a gain to himself / cause a loss to another and be dishonest in doing so.

Committed even if no loss has occurred

57
Q

What is basic criminal damage?

A

Where defendant, without lawful excuse, destroys or damages property belonging to another, intending to do so or being reckless as to whether the property is destroyed or damaged

60
Q

What is needed to prove recklessness as to damaging property belonging to another?

A

Requires that the defendant actually foresaw a risk of damage to property and that risk was taken unnecessarily

61
Q

When is property damaged?

A

When it’s usefulness or value is impaired

When it will invoke effort and expense to repair

62
Q

What does it mean that property must belong to another?

A

Person must have a proprietary interest in the property, and the defendant must know or believe that the property belongs to another

63
Q

What are the defences to basic criminal damage?

A
  1. Defendant believes (subjective) that the owner consented (belief must be honestly held)
  2. Destruction was for the purpose of protecting the property, and the property needed immediate protection (subjective), and the steps taken were reasonable in the circumstances (objective)
64
Q

What is aggravated criminal damage?

A

Defendant, without lawful excuse, destroys or damages property (can belong to defendant), intending to do so, or being reckless as to whether property is destroyed or damaged ALONGSIDE the intention or recklessness to endanger life by destruction/ damage

65
Q

What does is mean by endangering life for aggravated criminal damage?

A

Life does not actually need to be endangered, as long as defendant realised that they could be endangered by his act, and went on needlessly to take that risk

Must be the actual damage that endangers life, not the actions leading to it

66
Q

What is arson?

A

Criminal damage by fire

But damage by smoke ≠ arson, needs to have been actual fire

67
Q

What is abetting?

A

Instigating

Encouraging

Promoting

Putting under pressure

68
Q

What is aiding?

A

Helping

Assisting

69
Q

What is counselling?

A

Giving advice about how to commit the offence

70
Q

To be guilty of aiding / abetting / counselling, what must be shown?

A

Does not need to be proven that the secondary parties fully caused the result, but there must be some proof that the act had some connection with the resulting offence

71
Q

What is procuring?

A

Putting somebody under pressure

Tricking somebody

72
Q

What must be proven to be guilty of procuring?

A

A causative link between the secondary’s act and the principal’s offence

73
Q

For accessory liability, what mens and actus rea must the accessory have had?

A

Intention to help

+

Intention as to the consequence

+

Knowledge that it is an offence

Recklessness ≠ accessory liability

74
Q

What is an attempting offence?

A

Where a person does not commit the crime, but does something more than merely preparatory with the specific intent to commit the underlying offence

Offence must have been an indictable one

75
Q

Who decides whether an act is more than merely preparatory?

A

This is question of fact for the jury

76
Q

What is the mens rea for an attempting offence?

A

Intention to complete the full offence

77
Q

What is factual impossibility?

A

If the defendant attempts an offence which is physically impossible to complete

Liability can still arise

78
Q

What is the two stage approach for a defence of duress?

A
  1. Did the defendant have good cause to fear that if they did not so act, then the threatened would kill / cause serious injury to them / somebody close to them?

If yes

  1. Would a sober person of reasonable firmness sharing defendant’s characteristics have done the same?
79
Q

If a person has already formed the mens rea of an offence, then becomes intoxicated to carry out the offence, will they be guilty?

A

Yes, intoxication is irrelevant for this purpose

80
Q

What is involuntary intoxication?

A

If the state that the defendant has gotten into has rendered them unable to form the mens rea of the offence, then they are not guilty

If taking prescriptive medicine, court will look at whether they have followed prescriptive advice

81
Q

When is involuntary intoxication not available?

A

Where defendant has underestimated the strength of their own drink

82
Q

When is a person voluntarily intoxicated?

A

Where they chose to take intoxicants

Where they take an intoxicant and it has a greater effect then they realised

83
Q

What will the court consider for voluntary intoxication?

A

If the drug was dangerous

If the crime was of specific or basic intent

84
Q

To plead self defence, what must the defendant have been doing?

A
  • protecting themself
  • protecting another
  • protecting property
  • been trying to prevent a crime
  • effect lawful arrest
85
Q

What must the defendant have believed for self defence?

A

Defendant must believe that force was immediately required (subjectively assessed), and it must have objectively proportionate based on the facts that the defendant subjectively believes them to be

86
Q

What must the defendant establish for self defence?

A

That they genuinely believed that there was a necessity to use force (subjective), and that force was reasonable in the circumstances (objective)

87
Q

In householder cases, what level force can a defendant use to plead self defence?

A

Can use any degree of force as one as it is not grossly or unreasonably disproportionate

88
Q

What criteria must be established for a defendant to rely on householder self defence?

A

Defendant must:

  1. Not be a trespasser
  2. Believe that the victim is a trespasser

court will consider decisions were made in the heat of the moment

89
Q

What must be shown to rely on the defence of necessity?

A
  1. Act was required to avoid an inevitable evil
  2. Defendant only did what was reasonably necessary
  3. What the defendant inflicted was not disproportionate to what was avoided
90
Q

What must be shown for an effective withdrawal?

A

The defendant withdraw from the participation before the offence was completed