crimin Flashcards

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1
Q

When is deadly force justified? What is the standard for using deadly force?

A

Justified only when it’s immediately necessary to repel imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury or being the victim of a violent felony. The standard is that the use of force must be proportional to the force being against the victim, must have a reasonable belief that deadly force is necessary, must be objectively reasonable.

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2
Q

What is the difference between a justification defense and an excuse defense? What is the rationale behind it?

A

Justification defenses include the defendant admitting they were responsible for their acts but claim that, under the circumstances, what they did was right. Excuse defenses include defendants admitting what they did was wrong but claim that, under the circumstances, they weren’t responsible for what they did. The rationale behind justification defenses is that the defendant had good reason for their actions because under the circumstances, they believe their actions were right. The rationale behind excuse defenses is that the defendant’s judgement was impaired due to mental disease or defect.

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3
Q

What is a perfect defense? What happens if perfect defense is successful? What is the result?

A

A perfect defense is the most affirmative defense where the defendants are acquitted if they’re successful.

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4
Q

What is a choice of evil’s defense/necessity defense? What are the elements of the necessity defense and what is at the heart of that defense?

A

A choice of evil’s defense is where the choice to commit a lesser crime to avoid the harm of a greater crime is justified. The elements are that this defense is justified if you are defending yourself, other, people, and your home.

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5
Q

When is self defense available? What must a defendant show to have a successful self defense claim? When can a victim who is the initial aggressor gain the right to use force and claim self defense?

A

Self defense is not available to attacks which are provoked, the victim can not instigate the attack. The elements of self defense are non aggressor, necessity, proportionality, and reasonable belief. The initial aggressor can justifiably defend themselves if the initial aggressor has withdrawn from the initial attack they provoked, they can defend themselves against an attack by their initial victims.

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6
Q

What is the stand your ground rule?

A

If you didn’t start a fight, you can stand your ground and kill to defend yourself without retreating from any place you have a right to be.

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7
Q

How does self defense apply to one unlawfully entering a person’s home? Castle Laws? Newcastle Laws? What has to be included in order for one to use deadly force under the Newcastle law when someone is unlawfully in their home; and is assumed to mean to kill or seriously injure the homeowner?

A

Self defense applies to one unlawfully entering a person’s home because the Castle Doctrine gave homeowners the right to defend or license to kill when someone trespasses on their property. The homeowner has the right to use any manner of force to protect their home and its inhabitants if they are unable to retreat. The new castle laws do not require someone to attempt to retreat, they can automatically react and shoot if they please.

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8
Q

What does the modern right to use force against someone unlawfully in your home include? Frontyard? Backyard? What is curtilage?

A

Curtilage is the immediate surroundings of a building. The modern right to use force against someone unlawfully in your home does not include the curtilage.

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9
Q

What are the requirements for necessity defense? What must the defendant show to have successful necessity?

A

The elements are identifying the evils, ranking the evils, and choosing based on the reasonable belief that the greater evil is imminent, meaning it is going to happen right now.

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10
Q

What is the defense of consent? What type of defense is it? Excuse or justification?

A

The defense of consent is the justification that competent adults voluntarily consented to crimes against themselves and knew what they were consenting to. This defense is a justification defense.

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11
Q

What can a person consent to? What can’t a person consent to? Can you consent to being assaulted? Can you consent to being raped?

A

You can not consent to being raped. A person can consent to situations where no serious injury results from the consensual crime, the injury happens during a sporting event, the conduct benefits the consenting person (surgery), or the consent is to sexual conduct.

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12
Q

Can someone consent to being a victim of domestic violence, allowing their partner to beat them and thinking they deserved it?

A

A person can legally consent to certain forms of violence as long as it is not involving a serious injury or potential risk of death. If the person was coerced and threatened into consenting then the person did not legally give consent.

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13
Q

When are consent defenses normally used? What must be shown in order for consent defense to be valid and successful?

A

Consent defenses are normally used in rape cases. The defendant must show that the consent was voluntary, knowing, and authorized.

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14
Q

What is subjective belief? What is objective belief?

A

Subjective belief is where the person honestly believed that they were in imminent danger, they needed to use force to fend it off, and they needed to use the amount of force they used. Objective belief is whether or not the person’s use of force was reasonable and coincides with the force a reasonable person would use.

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15
Q

When does insanity excuse criminal liability? What is true of most insanity defenses?

A

All insanity defenses require the person to be suffering from a mental disease or defect. Insanity excuses criminal liability when a mental disease or defect is eliminating or reducing the element of intent to commit a crime.

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16
Q

What is the name of the right wrong test of insanity?

A

The Mcnaughton rule.

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17
Q

What are the elements of Mcnaughton rule? What must the defendant show in this case?

A

The elements of the Mcnaughtan rule are the defendant suffered a defect of reason caused by a disease of the mind and at the time of the act the actor did not know the nature and quality of the act or that the act was wrong.

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18
Q

What counts as a mental disease or defect?

A

Mental diseases are defined as psychosis, mostly paranoia and schizophrenia. Mental defects refer to mental retardation or brain damage severe enough to make it impossible to know what you’re doing, or if you know, you don’t know that it’s wrong.

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19
Q

What is the Durham rule of insanity?

A

The Durham rule is acts that are the “products” of mental disease or defect excuse criminal liability.

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20
Q

What is the irresistible impulse test?

A

The irresistible impulse test is where we can’t blame or deter people who, because of a mental disease or defect, know that what they’re doing is “wrong” but can’t bring their actions into line with their knowledge of right and wrong.

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21
Q

What is the substantial capacity test?

A

The substantial capacity test is where a person is not responsible for criminal conduct if at the time of such conduct as a result of mental disease or defect they lack the substantial capacity either to appreciate the criminality of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirement of the law.

22
Q

Are most defendants successful when they go to trial with an insanity defense and the prosecution and defendant cannot agree whether the defendant is insane?

A

Most defendants are unsuccessful when they go to trial with an insanity defense because the prosecution does not agree that the defendant is legally insane.

23
Q

What is the defense of entrapment? What is the subjective test of entrapment and the objective test? What kind of cases is this defense most often used? What must a defendant show to be successful?

A

The defense of entrapment is the excuse that argues government agents got people to commit crimes that they wouldn’t otherwise commit. The subjective test of entrapment asks whether the intent to commit the crime originated with the defendant. The objective test of entrapment refers to if the intent originates with the government and their actions would tempt an “ordinarily law-abiding” person to commit the crime, the court should dismiss the case. The defendant has to prove the opportunity to commit the crime is presented by the state and that the opportunity was provided to a person not predisposed to commit the act.

23
Q

When is intoxication a defense to a crime? What is involuntary intoxication? Pathological intoxication? Which intoxication defense is not an excuse in many states?

A

Intoxication is a defense to a crime when the person is not voluntarily intoxicated. This happens when someone is given substances unknowingly by another person. Involuntary intoxication is an excuse to criminal liability in all states; it includes cases in which defendants don’t know they’re taking intoxicants or now but are forced to take them. Pathological intoxication is a rare condition where a small amount of alcohol or drug triggers an abnormal and severe reaction. Pathological intoxication is not an excuse in many states.

23
Q

When is a person found guilty of being an accessory after the fact? If you helped them clean their bloody clothes after a murder or helped them hide the weapon or burn the body, are you guilty of murder?

A

A person is found guilty of being an accessory after the fact when the person helped the perpetrator after the crime is committed. Helping someone clean up after the act means they can be guilty of the same crime.

23
Q

When can you be held criminally liable for someone else’s conduct?

A

You can be held criminally liable for someone else’s conduct when you are an accomplice, accessory, or vicariously liable.

23
Q

What is the defense of diminished capacity?

A

The defense of diminished capacity is a failure of proof defense in which the defense attempts to prove that the defendant, incapable of the requisite intent of the crime charged, is innocent of that crime but may well be guilty of a lesser crime.

23
Q

What is the duress defense? What does the defendant have to show to have a successful duress defense?

A

The duress defense is where defendants use the excuse that they were forced to do what they did. The defendant has to show the nature of the threat, immediacy of the threats, crimes the defense applies to, and the level of belief regarding the threat.

24
Q

Is an accomplice guilty of the crime itself or are they guilty of a separate, less serious crime?

A

Accomplice is guilty of the crime itself, an accomplished murder that they knew about or helped with means they are also guilty of the murder.

24
Q

Why is criminal liability opposed on accomplices and accessories? What is an accomplice? What is an accessory? What does the state have to prove to charge someone with being an accomplice or accessory?

A

Accomplices and accessories are criminally liable because they knew of the crime and helped try to cover it up. An accomplice is someone who is typically present at the scene of the crime and assists the principal offender before and during the crime. An accessory is not present at the scene and only helps the principal offender before or after the crime is committed. The state has to prove that the accomplice was there for the crime and knew about it and has to prove that the accessory aided the person before or after the crime.

24
Q

What is vicarious liability? How does it transfer actus rea and mens rea from one person to another or from one person to another enterprise? How is vicarious liability created, it is created by statute, courts, in some other manner?

A

Vicarious liability is based on a relationship. Vicarious liability is created when someone is considered legally responsible for someone else’s actions, normally an employee and an employer.

24
Q

What is the mere presence rule? What is the exception to the mere presence rule?

A

The mere presence rule is a person’s presence at, and flight from, the scene of a crime aren’t enough to satisfy the actus reus requirement of accomplice liability. The exception to the mere presence rule is that there is no duty to attempt to stop a crime from occurring when one comes across a crime in progress.

25
Q

What does complicity mean?

A

Complicity establishes when you can be held criminally liable for someone else’s conduct either as an accomplice, accessory, or by vicarious liability.

26
Q

What is respondeat superior? How is it used?

A

Respondeat superior is a doctrine in tort law that makes a master liable for the wrong of a servant; in modern terms, an employer may be liable for the wrong of an employee.

27
Q

What is the case of State vs. Chism?

A

Brian Chism was convicted by a judge of being an accessory after the fact and sentenced to 3 years in the parish prison.

28
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter? Involuntary manslaughter? What is not deemed to be a legally adequate provocation?

A

Voluntary manslaughter is often referred to as passion, provocation. This is the sudden intentional killing in a heat of anger or passion brought on by a legally adequate provocation. There cannot be a cool off period because it changes to murder.

29
Q

What is a felony murder? What is the rationale? What must the state prove to be successful?

A

Felony murder is an unintentional death that occurs during the commission of some felonies. A felon is held strictly liable for all killings by him or his accomplices in the course of the felony. As long as the death is the direct causal result of the felony being committed, the felony-murder rule applies whether or not the death was a natural or probable sequence of the felony.

30
Q

What are the objective and subjective tests of cooling off?

A

The objective test is even if they were still angry and acting in the heat of anger, would a reasonable person have had time to cool off. The subjective test is did the person cool off when they committed the homicide.

31
Q

What is the definition of recklessness? Definition of negligence?

A

Recklessness is consciously disregarding substantial risk, aware of the risk and consciously disregarding it. Negligence is where the perpetrator should be aware of substantial risk that will result from conduct, actors fail to perceive the risk.

32
Q

What are rape shield statutes?

A

Rape shield statutes are court rules that limit the ability of the defendant’s counsel to introduce the accuser’s sexual history as evidence during a rape trial.

33
Q

What must the state show to prove a rape? What are the elements of rape? What must the State prove to show that a threat of force was used? What is the most common type of rape?

A

The intentional penetration, sexual penetration by force or threat of force without the consent of the victim. The state is relying upon a threat of force as opposed to actual physical force being used.

34
Q

What is statutory rape?

A

Statutory rape is nonforcible sexual activity in which one of the individuals is below the age of consent.

35
Q

What is the difference between aggravated sexual assault or aggravated rape and simple sexual assault or simple rape?

A

Aggravated sexual assault is rape by strangers or individuals with weapons who physically injure their victims. Simple sexual assault is rape by strangers or individuals where there was no consent

36
Q

What is a battery? What is an assault?

A

Battery is unwanted physical offensive touching, mental state is purposely, knowingly, recklessly, and in some state negligently. Assault is attempted battery or threatened battery.

37
Q

What is stalking? What tests do we use to determine if the victim was in fear? What test does the Model Penal Code use?

A

Stalking is a way of putting someone in fear through harassing, tormenting, following, spying, approaching, confronting, placing objects on the victim’s property, sending victim objects, text messages repeatedly. The model penal code uses the subjective and objective fear test.

38
Q

What are the elements of kidnapping? What is the difference between aggravated and simple kidnapping? What is the asportation requirement?

A

One element of all kidnapping statutes is the asportation requirement. Aggravated kidnapping is kidnapping for the purpose of sexual invasions, obtaining a hostage, obtaining a ransom, robbing the victim, murdering the victim, blackmailing, terrorizing the victim, or achieving political aims. Simple kidnapping is kidnapping not elevated to a statutory form of aggravated kidnapping, the movement needed must be substantial.

39
Q

What is an inchoate crime?

A

Crime that is not completed

40
Q

What is the rationale for attempt crimes? What are the 2 types of danger? What are the different tests of criminal attempt? The proximity test? Factual impossibility?

A

These are crimes because we’re focusing on 2 types of danger. The proximity test is for whether or not the crime is possible. Factual impossibility is when you have the intent to commit the crime and you attempt to commit it but it is factually impossible.

41
Q

What is the abandonment defense?

A

The person abandoned the idea and attempt before it got far enough to be an attempt.

42
Q

What are the elements of conspiracy? What are the actus rea and mens rea of conspiracy?

A

Conspiracy is merely an agreement to commit a crime with an overt act in furtherance of that agreement. The actus reus of conspiracy consists of 2 parts: an agreement to commit a crime and an overt act in furtherance of the agreement. The mens rea of conspiracy is when the mental element in conspiracy, frequently identified as specific intent by authorities, but it’s not defined clearly in statutes and it’s defined inconsistently by courts.