Crime Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic elements of a crime?

A

Act, intent, causation, and concurrence.

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2
Q

What is required to establish causation in a crime?

A

The defendant’s acts must be both the actual and proximate cause of the outcome.

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3
Q

What does proximate cause refer to?

A

It is present if the outcome was foreseeable.

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4
Q

Define accomplice liability.

A

A person is guilty as an accomplice if he assists or encourages the principal with dual intents: (1) intent to assist the primary party, and (2) intent that the primary party commit the offense charged.

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5
Q

What is the mens rea required for murder?

A

Malice aforethought

Express Malice: This refers to the specific intent to kill or cause serious bodily harm.
Implied Malice: This occurs when the defendant demonstrates a conscious disregard for human life, often referred to as “depraved indifference”.

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6
Q

What distinguishes first-degree murder from second-degree murder?

A

First-degree murder requires intent to kill with premeditation and deliberation.

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7
Q

What is second-degree murder?

A

It is satisfied by the intent to inflict great bodily harm or by acting with reckless disregard of an extreme risk to human life.

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8
Q

What does felony murder apply to?

A

Any killing that occurs during the commission of a felony, an attempt to commit a felony, or a flight from a felony.

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9
Q

Define voluntary manslaughter.

A

An intentional killing of a human being without malice aforethought committed in the heat of passion due to adequate provocation.

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10
Q

What characterizes involuntary manslaughter?

A

The defendant causes death by engaging in conduct that creates an unreasonable risk of death or serious bodily injury.

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11
Q

What is the mens rea for an attempt crime?

A

Intent.

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12
Q

What must the prosecution prove to establish attempt?

A
  • The defendant intended to commit the crime
  • The defendant’s acts went sufficiently beyond mere preparation.
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13
Q

What is duress in criminal law?

A

The defendant commits a crime due to a threat or use of force that causes reasonable fear of imminent death or serious bodily injury.

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14
Q

What test do most states use for insanity?

A

The M’Naghten test.

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15
Q

What does the Fourth Amendment protect against?

A

Unreasonable searches and seizures.

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16
Q

What is required for a person to have standing to challenge a Fourth Amendment issue?

A

The person must have an expectation of privacy in the thing searched or seized.

17
Q

What is the plain view exception?

A

Officers may seize an object without a warrant if its incriminating character is immediately apparent and they have a lawful right of access.

18
Q

What is required for a Terry stop?

A

Reasonable, articulable suspicion that the individual has been involved in criminal activity.

19
Q

What does the Fourteenth Amendment address regarding confessions?

A

Voluntariness under the Due Process Clause.

20
Q

When does the Sixth Amendment right to counsel attach?

A

When judicial proceedings have begun.

21
Q

What must law enforcement do during custodial interrogation according to the Fifth Amendment?

A

Read Miranda warnings to the suspect.

22
Q

What is required for a valid Miranda waiver?

A

The suspect must make a knowing, intelligent, and voluntary waiver.

23
Q

What is a valid Miranda invocation?

A

The suspect must be explicit, unambiguous, and unequivocal in making the request.

24
Q

What happens if a Miranda violation occurs?

A

The statements are excluded from the prosecutor’s case-in-chief.