Criminal Law Flashcards

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1
Q

Mens Rea + actus reus

A

A crime consists of an actus res (act) + a mens rea (mental state) which together violate a criminal statute.

D must have intent at time of act.

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2
Q

Different mental states

A

CRIM K
C - criminally negligent: fail to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, where such failure is a substantial deviation from the standard of care.

R - reckless: conscious disregard a substantial and unjustifiable risk that circumstances exist or that a prohibited result will follow (must be a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in those circumstances).

I - intentional/purposeful: conscious object is to engage in conduct or cause a certain result

M - malicious (common law murder + arson - requires reckless disregard of high risk that particular harm will result)

K - knowing (w/ respect to conduct): when D aware that conduct is of a particular nature/certain circumstances exist; (w/ respect to results of conduct): when conduct will necessarily or very likely bring about a certain result.

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3
Q

Burden of proof? stages to challenge?

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt!

D may challenge People’s proof via:

  • motion for directed verdict
  • motion for acquittal
  • an appeal
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4
Q

accomplice liability

A

Pros must prove:

1) accomplice assisted principal in the crime; and
2) acted with a) the intent to assist the principal; and b) intent that the principal commits the offense.
* mere knowledge that a crime will take place = not enough

@ CL:

  • P in 1st degree -person who actually engaged in offense
  • P in 2nd degree - person who aided/advised P & present at crime
  • accessories before fact: persons who assisted prior but were NOT present
  • accessories after fact: persons who with knowledge felony was committed assists P in escape

Modern stats:

  • Principal: one who engages in the conduct
  • Accomplice: one who aids/advises/encourages P
  • Accessory after the fact: still treated separately

Exclusions from liability:

  • members of a protected class
  • necessary parties not provided for

Defense: withdrawal before crime becomes unstoppable/thwarting

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5
Q

SOLICITATION (specific intent)

A

an offer and rejection
-criminal solicitation is the offer to enter an illegal contract.

Guilty when, with specific intent that ANOTHER commits a crime, he solicits, encourages, . . . to cause another to engage in criminal conduct.

NOT DEFENSE: that person refused offer or lacked capacity to be charged with a crime (juvenile, insanity, undercover police officer)

Most states - merges to conspiracy once offer is accepted.
Can become attempt when co-conspirator takes a substantial step in commission of the crime.

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6
Q

CONSPIRACY

A

Agreement between two or more persons with the specific intent to commit a crime.
[conspiracy does not merge into completed crime; one can be convicted for both]
@ common law = no overt act required
@ modern statutes = require overt act in furtherance of the agreement (without specific lang, assume common law)

SCOTUS - a co-conspirator may be held criminally responsible for any and all reasonably foreseeable crimes committed in furtherance of the conspiracy by other conspirators. BUT under MPC approach, conspirator not liable for other co-conspirator’s crimes unless he sufficiently participated in those crimes to be an accomplice - EXCEPTION: BRAKERS felonies.

Co-conspirators do not have to know each other.

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7
Q

Common law conspiracy plurality agreement

A

No common law conspiracy if one party:

1) pretended to agree
2) was an undercover officer
3) was an infant or insane
4) was forced to agree

When one of two conspirators was acquitted, no common law crime of conspiracy - takes two to tango.

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8
Q

MPC unilateral conspiracy

A

Unilateral conspiracy theory - defines conspiracy as an agreement by D rather than between two people. Thus, D can be guilty if D agrees even though other party lacked capacity to form intent. Pros must prove:

1) D had specific intent that a crime be committed; and
2) D entered agreement to bring about the crime.

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9
Q

wharton rule for conspiracy

A

Where a crime cannot be completed unless two culpable people cooperate and the penal law punishes them both, there cannot be a conspiracy unless an additional conspirator is involved who was not essential to crime.

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10
Q

ATTEMPT

A

To intentionally try to commit a crime without success.

D cannot be guilty of the crime of attempted criminal negligence or a reckless conduct crime. Thus, there can be no crime of “attempted felony murder” or attempted involuntary (reckless) manslaughter.

  • Common law attempt: requires some activity beyond mere preparation.
  • MPC - D must take a substantial step toward the commission of the crime (e.g., lying in wait, searching for V, surveying the location of crime)

NOTE: D may be convicted for an attempted strict liability crime prohibiting conduct. Pros must prove D tried to have sex knowing V was underage and D was over 21 without success.

When D is successful, attempt merges to completed crime.
DEFENSE: legal impossibility, abandonment (MPC)
NOT A DEFENSE: factual impossibility, abandonment (at CL only)

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11
Q

HOMICIDE

A

One human being causes the death of another
Includes murder AND manslaughter.

If statute says that murder is a killing with malice aforethought, pros must prove:

1) D intended to kill
2) D intended to cause great bodily harm
3) D exhibited grave indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life
4) felony murder

ANY intentional killing without justification, excuse, or mitigation is a killing with malice aforethought

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12
Q

FIGS MAN

A

F - felony murder
I - intentional murder
G - D’s conduct created a grave risk of death/D aware of risk and consciously disregarded it by displaying a depraved indifference to human life (depraved heart murder)
S - serious bodily injury resulting in death

MAN - manslaughter (voluntary or involuntary)

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13
Q

Causation

A

Courts inquire whether D’s conduct was both:

1) factual cause (but for D’s conduct, V would not have been injured)
2) proximate cause (D’s conduct was a substantial factor in V’s death)

An act that hastens an inevitable result is still the legal cause of that result.

A foreseeable intervening cause does not break the causal chain (e.g., negligent medical care or V refused medical treatment). D will not be liable for crim conduct ONLY if an intervening act was so out of the ordinary that it is no longer fair to hold D criminally responsible.

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14
Q

Felony Murder

A

Felony murder usually is unintended homicide occurring during a dangerous felony (in attempt, during, or immediately after).

Felony deemed to end when D reaches “safe harbor.”

ACCOMPLICES ARE GUILTY FOR ANY DEATHS CAUSED DURING THE FELONY because death is considered a foreseeable proximate result of the underlying dangerous felony.

Majority: agency theory requires felons to proximately cause the accidental killing for a felony murder to occur.
Minority: proximate cause theory - felons liable for death of innocent Vs caused by someone other than co-felon

Dangerous felonies for felony murder: BRAKERS
B -burglary
R - robbery
A -arson
K - kidnapping
E - escape from policy custody after arrest
R - rape
S - criminal sexual assault

NOT dangerous felonies: LAB
L - larceny
A - assault
B - battery

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15
Q

Accomplice will not be guilty of felony murder if he is only a CUB

A

C - accomplice didn’t COMMIT, command, request homicide,
U - was UNARMED, and
B - had no reason to BELIEVE another co-conspirator was armed/intended to engage in conduct likely to result in death

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16
Q

Intentional Murder (first degree premeditated murder = specific intent)

A

D wanted V to die.

Majority - pros must prove D acted with “premeditation and deliberation,” “desired” to cause the death of another, and in fact caused the death of that person or a third (transferred intent).

  • “Deliberation” requires cool reflection to perform the criminal act.
  • “Premeditation” required a preconceived (deliberate) intent to kill.

Minority - no premed/delib. Murder simply defined as the intentional killing of another. For “intentional,” jury may consider the nature and circumstances of the act, what part of the body was attacked, whether a weapon was used.

Where D intentionally (not recklessly or negligently) used a deadly weapon and death results, jury may “infer” that D intended to kill.

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17
Q

Depraved Heart Murder

A

D creates and consciously disregards an unjustifiably, grave risk of death to his V (approaching a certainty of death); in disregarding, demonstrates a depraved indifference to the value of human life

Minority - do not recognize this type of murder –> instead, it is called reckless manslaughter or intentional murder.

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18
Q

intent to cause serious bodily injury resulting in death

A

D commits murder when she intends to cause serious bodily injury that results in the V’s death

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19
Q

Voluntary manslaughter

A

Where D commits intentional murder, but D’s intent arose under adequate provocation (circumstances of extreme emotional disturbance or in the heat or passion).

Mere insults are not sufficient provocation for manslaughter mitigation BUT adultery, aggravated battery, or serious criminal assault may be sufficient.

Words that are ABUSIVE AND INFORMATIONAL like “I screwed your wife” may be sufficient.

Imperfect self-defense: where D uses unreasonable force and causes a death, homicide is vol. manslaughter if D acted in the heat of passion.

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20
Q

Involuntary manslaughter

A

MAJORITY: Where D is aware of a substantial risk of death or bodily injury, but despite this knowledge the D proceeds to act and recklessly causes the death of another.

MINORITY: criminally negligent homicide as involuntary manslaughter - arises when D fails to perceive a substantial and unjustified high risk of death or serious bodily injury that a reasonable person would have been aware of.

For criminal negligence, the actor fails to perceive the risk; for reckless manslaughter the actor is aware of the risk and consciously disregards it.

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21
Q

Burglary

A

Common law burglary required an unconsented breaking and entering into another’s dwelling during the night with a specific intent to commit a felony therein. I BEND

I - intent to commit a felony therein
B - breaking (any force to remove a barrier to entry)
E - entering (where any part of D’s body enters premises)
N - nighttime
D - dwelling (MPC expands to any structure or vehicle used for overnight lodging or to carry on a biz)

Today:

  • criminal trespass (gen intent) is entering or remaining unlawfully on realty
  • burglary: criminal trespass (gen intent) + specific intent to commit a crime therein
  • Burglary is a crime against habitation so D can be convicted of Burglary AND the crime attempted or committed w/in the dwelling
  • MPC Affirm. Def: if building/structure was abandoned.
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22
Q

Arson

A

@ Common law: the malicious burning of a dwelling of another (reckless or intentional/not negligent)

Today, majority expanded arson to include any structure used for biz or for overnight lodging

Must be charring or burning (more than mere blackening)

most serious arsons - PIES
P - pecuniary motive for setting fire
I - incendiary device used
E - explosives used
S - someone seriously injured
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23
Q

Defenses

A

NICE MICE EVADE WASPS - affirmative defenses that must be proved by a preponderance of the evidence except for * which are ordinary defenses (negate element of charge)

N- necessity
I - infancy* (D under 7 or 18)
C - claim of title/claim of right*
E - excessively broad penal statute

M - mistake
I - insanity/intoxication
C - cub status for felony murder
E - extreme emotional disturbance

E - entrapment
V - vague crim statute
A - bill of attainder
D - duress
E - ex post facto law
W - withdrawal
A - alibi*
S - self defense/justification
P - heat of passion
S - SOL
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24
Q

Defense: claim of right

A

Asserted by a D, charged with a theft crime, who had an honest subjective good faith mistaken belief (even if unreasonable) that the property was his own or that he had the right to take it

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25
Q

Defense: Infancy

A

@ CL: infancy = complete defense for under 7 yr old
7-18 charged in juvenile court (rehab purpose; same DP rights as adults)

SCOTUS has held:

1) burden of proof in juvie pros required BARD
2) juvie entitled to counsel/miranda warnings/right to confront W/4A protections; NOT entitled to jury trial

SCOTUS has found that juvies are different - poor impulse control, greater capacity for rehabilitation
8A violation against cruel and unusual punishment for a court to impose:
1) death penalty for someone under 18 at the time of homicide
2) LWPP for a nonhomicide crime OR
3) mandatory LWPP for a homicide crime

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26
Q

Alibi

A

D charged as a principal first degree or aider/abettor accomplice (PEAS) can claim alibi. May raise a reasonable doubt as to D being at crime scene when crime occurred –> pros must prove D was there at the time. D must give Pros timely notice of W. Pros must serve notice of alibi rebuttal Ws.

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27
Q

Self Defense

A

D charged w violent crime but who claims act is justified in response to unlawful attack or threat of attack on D or TP.

Permits use of force that is reasonable under the circumstances to prevent immediate unlawful force/conduct of another.

To prove SD, D must show that he was (1) without fault; (2) is confronted with unlawful force; and (3) reasonably believes that he is threatened with imminent death or great bodily harm. Must also show that the amount of force used was necessary (excessive force is never justified).

“initial aggressor” jury charge: explains that the law denies D the right to assert justification if jury finds D was the first aggressor. May use force ONLY IF:

  • they effectively withdraw and communicate their desire to do so; or
  • V suddenly escalates the minor fight into a deadly altercation and IA has no chance to retreat
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28
Q

Deadly force in self defense

A

Deadly force = force readily capable of causing death or serious injury. Justified if D reasonably believed he or a TP was in imminent danger of serious injury or death.

MINORITY - no deadly force if D can retreat with complete safety, but no duty to retreat if:

1) D reasonably believed DF necessary to stop homicide or BRAKERS felony.
2) D was in his dwelling & D not initial aggressor
3) D threaten with a gun (since escape not safe)
4) D was police officer

NOTE: majority - stand your ground laws (apply deadly force beyond home) - D may use DF if D reas believes (even mistakenly) that he was in imminent danger of being killed/seriously injured; no duty to retreat.

29
Q

Duress

A

When D is faced with the threat of immediate death/serious injury to himself or a TP, and D chooses to commit a crime rather than suffer the immediate consequences of the threat.

Must show:

1) D did not intentionally/recklessly place himself in a situation where it was probable he would be forced to choose crim conduct; and
2) D had no reas alternative but to break law

AD to all crimes EXCEPT intentional homicide/attempted homicide.

30
Q

Withdrawal

A

When D has accomplices, D must effectively announce withdrawal to all accomplices to abandon crime.

MAJORITY - not avail for inchoate crimes, but effective for any post-withdrawal crimes committed by other accomplices.

MINORITY - MPC allows renunciation of anticipatory crimes if D thwarts the success of the substantive crime.

31
Q

Insanity

A

D not responsible for crimes committed while insane (gen & specific intent and SL crimes)

D presumed sane and has burden of proving otherwise by a preponderance of the evidence.

32
Q

M’Naghten Insanity Test

A

MAJORITY: D must prove that he was mentally ill and and that he lacked the total capacity to understand either the nature and quality of what he was doing or the wrongness of his actions.

33
Q

Heat of Passion (HOP)

A

May be raised only for intentional murder/mitigates crime from murder to vol manslaughter.

HOP arises from a temp. state of mind which so enraged/disturbed D that it overcame his judgment/caused him to act uncontrollably.

Requires proof:

1) subjective - D’s state of mind at the time of killing & sufficient evidence that his conduct was influenced by HOP (i.e. whether D actually snapped or is faking); and
2) objective - reasonableness of D’s explanation for losing control and whether a reasonable person would lose self control under the circumstances.

Timing - must be immediate reaction to provocation. No time to think/reflect. If any “cooling off” period, then D’s conduct is premeditated/intentional.

34
Q

Extreme Emotional Distress (EED)

A

May be raised only as defense to intentional murder - mitigates crime to voluntary manslaughter.

EED arises from a temp. state of mind which so enraged/disturbed D that it overcame his judgment/caused him to act uncontrollably.

Requires proof:

1) subjective - D’s state of mind at the time of killing & sufficient evidence that his conduct was influenced by EED (i.e. whether D actually snapped or is faking); and
2) objective - reasonableness of D’s explanation for losing control and whether a reasonable person would lose self control under the circumstances.

Scope/Timing: broader in scope than HOP/applies to wider range of circumstances; EED need not be a spontaneous reaction but rather required D to demonstrate that his mind was overwhelmed by an emotional disturbance at the time of homicide.

35
Q

ENTRAPMENT

A

Arises with clandestine crimes.

Two elements: 1) govt inducement (must be active) and 2) D’s lack of predisposition to engage in that conduct.

Arises where LE unfairly originates the criminal idea; proposes it to D; actively encourages the crime’s commission; and D if left alone would not have committed otherwise.

D has burden of proving by prep of evidence.
Pros has burden of disproving BARD D’s claim that he was not predisposed to commit the crime when first contacted by the govt (subjective test based on D’s state of mind). Govt may prove predisposition by:
1) D’s prior similar crim conduct;
2) willingness to commit crime shown by quick acceptance or
3) preexisting intent to commit the crime.

36
Q

Actus reus must be a voluntary affirmative act or a failure to act when there is a legal duty to act imposed

A

Non-voluntary acts: reflex, involuntary conduct, unconscious or asleep act

Omissions give rise to liability only if:
legal duty to act;
D has knowledge of the facts giving rise to the duty to act
it is reasonably possible to perform the duty

37
Q

Legal duty to act - 5 situations

A

1) by statute
2) by contract
3) the r/ship between parties
4) the voluntary assumption of care by D to V
5) D created the peril

38
Q

Specific intent crimes - imputed from the manner in which the crime was committed.

Students Can Always Fake A Laugh, Esp. for Ridic. Bar Facts

A

Qualify for additional defenses: voluntary intoxication, unreasonable mistake of fact.

Students Can Always Fake A Laugh, Esp. for Ridic. Bar Facts
S - solicitation
C - conspiracy
A - attempt
F - first degree murder 
A - assault
L - larceny
E - embezzlement
F - forgery
R - robbery
B - burglary
F - false pretenses
39
Q

Strict Liability Crimes

A

D can be found guilty from mere fact that they committed the act;
defenses that negate state of mind, like mistake of fact, not avail.

LOOK FOR: crimes that are administrative, regulatory, or morality area and there are no adverbs in the statute = SL crimes.
Think: statutory rape, selling alc to minors, bigamy

40
Q

General intent crimes

A
Anything not specific intent:
Battery
Rape
Kidnapping
False imprisonment
41
Q

Transferred intent

A

D liable when they intend the harm caused but to a diff V or object. (Two victims!)

Applies to: homicide, battery, arson. Not attempt.

42
Q

A year and a day rule

A

MINORITY/Traditional: for D to be liable for homicide, V had to die within a year and a day from the injury/wound.

43
Q

ASSAULT

A

Assault is either (1) an attempt to commit a battery or (2) the intentional creation of a reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm.

If actual touching, BATTERY ONLY. No assault.

Aggro assault: assault + use of a deadly weapon OR intent to rape/maim/murder.

44
Q

BATTERY (gen intent crime)

A

An unlawful application of force to another’s person resulting in either (1) bodily injury or (2) an offensive touching.

Aggro battery (treated as a felony in most jx): battery w a deadly weapon; battery resulting in serious bodily harm; and battery of a woman, child, or police officer.

45
Q

KIDNAPPING

A

Unlawful confinement of a person involving either (1) some movement of a victim; or (2) concealment in a secret place.

Aggro kidnapping: kidnapping for ransom; for the purpose of committing other crimes; for offensive purposes; and child stealing.

46
Q

FALSE IMPRISONMENT

A

Unlawful confinement of a person without the person’s valid consent. MPC “confinement must substantially interfere with V’s liberty”

47
Q

RAPE

A

Slightest penetration is sufficient for sexual assault.

Intercourse must be without effective consent. Lack of effective consent exists where:

  • actual force
  • threats of great/immediate bodily harm
  • incapable of consenting
  • fraudulently told act is not intercourse
48
Q

STATUTORY RAPE (SL crime)

A

Carnal knowledge of someone under the age of consent. Best Answer: Mistake of fact will not prevent liability.

49
Q

LARCENY

A

Taking and carrying away of tangible personal property of another by trespass with the intent to permanently deprive that person of their interest in the property (at the time of taking).

The slightest movement of the property is enough for “carrying away”

Larceny can be committed with lost/mislaid property; not abandoned prop.

50
Q

EMBEZZLEMENT

A

The fraudulent conversion of another’s personal property by a person in lawful possession of that property.

NOTE: if D intends to restore the EXACT property taken, not embezzlement. If similar/substantially identical property, it is embezzlement.

EXAM! Often Trustee is embezzler. Person does not have to carry away property; just possession is sufficient. Embezzler does not have to receive the benefit.

51
Q

*DISTINGUISH: Embezzlement vs. Larceny

A

In embezzlement, D misappropriates property while it’s in their rightful possession.

In larceny, D misappropriates property not in their possession.

52
Q

FALSE PRETENSES

A

Obtaining title to another’s personal property by intentional false statement with the intent to defraud the other.

NOTE: V must actually be deceived by/act in reliance on the misrepresentation.

53
Q

DISTINGUISH: false pretenses vs. larceny by trick

A

If V is tricked by a misrepresentation of fact into giving up mere custody or possession (e.g., tricked into letting someone borrow something) = larceny by trick.

If V is tricked into giving up TITLE = false pretenses.

54
Q

ROBBERY

A

The taking of another’s personal property from the other’s person or presence by force or threats of immediate death/physical injury to the V/family member/or someone in V’s presence with the intent to permanently deprive them of it.

Presence is very broad! Can be farmer tied up in barn while robber takes things from house.

Threat must be imminent - threats to hurt someone in a few days are not enough for robbery.

55
Q

DISTINGUISH: robbery vs. larceny

A

Robbery requires the use of force or threats.

Larceny does not - e.g., pickpocketing.

56
Q

EXTORTION/blackmail

A

Modern: consists of obtaining property by means of threats to do harm/expose information. Under some stats, crime is complete when threats are made; property need not be obtained.

57
Q

DISTINGUISH: extortion vs. robbery

A

In extortion, the threats may be of FUTURE harm and taking does not have to be in V’s presence

58
Q

RECEIPT OF STOLEN PROPERTY

A

Receipt of stolen property consists of receiving possession and control of stolen property known to have been obtained in a manner constituting a criminal offense by another person with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the interest in it.

59
Q

FORGERY

A

The making or altering of a false writing with apparent legal significance with intent to defraud.

60
Q

Irresistible impulse test

A

D is entitled to acquittal only if because of a mental illness, they were unable to control their actions or conform their conduct to the law.

61
Q

ALI/MPC Test

A

Acquittal if as a result of mental illness, they lacked the substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of their conduct or conform their conduct to the requirements of the law.

62
Q

Durham test (only in New Hampshire)

A

Acquittal if D’s crime was the product of their mental illness.

63
Q

Defense: Intoxication

A

May be caused by any substance.
Voluntary intox = intentional taking without duress of a substance known to be intoxicating.
Defense to specific intent crimes.
Addicts considered voluntary intox on exam.

Involuntary intox: only if it results from intoxication without D’s knowledge, under direct duress, or pursuant to medical advice while unaware of intoxicating effects.
Defense to ALL crimes; treated as a mental illness so must meet jx’s insanity test.

64
Q

Defense of Others

A

D has the right to defend others if they reasonably believe that the person assisted has the legal right to use force in their own defense. Just need reasonable appearance of right to use force.

65
Q

Defense of a dwelling

A

May use NON deadly force in defense of a dwelling when they reas believe such conduct is necessary to prevent unlawful entry/attack.

66
Q

Defending Possession

A

Deadly force may NEVER be used. Reasonable nondeadly force may be used to defend one’s prop from what they reasonably believe is an imminent, unlawful interference.

67
Q

NECESSITY

A

Deadly force may never be used.

Nondeadly force may be used if reasonably necessary to avoid greater harm.

68
Q

Use of Force by Police during arrest

A

Nondeadly force may be used.

Deadly force may be used IF

1) necessary to prevent a felon’s escape; AND
2) officer reasonably believes that felon threatens death/serious bodily harm

69
Q

MISTAKE OF FACT

A

relevant only if it shows that D lacked the state of mind required for crime.

For specific intent: mistake need not be reasonable
Any other state of mind: must be reasonable.