Criminal Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is Actus Reus?

A

“Guilty Act”

Voluntary conscious act that causes an unlawful result;

  • Reflexes or sleepwalking lack volition, so they are not considered criminal acts.
  • Acts performed under duress are volitional, but may be excused under a defense of duress defense.

OR

Omission when the defendant has a duty and the ability to act.

  • Statutory duties (law enforcement)
  • Legal duty by contract (lifeguard/nursing home)
  • Status relationship (husband/wife, parent/child)
  • Voluntary undertaking to rescue that is abandoned
  • Failing to help after creating risk (hit & run)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the categories of mens rea and their definitions?

A
  • Purpose: the conscious objective of the act is to bring about the prohibited result.
  • Knowledge: the defendant knows, with almost absolute certainty, that the act will produce the prohibited result.
  • Recklessness: the defendant is aware that the conduct creates an unjustifiable risk, but ignores that risk and engages in the conduct anyway.
  • Criminal negligence: creates an unjustifiable risk without subjective awareness that they are doing so, but a reasonable person would have been aware of the risk.

Notes: Some terms refer to multiple categories:
• Intent: Acts intentionally with purpose or knowledge.
• Willful: Acts purposefully or knowingly, with moral turpitude (similar to intent).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the types of intent and their definitions?

A
  • Specific intent: requires proof that the defendant intended to create a specifically prohibited harm; includes acts done purposefully or knowingly (“with intent to”).
  • General intent only requires a desire to do the prohibited act; includes reckless and negligent states of mind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How can specific intent be nullified?

A

Nullified by an honest but unreasonable mistake of fact or by voluntary intoxication. [honest mistake nullifies specific intent, even though unreasonable]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can general intent be nullified?

A

Nullified by an honest and reasonable mistake of fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mens rea element for strict liability?

A

Strict liability has no mens rea element. A voluntary act = guilt.
-Mistake of fact is never a defense (e.g., for statutory rape, where the defendant mistakenly believes the victim was of legal age).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is transferred intent?

A

Transferred intent occurs when the defendant intends to produce a criminal result against one party, but harms another instead. The intent transfers from the intended victim to the unintended victim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is concurrence?

A

Concurrence requires the prosecution to prove that the act that caused the criminal result was actuated (set in motion) by the requisite criminal state of mind. – the mental state must drive the act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is concurrence?

A

Concurrence requires the prosecution to prove that the act that caused the criminal result was actuated (set in motion) by the requisite criminal state of mind. – the mental state must drive the act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Both actual cause and proximate (legal) cause are required to prove a criminal act. How can actual causation be satisfied?

A

Actual cause (cause in fact) can be satisfied by one of three tests:

    1. But for: The result would not have occurred but for D’s conduct.
    1. Substantial Factor: Multiple causes/parties are responsible for the result, but D’s act was a substantial factor in causing the criminal result.
    1. Acceleration: The defendant’s conduct speeds up an inevitable death (victim already dying), even if briefly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Both actual cause and proximate (legal) cause are required to prove a criminal act. How can proximate causation be satisfied?

A

Proximate cause requires the resultant harm to be within the risk created by the defendant’s conduct in crimes involving negligence or recklessness, or sufficiently similar to that intended in crimes requiring intent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can an intervening event supersede (cut off) the defendant’s responsibility?

A

If the intervening event is foreseeable, it will not supersede. D is still responsible.
o Foreseeable = simple negligence or unknown special sensitivities/vulnerabilities of the victim (you must take the victim as you find him).
o Simple negligence by someone else; special sensitivities (eggshell)

If the intervening event is unforeseeable, it normally will supersede. It relieves D of responsibility and breaks the casual connection to the criminal result.
o Unforeseeable = grossly negligent or reckless conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When will a dependent or responsive intervention be unforeseeable, and thus relieve D of responsibility (break causal connection)?

A

If it’s a totally abnormal response to the defendant’s act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does an independent/coincidental intervention supersede the defendant’s responsibility?

A

It always will, except when an independent intervening force was foreseeable.

Example:
Franny is walking home from work in a high-crime area late at night when Mugger 1 attacks her. He shoots her in the leg and steals her briefcase. As Franny struggles to find her cell phone several minutes later, Mugger 2 (a third person) hits her in the head with a brick, steals her phone, and accelerates her death as the result of blood loss from the leg and head.
Although Mugger 2’s attack was independent of Mugger 1’s, and therefore a coincidence, due to the nature of the area and the time of night, it was an objectively foreseeable coincidence, and therefore insufficient to break the causal chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Criminal homicide is:

A

the unlawful killing of a human being by another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is a killing unlawful?

A

When is it

  • Committed as a result of a criminal state of mind (criminal mens rea); and
  • Without legal justification or excuse (no defense).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Murder =

A

unlawful killing of a human being + malice

o Actus reus is the criminal act that causes death (an act + volition or omission when the defendant had a duty).
o At common law, death requires the victim to have been “born alive.”
o Death must be caused by someone else (suicide is not homicide).
o If the victim is already dying, speeding up the death is considered to be the cause-in-fact of the death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Year and a Day Rule? (in the context of murder)

A
  • At common law a death that occurs after more than a year and a day is unforeseeable.
  • Most states have eliminated this rule or extended the time period beyond one year, during which the defendant can be held responsible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the four circumstances under which the defendant does not personally kill but is still responsible for a murder?

A
  1. Accomplice: may be held liable for the killer’s act.
  2. Conspiracy: all members of the conspiracy can be held responsible if:
    • The homicide was a reasonably foreseeable result of the conspiracy; and
    • The homicide was committed in furtherance of the conspiracy.
  3. Substantial Factor: where the defendant and a third-party cause the victim’s death (actual cause).
    • Note that proximate cause must still be determined.
  4. Co-Felon: if the killing = felony murder, then co-felons may also be guilty of murder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 5 ways to establish malice?

A
  1. Intent to kill - The defendant acts with the purpose to kill another or with knowledge that their conduct will kill another.
  2. Intent to Cause Serious Bodily Harm - The defendant acts with the conscious desire or substantial certainty that their act will result in the victim’s serious/grievous injury. (and the victim dies)
  3. Depraved heart murder
  4. Felony murder
  5. Co-felon murder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is depraved heart murder?

A

Unintentional killing resulting from:
o Reckless or grossly negligent conduct;
o That creates an extreme risk to others; and
o Demonstrates a wanton indifference to human life and a conscious disregard of an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury.

EXAMPLE: Death caused by forcing someone to play Russian roulette or pushing a heavy flower pot off a fifth-story balcony onto the busy street below.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is felony murder? (malice automatically established)

A

Felony murder is:
o An intentional or accidental killing;
o Proximately caused;
o During the commission or attempted commission;
o Of a serious or inherently dangerous felony (BARRK).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What types of felonies are the “right type of felony” for felony murder?

A

“Right type of felony” – (1) felonies listed in a statute, or (2) felonies that are independent of the killing and inherently dangerous.
-The majority of states require the killing to be collateral (independent) to the felony. If the primary purpose of the felony is to cause serious physical harm, the felony is not independent and fails the collateral felony test. Felonies that fail this test are manslaughter, aggravated battery, aggravated assault, and mayhem.

Generally, the right types of felonies are:
-BARRK: Burglary; Arson; Rape; Robbery, and Kidnapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The defendant pretended to be a doctor with a cancer cure and induced the victim to pay $5,000 for a medically worthless ointment that the defendant claimed would cure cancer. Practicing medicine without a license is a felony in the jurisdiction. If the victim had received competent medical treatment, the cancer would have been detected and cured. What is the jurisdictional split on whether this is a felony murder?

A
  • In an abstract jurisdiction (majority), this would not be the “right type of felony” because practicing medicine without a license is not dangerous to human life in all situations.
  • In a context jurisdiction (minority), if the victim dies of cancer, the defendant can be charged with felony murder because the context of the commission in this particular situation was inherently dangerous.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the timing requirement for a felony murder?

A

the death must be the result of injuries inflicted during the commission, attempt, or immediate flight from a felony.

  • Felony starts when the defendant could be convicted of attempt.
  • Terminates when the defendant reaches temporary safety.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is co-felon felony murder responsibility determined?

A

When a crime is committed by multiple people and the victim is killed by one felon, whether the co-felon is responsible for that killing will vary depending on jurisdiction.

Modern majority agency rule limits felony murder responsibility to a killing committed by a co-felon. (agency – the other felon is your agent)
o Exempts felony murder responsibility for killings committed by non-felons.
o Some majority jurisdictions will still apply the felony murder rule when a non-felon kills another non-felon (the victim aims at a felon, but kills a bystander instead).

Common Law: Felony murder responsibility attaches to all felons for any homicide committed during a felony. Only requires that the killing be proximately caused by the commission of the felony. [much harsher]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the exceptions to co-felon felony murder responsibility?

A
  • Non-violent felon – Minority common law rule: A co-felon is exempt from felony murder responsibility if they are not armed and did not participate/have knowledge of the other co-felons’ intent.
  • Deserving victim – Minority common law rule: A co-felon is exempt from felony murder responsibility when anyone kills another co-felon.
  • Redline limitation – Majority common law rule: A co-felon is exempt from felony murder responsibility if the police or victim kills a co-felon.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is first-degree murder?

A

Proof that the defendant’s decision to kill was done with both premeditation and deliberation (P&D) elevates second-degree to first-degree murder. The defendant must consciously decide to kill, so they must actually intend to kill. Implied malice is not enough.

Premeditation means the defendant must think about the act of killing.
• Common law – Can premeditate immediately.
• Modern majority – Some time is necessary to think, but it can be brief. Most jurisdictions require that the premeditation occurred after the intent to kill was formed, which means proof of some reflection.

Deliberation means the defendant must make a deliberate choice to kill, which requires rational thought. (quality of thought, as opposed to time)
• Voluntary intoxication or diminished capacity may prevent deliberation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is second-degree murder?

A

Second-degree murder is any killing with malice, but without the additional element to prove first-degree murder. In a jurisdiction that defines first-degree murder only as murder with premeditation and deliberation, any murder committed without the purpose to kill must be second-degree murder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Voluntary manslaughter (heat of passion) is an intentional killing mitigated by adequate provocation or other circumstances negating malice. (so not murder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is required for the adequate provocation aspect of voluntary manslaughter?

A

Objective Component
• A provocation that would lead a reasonable person to lose self-control and fly into a sudden homicidal rage.
o Mere words are not enough (generally).
o Rage must be hot – be sure that a reasonable person would not have cooled off.

Subjective Component
• There must be a causal connection between the provocation and the killing.
• The defendant must actually have been provoked and must not have cooled off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What mitigating circumstances can strip malice from intent to kill (reduces murder to manslaughter)?

A
  • Diminished mental capacity (minority): Mental disturbance short of insanity. (different from insanity because insanity is a complete defense, not just a mitigating circumstance)
  • Imperfect self-defense (many states): An honest but unreasonable judgment of necessity to use homicidal self-defense or defense of others.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

Involuntary manslaughter is an unintentional killing resulting from unjustified risk creation (recklessness or gross negligence) that is not sufficiently extreme to rise to the level of implied malice (contrast to depraved heart murder – involuntary manslaughter not as extreme)

Unjustifiable Risk of Death or Injury to Others
-Recklessness: The defendant is subjectively aware of the risk and ignores it.
-Gross Negligence: The defendant is unaware of the risk, but a reasonable person would have been aware.
• Examples include mishandling loaded weapons, driving dangerously (DUI), and shaking a baby so hard that it causes death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Misdemeanor-Manslaughter?

A

An unintentional killing that occurs during the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor that is malum in se (evil at its base), or of a felony that is not of the inherently dangerous type required for felony murder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is battery and how is it established?

A

Battery is the intentional or reckless or criminally negligent unlawful application of force to a victim.

General intent crime established when:
 The defendant unlawfully applies force (can be indirect – D throws rock at victim);
 The defendant does so intentionally, recklessly, or as a result of a criminally negligent state of mind; and
 The defendant has no legal justification/excuse.

35
Q

In most jurisdictions, simple battery (misdemeanor) can be elevated to aggravated battery (felony) when the defendant:

A

 Causes serious bodily injury;
 Uses a deadly weapon; or
 There is a special category of victim (child, pregnant woman, or police officer).

36
Q

What are the defenses to battery?

A

 Valid consent.
 Self-defense and defense of others, as long as proportional force is used.
 Prevention of a crime, so long as proportional force is used.

36
Q

What are the defenses to battery?

A

 Valid consent.
 Self-defense and defense of others, as long as proportional force is used.
 Prevention of a crime, so long as proportional force is used.

37
Q

What are the categories of assault under the modern majority rule?

A

Modern Majority: A defendant commits criminal assault by attempting to commit battery or by intentionally causing the victim to fear an immediate battery.

  • Failed attempted battery (common law form) requires proof that the defendant intended to actually batter a victim, but failed. So long as the defendant intended to commit battery, there is no defense that the victim was not aware of the assault or that the defendant was not presently able to commit the battery.
  • Fear of battery assault: The defendant never intended to actually batter the victim, but instead, intended to put the victim in fear of an immediate battery. The defendant must act with threatening conduct intended to cause reasonable apprehension of imminent harm to the victim.
38
Q

What constitutes reasonable apprehension of imminent harm for assault?

A

o This requires more of an “expectation” than a “fear” – the victim must simply anticipate that battery will result in immediate bodily harm.
o The victim must be aware of the threat of harm.
o No assault when a reasonable person would not expect imminent bodily harm.

39
Q

Assault can rise to aggravated felony assault when:

A
  • The defendant commits assault with a dangerous weapon.
  • The defendant acts with the intent to rape or murder.
  • The victim is specially protected by statute.
40
Q

What is mayhem?

A

Modern Majority: intent to maim or do serious injury accompanied by an act that results in permanent disfigurement.
o The crime is aggravated battery in jurisdictions that do not recognize the crime of mayhem

[Common law: Intent to maim or do bodily injury accompanied by an act that either:
 Dismembers; or
 Disables the victim’s use of some body part useful in fighting.]

41
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

False Imprisonment is the confinement of one person by another when it is intentional, against the law, and the victim is fully confined.

42
Q

What is kidnapping?

A

o Common Law: The unlawful restraint of a person’s liberty by force or show of force so as to send the victim into another country.
o Modern Majority: It is usually sufficient that the victim is taken to another location or concealed.
o The majority of jurisdictions require some movement of the victim (asportation). Mere restraint is not enough (in a minority of jurisdictions unlawful restraint is enough).

43
Q

What is rape?

A

Modern Law: Sexual intercourse against a victim’s will by force, threat, or intimidation
i) Any penetration, however slight, will satisfy the requirements for rape
ii) Mistake of fact can be a defense because there is no requirement to prove extrinsic force, but the
mistake must be both honest and reasonable

44
Q

What is the key to all theft offenses?

A

Intent to permanently deprive (or steal) is the key to all theft offenses

45
Q

What is larceny and its elements?

A

Unlawful taking of property in someone else’s possession with intent to steal (to permanently deprive owner of property). Specific intent crime.

Common Law:
o Trespassory taking;
o And carrying away;
o Of tangible personal property; (Modern statutes have expanded the kinds of property to include theft of services and other intangibles.)
o Of another;
o With intent to permanently deprive or steal (specific intent).

46
Q

What is embezzlement?

A

Unlawful conversion of property (already) in your possession with intent to steal (permanently deprive owner).

Unlawful Conversion =
i) Transforming someone else’s property to your own—need some action toward the property
that seriously interferes with the owner’s rights (i.e., selling, consuming, damaging, or claiming
title to it)

47
Q

What is the crime of theft by false pretenses and its elements?

A

Obtaining title to property owned by someone else through fraud.
Elements:
i) a false representation of a present or past material fact by the defendant;
ii) which causes the victim to pass title to their property; (There is no crime without reliance)
iii) to the defendant;
iv) who knows that the representation is false;
v) and who intends thereby to defraud the victim

48
Q

What is larceny by trick?

A

Larceny by trick is obtaining possession of property (not title) through fraud.
• This is a form of larceny where the defendant obtains possession of property by means of a representation or promise that they know to be false at the time they take possession.
• Writing a fake check is larceny by trick, not false pretenses, because title does not pass until the check clears (most jurisdictions have a specific crime for this conduct).

49
Q

What is the continuing trespass doctrine?

A

Continuing Trespass Doctrine: If a defendant takes property, but at the time intends the taking to be temporary, and later decides to permanently deprive the owner of the property, the doctrine of continuing trespass establishes concurrence between the unlawful taking and the requisite intent to steal.

50
Q

What negates intent to steal?

A

If you think the property is yours, no matter how unreasonable.

 Intent is satisfied if the defendant recklessly exposes property to loss or deals with property in a manner involving substantial risk of loss.
 If, at the time of taking, the defendant intends to return the property to the victim unconditionally and within a reasonable time, there is no intent (only applies if the defendant has the ability to return the property).
 Returning property DOES NOT establish the absence of intent to steal. A defendant is guilty of larceny if they intended to permanently deprive at the time of the taking or at any time prior to returning the property.

51
Q

What are the elements of robbery?

A
  • The taking must be from the victim’s person or presence (area within their control); and
  • The taking occurs through force or threat of force that places the victim in actual fear at the time of the taking.
  • The taking must be a trespassory taking of personal property with the intent to steal. (larceny)

o An honest mistaken belief of right negates the intent to steal.

52
Q

What is extortion?

A

Extortion (blackmail) is obtaining the property of another by threat of future harm to the victim or their property.
• Tip: If it’s a threat of present harm, it’s probably robbery, not extortion.

53
Q

What are the elements of the crime of receiving stolen property?

A

Receiving stolen property is the receipt of stolen property, known to be stolen, and with the intent to permanently deprive the owner (this was a common law misdemeanor).

54
Q

What are the elements of forgery?

A

Forgery is fraudulently making a false writing with apparent legal significance with the intent to make wrongful use of the forged document.
• The alteration must be material (change the meaning or effect of the document) to qualify (signing a false signature on a will).

55
Q

What is the definition of burglary?

A

Burglary is the breaking and entering of the dwelling (pretty much any structure) of another at night (modern majority dispenses with this requirement) with intent to commit a felony or larceny once inside.

  • Breaking [Common law requires some force; Modern majority has relaxed this requirement to include slight enlargement of an opening; Entry by fraud, deception, or threat qualifies as breaking; Breaking to exit is not sufficient for burglary.]
  • Entering [Entry = placing any portion of the body inside the structure. In most jurisdictions, if a tool used for breaking into the building (crowbar) crosses the threshold, it is NOT enough to establish entry. Compare - if a tool used for “taking” something (pole with a hook) crosses the threshold it is sufficient to establish entry (under common law it was insufficient).]
56
Q

What is arson?

A

Common Law: Arson is the malicious burning of a dwelling of another.
o Malice is established by intent or extreme recklessness.
o Requires proof that some portion of the structure was damaged as the result of burning.

Modern Majority: There is no requirement that the property be the “dwelling of another.” Modern statutes now define arson to include most buildings, as well as vessels and personal property. Arson also includes situations where an owner maliciously burns his own structure or property.

57
Q

What are the 3 inchoate (incomplete) crimes?

A
  1. Solicitation
  2. Attempt
  3. Conspiracy

All require specific intent.

58
Q

What is solicitation?

A

Solicitation is the crime of trying to get someone else to commit your crime.
• Enticing, advising, inciting, inducing, urging, or encouraging another to commit the target offense.
• Common Law: This was a misdemeanor and the crime solicited had to be a felony or breach of the peace.
• Modern Majority: The rule is now broader and is defined as requesting another to commit any offense.
• Specific intent is required. The defendant must intend the solicitee to perform criminal acts (mere approval of an act is not enough).
• The offense is complete when the solicitation is made.
• Once the solicitation is communicated, the solicitor cannot withdraw from the solicitation. (the crime is done)
• There is no requirement that the solicitee commit the target offense BUT if they do (or attempt to) solicitation merges into that offense and the solicitor will be charged as an accomplice to the target offense, not with solicitation.

59
Q

What are the 2 elements of attempt?

A

Attempt is “almost” committing a crime.

Two elements:
o Specific intent or purpose to bring about a criminal result; and
o A significant overt act in furtherance of that intent that proves the defendant went past the point of preparation and began perpetration.

Specific intent for attempt is the purpose (objective) to commit a target offense. This is true regardless of whether the target offense is a specific intent, general intent, or strict liability crime.

60
Q

What are the defenses to attempt?

A

-Abandonment
 Common Law: There is no defense once the attempt is complete (moved from preparation to perpetration) [abandonment not a defense at common law]
 Model Penal Code: A voluntary complete abandonment is a defense. (hard to achieve)

-Legal impossibility: The defendant is not guilty if they thought they were committing a crime, but it’s not actually a crime.

[in contrast, factual impossibility is not a defense: If the defendant would have committed the offense had the facts been as they believed them to be, the defendant is guilty of attempt, even if it was factually impossible to complete the crime.]

61
Q

What are the requirements for conspiracy?

A

A conspiracy requires an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime and an overt act (committed by any conspirator) in furtherance of the conspiracy. There must be intent to agree and specific intent (purpose) to commit an unlawful act.

o Modern majority rule requires an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy. Beginning preparation to commit the crime is all that is required; it can be very trivial (unlike the requirement in attempt where the defendant must go beyond preparation to beginning perpetration).

62
Q

What is the Pinkerton doctrine?

A

Each co-conspirator is liable for the crimes of all other co-conspirators where the crimes were both a foreseeable outgrowth of the conspiracy AND committed in furtherance of a conspiratorial goal.

63
Q

Is conviction of a single co-conspirator possible?

A

o Common Law: If there are only two conspirators, acquittal of one co-conspirator requires acquittal of the other, because two guilty parties are needed for a conspiracy conviction. If one person feigned agreement, then no conspiracy existed because there was no true meeting of the minds.
o Model Penal Code permits conviction of a single party when the other conspirator feigned agreement or is acquitted (a “unilateral conspiracy”).

64
Q

What is the Warton rule?

A

If the target offense requires two or more people as a necessary element they cannot be convicted of a conspiracy to commit the crime. But, if the agreement involves an additional person not essential to the definition of the crime, the “third-party exception” allows for all parties to be convicted of conspiracy.

65
Q

What are the defenses to conspiracy?

A
o	Withdrawal (Common law and MPC): Complete and voluntary withdrawal severs liability for future crimes, but is no defense to the conspiracy itself. Requires notice to all conspirators.
o	Renunciation (MPC only): Withdrawal and an affirmative act to thwart the conspiracy can eliminate responsibility for the conspiracy itself.
66
Q

How can an individual be found criminally responsible as an accomplice?

A

They do some act (or omission w/duty to act) that facilitates the principal’s commission of the crime (or attempt), including encouragement with the purpose of bringing about the commission of the crime.

• Modern (minority): Accomplice responsibility may be established when a provider of goods or services has knowledge that he is assisting in the commission of a crime and benefits (seller knows buyer will commit arson and sells him an explosive device).

Accomplices are responsible for crimes that are purposefully facilitated and all others that are reasonably foreseeable outgrowths of the primary crime. This is an objective test. It is no defense that the accomplice did not expect the crimes to happen.

67
Q

What are the defenses to accomplice liability?

A

Common Law: An accomplice can withdraw by giving the principal perpetrator timely notice of withdrawal and nullifying the effect of their prior facilitation.

Model Penal Code: To remove accomplice responsibility, the accomplice must either:

  • Render any prior assistance to the perpetrator completely ineffective;
  • Provide the police w/timely warning of the plan; or
  • Make a proper effort to prevent the perpetrator from committing the original crime
68
Q

What is a principal in the first degree?

A

The trigger puller – the perpetrator who performs the act with the requisite mental state.

69
Q

What is a principal in the second degree?

A

One who aids or abets and is present at the scene (getaway driver).

70
Q

What is an accessory before the fact?

A

One who aids or abets but is NOT present at the scene.

71
Q

What is an accessory after the fact and what proof is required?

A

One who aids or abets the principal after the commission of the crime.

Requires proof:
• of a completed felony;
• that the accessory knew of the commission of the felony; and
• that the accessory personally gave aid to the felon to hinder their apprehension, conviction, or punishment.

72
Q

What are the excuse defenses?

A

insanity, involuntary intoxication, and duress

73
Q

What are the justification defenses?

A

self-defense, defense of others, defense of property, and necessity

74
Q

What are the 4 tests for the legal defense of insanity and their definitions?

A
  1. M’Naghten Test: at time of commission: The defendant suffered from a severe mental disease or defect, and as a result, was unable to know either:
    o The nature and quality of his act; OR
    o That what he was doing was wrong (delusional self-defense).
  2. Irresistible impulse test: The defendant is not guilty if he had a mental disease that kept him from controlling his conduct. (volitional test)
  3. MPC Test: The defendant is not responsible for their criminal conduct if, at the time of such conduct and as a result of a mental disease or defect, they lacked substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality (wrongfulness) of their conduct or to conform their conduct to the law.
  4. Durham (or New Hampshire) Rule: The defendant is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of a mental disease/defect
75
Q

What is involuntary intoxication a defense to?

A

any crime requiring proof of general or specific intent, so long as it negates mens rea. (someone put something in your drink)

76
Q

What is voluntary intoxication a defense to?

A

Voluntary intoxication may be a valid defense to a specific intent crime if it negates the requisite mental state (may negate purposeful or knowing mental state). It is not a defense to general intent crimes and won’t negate recklessness, negligence, or strict liability.

77
Q

When is duress a defense?

A

Duress excuses criminal conduct where the defendant reasonably believes that the only way to avoid an unlawful threat of great bodily harm or imminent death is to engage in unlawful conduct.
o Duress is not a defense to murder, except to excuse the underlying felony in felony murder.

78
Q

What is the definition of self-defense?

A

Self-defense is an honest and reasonable judgment that it is necessary to use force to defend against an unlawful imminent threat of bodily harm.
o The defendant is a victim of an unlawful threat (not initial aggressor).
o The defendant is in imminent danger of unlawful bodily harm (would call police otherwise).
o The defendant uses proportional force (no more than reasonably necessary) to prevent imminent harm.

79
Q

When is homicidal self-defense permitted?

A

Homicidal self-defense (deadly force) is permitted only in response to an imminent threat of death or grievous bodily harm.

80
Q

What is the unclean hands rule?

A

Unclean Hands: The first aggressor may not claim self-defense.
 Common Law: The first aggressor could regain the right to self-defense only by complete withdrawal perceived by the original victim.
 Modern Majority: The same rule as the common law, but the first aggressor will regain the right of self-defense if the original victim responds to the aggression with excessive force.

81
Q

What is the retreat rule?

A

Common Law: The victim of unlawful violence had a duty to retreat before a use of deadly force.
• Eliminated in 35 states (stand your ground jurisdictions).

In states that retain the retreat rule, retreat is NOT required in the defendant’s own home, car, or office, and is not required if retreat is not feasible.

82
Q

When is the defense of a third person justified?

A

A defendant is justified when it is necessary to defend a third party who is facing an unlawful imminent threat of bodily harm. Deadly force is only justified when there is a threat of death or grievous bodily harm.
o Majority: Looks at the reasonableness of the defendant’s belief that the third person was being unlawfully attacked. If the defendant was reasonable but mistaken, they can still claim defense of others.
o Minority: The defendant steps into the shoes of the victim attacked—if the third party was the first aggressor or failed to retreat when required by law, the defendant has no defense.

83
Q

What is defense of property a valid defense?

A

Reasonable non-deadly force is justified in defending one’s property from theft, destruction, or trespass where the defendant has a reasonable belief that their property is in immediate danger AND uses no greater force than necessary.
o Deadly force may never be used to defend property (no spring or trap guns).
o Deadly force may be used where the defender reasonably believes that the threat to property involves an imminent threat to life (confronting a burglar in your home in the middle of the night).

84
Q

Necessity justifies the commission of what is normally a crime when:

A
  • it is necessary to avoid an immediate threat of greater harm to persons or property;
  • no reasonable alternative to breaking the law will avoid greater harm; and
  • the defendant is not responsible for causing the harm.

 Common Law: Necessity is never defense to murder, unless it is raised as a defense to the underlying felony for felony murder.
 Model Penal Code: The defendant can raise necessity for all charges, even homicide, which might result in acquittal, if the defendant kills one person to save multiple lives.