Criminal Law Flashcards

1
Q

CRIM K

A
Criminal's state of Mind
C-criminally Negligent
R-recklessly (wantonly)
I-intentionally
M-maliciously
K-knowingly
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2
Q

Elements of a crime

A

A crime consists of an acts rea (physical act) and a mens era (mental state) which together violate a criminal statute, which was factually and proximately caused by the act.

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3
Q

Burden of proof

A

The People bear the burden of proving beyond a reasonable doubt that the D’s had the necessary mens rea

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4
Q

Accomplice Liability

A

In order to hold an accomplice liable for the crimes of the principal, the prosecution must prove:

  1. the accomplice ASSISTED the principal in the commission of the crime, and
  2. that the accomplice acted with BOTH the INTENT to ASSIST the principal and the intent that the PRINCIPAL COMMITS THE OFFENSE
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5
Q

Crime of Solicitation- TACO

A

T-Ascertainable terms
A- Acceptance
C- Consideration
O- Officer

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6
Q

Criminal Negligence (C in CRIM K)

A

Mens Rea exceeds that for mere Tort Negligence.

Criminal negligence requires a FAILURE by the D to PERCEIVE a risk so SUBSTANTIAL and UNJUSTIFIABLE that it constitutes a GROSS DEVIATION from the standard of care that a reasonable person would observe in the same situation.

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7
Q

R- Criminal Recklessness (wanton conduct)

A

Exists when the D perceives a substantial and unjustifiable risk, but consciously disregards it and his conduct constitutes a gross deviation from the behavior expected of a reasonable person.

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8
Q

I- Intent (purposely in MPC)

A

Exists when the defendant CONSCIOUSLY DESIRES to bring about a result or is aware that his conduct is SUBSTANTIALLY CERTAIN to bring it about.

General intent

Specific Intent (most intent crimes requires specific intent)

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9
Q

General Intent v. specific intent

A

GI: Requires that the defendant intent to perform the physical act prohibited by the penal law.

SI: When the crime requires not just the desire to do the act, but also the desire to achieve a specific result.

(GENERAL INTENT + the D’s subjective purpose of yielding some additional prohibited consequences.

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10
Q

Transferred Intent

A

The tort doctrine of transferred intent arises when the D’s intentional conduct causes harm to an unintended victim. Limited to results that would cause the same type of harm.

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11
Q

Maliciousness

A

Exists when the D acts either INTENTIONALLY OR RECKLESSLY

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12
Q

Knowingly

A

Exists when the D acts with an AWARENESS that certain facts or circumstances exist.

Cannot be charged with crime of knowledge if he acts mistakenly.

Under the doctrine of conscious avoidance, the jury will be instructed that they can find a D acted knowingly, if he acted with willful blindness of particular facts

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13
Q

Strict Liability Crimes

A

is imposed for the welfare of the public to discourage certain conduct. Only proof of the Acts Reus is required, w/o regard to the D’s mental state

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14
Q

Principal in the second degree (aka aider or abettor)

A

PEAS
1- INTENTIONALLY renders some assistant

  1. stands by with an intent to render aid if needed. This is someone who is present and encourages the commission of the crime with the same MENS rea as the principal in the first degree.

P- Present at the crime scene (intentionally renders some assistance OR stands by with an intent that the crime be committed, and with an intender to render aid if needed)
E- Encouraged the crime
A- Assisted in its commission
S- Shared the same mens res as principal 1st degree

Requires “scienter”

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15
Q

Accessory Before the Fact (accomplices)

A

A3CES

A- Absent from the scene of the crime, Assists, AIDS, ABETS

C-Commands or
E- Encourages the criminal plan
S-Shared same mens rea as principal 1st degree

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16
Q

Accessory After the Fact

A

Is a person who renders assistance AFTER the crime is completed. Such person will be charged with the crime of hindering prosecution, if the People can prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the D knew that he was assisting someone who had a committed a felony. The D must act with a SPECIFIC INTENT to prevent, impede, or delay discovery of evidence or discovery of the D. CANNOT BE CONVICTED AS ACCOMPLICE OR FOR CRIME OF CONSPIRACY B/C MENS REA WAS AFTER THE FACT

Must have specific intent to DIP

D- Delay the felon’s capture
I- Impede the felon’s capture
P- Present the felon’s capture

Will be charged with hindering prosecution, if the People can prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the D knew that he was assisting someone who had committed a felony.

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17
Q

Crime of Conspiracy

A

An AGREEMENT of two or more parties the SPECIFIC INTENT to COMMIT a crime. Conspiracy itself is a crime, so even if the underlying crime that was subject of the agreement never comes to fruition, a conspiracy to commit that crime has still be committed.

At common law, no additional OVERT ACT was required for conspiracy. However, today most state and federal statutes expressly require some overt act in furtherance of the agreement.

MPC and in most states, a conspirator is not liable for the crimes committed by another unless he SUFFICIENTLY PARTICIPATED in those crimes to be an accomplice to them.

Exception: BRAKERS (violent felonies)

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18
Q

Crime of Attempt

A

to intentionally try to commit a crime, but not succeed.

CL: requires only some activity BEYOND mere preparation

MPC and the majority: require a “substantial step” toward the commission of the crime strongly CORROBORATING the D’s criminal purpose. Mere preparation is not sufficient.

Minority: D is guilty of a crime of attempt only if she is “DANGEROUSLY NEAR” or “ON THE VERGE” of accomplishing the contemplated crime, while others describe it as “PROXIMATE” to the crime.

FACTUAL IMPOSSIBILITY IS NEVER A DEFENSE. Legal impossibility is a valid defense (“crime” is actually lawful)

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19
Q

Homicide

A

Occurs when one human being causes the death of another. Homicide includes both murder and manslaughter

If malice aforethought—> P must prove that D intended to cause death or great bodily harm or exhibited extreme and reckless indifference to the value of life.

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20
Q

Murder

A

FIGS MAN

F- Felony Murder
I- Intentional murder
G- D’s conduct created a GRAVE risk of death and D was aware of the risk and consciously disregarded it by displaying indifference to the victim’s life
S- Intent to cause SERIOUS bodily harm that results in death

MAN- Manslaughter (voluntary and involuntary)

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21
Q

Causation

A

To determine causation, courts inquire whether the D’s conduct was both

  1. the FACTUAL CAUSE, but for the defendant’s conduct the victim would not have suffered injury
  2. the PROXIMATE CAUSE, the defendant’s conduct was a “substantial factor” in the victim’s death or serious injury

A foreseeable intervening cause does not break the causation chain. A defendant will not be liable for his criminal conduct only if an intervening act was so “out-of the ordinary” that is is no longer fair to hold the D criminally responsible for the crime

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22
Q

Felony Murder

A

Felony murder usually is an unintended homicide occurring during the COMMISSION, ATTEMPT OR FLIGHT from a dangerously inherent felony. The purpose of the felonious conduct must be independent of the homicide. The felon is held strictly liable for the unintended death.

The felony is deemed to end once the D reaches a “safe harbor” at which time there is a break in the chain of events.

Accomplices are guilty for any deaths caused during the dangerous felony. UNLESS CUB

Agency Doctrine requires one of the felons to proximately cause the accidental killing for a felony murder to occur.

Some states recognize felony murder even if the act causing accidental death was not committed by a felon.

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23
Q

Deaths caused during _________felony amount to felony murder, but deaths caused during ______felonies do not.

A

BRAKERS | LAB

B- Burglary
R- Robbery
A- Arson
K- Kidnapping
E- Escape
R- Rape
S- Criminal SEXUAL ACT

L-Larceny
A- Assault
B- Battery

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24
Q

An accomplice is not guilty of felony murder if he was only a ______.

A

CUB

C-the accomplice didn’t COMMIT, command or request the homicide

U- the accomplice was UNARMED with a deadly instrument or substance readily capable of causing death or serious physical injury AND

B- the accomplice had no reason to BELIEVE another co-conspirator was armed or intended to engage in conduct likely to result in death

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25
Q

Intentional Murder

A

In majority: the P must prove that the D “with premeditation (preconceived intent to kill) and deliberation (cool reflection)”, desired to cause the death of another, and in fact caused the death of that person or a third person.

Minority: do not require premeditation and deliberation and define murder simply as intentionally killing another.

Where the D intentionally uses a deadly weapon and death results then the jury may infer that the D intended to kill that person

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26
Q

Depraved Indifference Murder

A

Exists when the D creates and CONSCIOUSLY DISREGARDS an UNJUSTIFIABLE, GRAVE risk of death to his victim, and in disregarding it, he demonstrates a depraved indifference to the value of human life.

Significant minority: RECKLESS MANSLAUGHTER or INTENTIONAL MURDER

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27
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

Occurs where the D INTENTIONALLY committed murder, but D’s intent arose under circumstances of EED or in the HOP

Verbal insults are to sufficient provocation. Adultery aggravated battery, or a serious criminal assault may be sufficient.

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28
Q

Involuntary Manslaughter

A

The Dd causes the death of another human being by engaging in conduct that creates an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury.

Majority: Reckless manslaughter: involuntary manslaughter arises where the D is aware of a SUBSTANTIAL RISK of death or bodily injury but despite this knowledge the D consciously disregards the risk.

minority: Criminally negligent homicide arises when a defendant fails to PERCEIVE a substantial and unjustified high risk of death or serious bodily injury that a reasonable person would have been aware of

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29
Q

Burglary

A

I-BEND (intent to commit a felony, breaking, entering, nighttime, dwelling)

At common law burglary required an unauthorized breaking and entering into another’s dwelling during the night with a specific intent to commit a felony therein.

Today, the general intent of criminal trespass is entering or remaining unlawfully on realty. Burglary is the general intent crime of criminal trespass coupled with the specific intent to commit a crime therein. (add sentence on general intent and specific intent)

Breaking occurs by entering force to remove a barrier to enter the dwelling. (breaking may occur after entering a dwelling (if not before) i.e. opening a bedroom door).

Entering occurs where any part of the D’s body enters the premises.

Crime against habitation, thus D may be convicted and consecutively sentenced for both burglary and the crime attempted or committed within.

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30
Q

Constructive breaking and entering

A

if consent to enter was obtained by fraud, when an intruder, intending criminal conduct, who breaks the barrier with a lie or deception

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31
Q

How has the MPC expanded burglary?

A

It includes any structure or vehicle either for overnight lodging or to carry on a business, day or night, and have eliminated the “breaking element”.

Knowingly entering or remaining in a structure unlawfully.

Affirmative offenses afforded if building or structure was abandoned.

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32
Q

Arson

A

At common law, arson was the malicious burning of the dwelling of another. Common law defined “dwelling as a structure used for overnight habitation, but one was not required to be in the dwelling at the time of the burning.

By statute, most jurisdictions have expanded arson to include any “structure”, used either for overnight lodging or to carry on a business.

Total destruction is not required, but there must be more damage than mere blackening by smoke.

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33
Q

Most serious arsons

A

PIES

P: There was a PECUNIARY motive for setting the fire

I: an INCENDIARY device was used (Molotov cocktail)

E: Explosive were used or

S: Someone is SERIOUSLY injured

If arson is the proximate cause of death of the victim, then felony murder also occurs.

34
Q

Defenses

A

NICE MICE EVADE WASPS

NICE: Necessity, Infancy, Claim of right, Excessively broad penal statue

MICE: Legal or factual MISTAKE, INSANITY or INTOXICATION, CUB status as a defense to felony, EED

EVADE: ENTRAPMENT, VAGUE criminal statute, Bill of ATTAINDER, DURESS, EX POST FACTO

WASP: WITHDRAWAL (renunciation), ALIBI, SELF-DEFENSE, Heat of PASSION

35
Q

Claim of Right

A

A D who is charged with a theft crime, may alert claim of right, if he had an HONEST SUBJECTIVE GOOD FAITH mistaken belief, that the property he is accused of stealing was his own, or that he had the right to take it.

36
Q

What are the 6 general intent crimes?

A
  • Battery
  • Rape
  • Arson
  • Kidnapping
  • False Imprisonment
  • Manslaughter
37
Q

what are the 4 categories of mens rea under common law?

A
  1. specific intent
  2. general intent
  3. negligence
  4. recklessness
38
Q

What are the 5 categories of mens reas under MPC

A
  1. Purposely
  2. Knowingly
  3. Recklessly
  4. Negligently
  5. Criminal Negligence
39
Q

What are the two tests to determine whether ACTUAL Cause exists?

A
  1. But for (factual)
  2. substantial factor (proximate)

foreseeable intervening cause does not break chain of causation. superseding cause does.

40
Q

Elements of common law murder

A
  1. unlawful killing
  2. of a human being
  3. with malice aforethought
41
Q

What are fie mental states that fall under malice aforethought for homicide?

A

CRIM K

  1. intent to kill
  2. intent to inflict grievous bodily harm
  3. reckless disregard for human life
  4. intent to commit a felony
42
Q

What constitutes intent to kill?

A

Acting with the PURPOSE to kill or the KNOWLEDGE that it is SUBSTANTIALLY CERTAIN DEATH WILL OCCUR.

43
Q

Elements of depraved heart murder?

A
  1. reckless or grossly negligent conduct;
  2. that creates an EXTREME RISK TO OTHERS
  3. Demonstrates a WANTON INDIFFERENCE TO HUMAN LIFE
44
Q

Elements of felony murder

A
  1. unintentional and foreseeable killing
  2. proximately caused during the attempt commission or flight from;
  3. an inherently dangerous felony

Remember BRAKERS

45
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

An intentional killing that has been downgraded due to mitigating factors such as:

  • Adequate provocation
  • Imperfect self-defense
  • Diminished capacity
46
Q

Involuntary manslaughter

A

General intent crime.

  1. Killing committed with gross negligence.

In most jurisdictions, A D is guilty of manslaughter when the D causes the death or another human being by engaging in conduct that creates UNREASONABLE RISK OF DEATH OR SERIOUS BODILY INJURY.

The modern and majority view iss that D must have acted RECKLESSLY to be convicted of involuntary manslaughter. A defendant acts recklessly when he is aware of the unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury. Recklessness is generally defined as conscious disregard of a known risk.

In other jurisdictions it is enough if the D acted with greater ordinary negligence. Thus even if D was unaware of the risk, he may be found guilty if an ordinary person in the same situation would have been aware that her conduct created an unreasonable risk.

47
Q

Mens Rea Intent

A

D actued with the purpose to bring about the result or the knowledge that it is substantially likely harm would result.

48
Q

DRAM SHOP Rule

A

If a business sells alcohol to an obviously drunk person, they will be strictly liable for anyone injured by the drunken person

49
Q

Purposely

A

A person acts purposely with respect to his conduct when it is his CONSCIOUS OBJECTIVE to engage in certain conduct or cause a certain result

50
Q

Knowingly

A

A person acts knowingly when he is aware AWARE of that NATURE or that CERTAIN CIRCUMSTANCES exist. He is deemed to be aware of these circumstances when he is aware of a HIGH PROBABILITY that they exist and DELIBERATELY AVOIDS learning the truth.

51
Q

Recklessly

A

A person acts recklessly when he consciously disregards a SUBSTANTIAL and UNJUSTIFIABLE risk that circumstances exist or that a prohibited result will follow, and this disregard constitutes a GROSS DEVIATION from the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in the situation. An act performed recklessly is also performed wantonly.

52
Q

Negligently

A

A person acts negligently when he fails to be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk that circumstances exist or a result will follow, and such failure constitutes a substantial deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise under the circumstances. To determine whether a person acted negligently, an objective standard is used.

53
Q

Specific intent v. General intent

A

GI: D intended to commit the crime

SI: Subjective intent to cause a SPECIFIC OUTCOME

54
Q

What intent is required for theft?

A

Specific intent crime. Intent to permanently deprive a person of property

55
Q

What negates the intent to steal?

A

Claim of right

56
Q

What intent is required for voluntary manslaughter?

A

Specific intent. Intent arose under circumstances of EED or in the heat of passion. Verbal insults not enough.

57
Q

Intent required for attempt?

A

Specific intent to commit the underlying crime

58
Q

Common law elements of solicitation

A
  1. Enticing, advising, requesting or otherwise encouraging someone else
  2. to commit a crime
  3. with the intent the other person commits the crime

Crime is complete as soon as D entices or encourages someone to commit a crime. Other person does not need to agree.

Withdrawal is a valid defense 9but not recongized but common law)

59
Q

Elements of Conspiracy

A
  1. intentional agreement b/w two or more persons;
  2. to commit an unlawful act or a lawful act by unlawful means
  3. an overt act in furtherance of the unlawful act ( only required for half the states)

D must intend for his actions to further criminal conduct

60
Q

Overt Act Requirement for Conspiracy under the MPC

A
  1. Any act is sufficient as long as the act is in furtherance of the crime
  2. mere preparation
61
Q

Unilateral Conspiracy

A

Recognized by the majority of states and exists when a single party is charged with conspiracy. (not permitted under common law)

62
Q

wharton’s rule

A

If the target requires two or more people, then conspiracy charge cannot be brought. Exception there are more people than necessary to complete the crime.

CL only, not MPC

63
Q

Defenses to conspiracy under common law and mpc?

A

CL: None. As soon as agreement is made, parties can be charged

MPC: withdrawal or abandonment

64
Q

When is accomplice criminally liable?

A
  1. Aids, abets, or encourages principal to commit crime
  2. with the intent to assist the principal
  3. with the intent for the principal to commit the crime
65
Q

Defenses to accomplice liability under common law?

A
  1. Withdrawal
    a. makes it clear to parties he is withdrawing and renouncing aid
    b. does everything possible to counter prior aid; and
    c. does so before the crime begins
  2. legal impossibility
66
Q

Defense to accomplice liability under MPC?

A

Withdrawal but only if D actually thwarts the success of the substantive crime

67
Q

Competence

A

Competence is determined at the time of trial, not at the time the crime was committed. A D is competent if he understands the nature of his crimes with which he is charged; the nature and consequences of the proceedings against him; and if he is able to participate effectively in his own defense.

68
Q

M’Naghten Test

A

Requires the D to show that he has a “disease of the mind” which caused a defect in reasoning such that he could not understand the “nature and quality” of his actions, or that what he was doing was wrong.

States have different requirements on what level of impairment is required for a disease of the mind.

69
Q

A motion for judgment

A

A motion for judgment of acquittal should be granted only if the prosecution has failed to present sufficient evidence for a reasonable jury to find that the D committed each element of the charged offense beyond a reasonable doubt.

70
Q

An unintended homicide is murder if it was a BIG death

A

B: it occurred during a BREAKERS felony
I: the D’s intent was to cause serious injury resulting in death;
G: the D created a GRAVE risk of death and the D consciously disregarded the risk (Depraved heart murder)

71
Q

Common law larceny requires TIP

A

T: Wrongful TAKING of property
I: Specific INTENT to permanently deprive the owner of that property
P: PERSONAL property of another is taken

72
Q

Does HOP or EDD allow reflection?

A

EED. HOP does not

73
Q

How to prove attempt

A

To prove attempt, the prosecution must prove that:

1) the D INTENDED to commit the crime, and
2) the D’s acts went sufficiently beyond MERE PREPARATION to commit the crime.

CL: D MUST COME DANGEROUSLY CLOSE committing the crime.

MPC: Requires D’s conduct is a SUBSTANTIAL STEP toward the crime and corroborative of his criminal intent.

Most states: abandonment is not a defense

74
Q

Willfullness

A

A D acts willfully when he acts with KNOWLEDGE that his conduct was UNLAWFUL. The Prosecutor must prove that the law posed a LEGAL DUTY, the D KNEW of that DUTY, and the D VOLUNTARILY and INTENTIONALLY violated that duty.

75
Q

What was murder at common law?

A

At common law, murder was the unlawful killing of another w/ malice aforethought

76
Q

The common law requirement of “malice aforethought is satisfied if the D has any of the following four mental states:

A
  1. Intent to kill
  2. the intent to inflict serious bodily
  3. Extreme recklessness, meaning reckless indifference to human life
  4. Felony murder
77
Q

Two limitations of felony murder

A
  1. D must have committed the underlying felony

2. the felony must be inherently dangerous

78
Q

Common Law Voluntary Manslaughter

A
  1. a killing committed intentionally
  2. in the heat of passion (no premeditation or deliberation)
  3. upon adequate provocation
79
Q

Two qualify for voluntary manslaughter, an intentional homicide must satisfy four requirements:

A
  1. the provocation must be objectively adequate, which means it would arouse a sudden and intense passion in the mind of a reasonable person
  2. the D was actually provoked
  3. the D did not have time to cool off
  4. the D did not actually cool off b/w provocation and killing
80
Q

Three Inchoate offenses

A

SAC

  1. Solicitation
  2. Conspiracy
  3. Attempt