crim pro flashcards

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1
Q

For the fourth Amendment to apply, there must be an affirmative answer to:

A
  1. Was the search or seizure executed by a government agent?2. Was the search or seizure of an area or item protected by the 4th amendment?3. Did the government agent either (a) physically intrude on a protected area to obtain information; or (b) violate an individual’s reasonable expectation of privacy in a protected area or item?4. Did the individual subjected to the search or seizure have standing to challenge the government agent’s conduct?
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2
Q

The fourth amendment expressly protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures of their:

A

Persons, houses (cutilage), Papers, letters, and effects.

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3
Q

Unprotected Items:

A

Public Observation Generally Obliterates Fourth Amendment Protection. 1. Physical Characteristics2. Odors3. Garbage 4. Open Fields5. Financial Records 6. Airspace (public Airspace)7. Pin Registers

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4
Q

There are two ways in which searches and seizures by government agents can implicate an individual’s 4th amendment rights:

A
  1. Trespass based test: The agent physically intruded on a constitutionally protected area in order to obtain information. 2. Privacy based test: (more commonly used): The agent’s search or seizure of a constitutionally protected area violated an individual’s reasonable expectation of privacy.
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5
Q

To satisfy the privacy based test an individual must show:

A
  1. An actual or subjective expectation of privacy in the area searched or items seized; and 2. That the privacy expectation would be one that society recognizes as reasonable.
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6
Q

For a person to have standing…

A

an individual’s personal privacy rights must be invaded, not this of a third party.

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7
Q

How to determine whether a warrant is sufficient…

A
  1. Was the warrant issued by a neutral and detached magistrate?2. Is the warrant supported by probable cause and particularity?3. If not, did police officers rely on a defective warrant in good faith?4. Was the warrant properly executed by the police?
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8
Q

Probable cause requires proof of a…

A

fair probability that contraband or evidence of crime will be found in the area searched.

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9
Q

The sufficiency of an informant’s tip rests on:

A

corroboration by the police of enough of tipsters information to allow the magistrate to make a common sense practical determination that probable cause exists based on a totality of the circumstances.

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10
Q

To satisfy the particularity requirement, a search warrant must specify two things:

A
  1. The place to be searched and 2. The items to be seized
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11
Q

Good Faith Exception:

A

g

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12
Q

Exceptions to Good Faith:

A
  1. The affidavit is so egregiously lacking in probable cause that no reasonable officer would have relied on it. 2. The warrant was so facially deficient in particularity that officers could not reasonably presume it to be valid. 3. The affidavit relied upon by the magistrate contains knowing or reckless falsehoods that are necessary to the probable cause finding. 4. The magistrate who issued the warrant is bias in favor of the prosecution.
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13
Q

How to determine if the search warrant was properly executed by the police.

A
  1. Compliance with the warrant’s terms and limitation: In executing a warrant, officers are allowed to search only those areas and items authorized by the language of the warrant. 2. Knock and announce rule: Police ,must knock and announce their presence and their purpose before forcibly entering the place to be search, unless the officer reasonably believes that doing so would be- (a) futile, (b) dangerous, and/or (c) would inhibit the investigation.
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14
Q

In Maryland a search warrant must be executed within____

A

15 days…if not a new search warrant must be obtained.

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15
Q

In Maryland, can a judge issue a no-knock warrant?

A

No, judges may not issue a no-knock warrant.

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16
Q

Warrant requirement exceptions:

A

ESCAPIST1. Exigent Circumstances 2. Search incident to arrest 3. Consent 4. Automobiles 5. Plain View 6. Inventory 7. Special Needs 8. Terry Stop and Frisk

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17
Q

Three types of exigent circumstances:

A
  1. Evanescent Evidence: evidence that would dissipate or disappear in the time it would take to obtain a warrant. (Blood alcohol tests are different) 2. Hot Pursuit of a flying felon: Hot pursuit allows police officer to enter the home of a suspect or a third party to search for a fleeing felon. During hot pursuit any evidence of a crime discovered in plain view while searching for the suspect is admissible. 3. Emergency Aid Exception: Police may enter a residence without a warrant when there is an objectively reasonable basis for believing that a person inside is in need of emergency aid to address or prevent injury.
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18
Q

Search Incident to Arrest Exception

A
  1. Arrest must be lawful2. Search must be contemporaneous in time and place with the arrest3. The police may search areas within the wingspan of the arrestee. (Includes the body , clothing, and any containers within the arrestee’s immediate control without regard to the offense for which the arrest was made.
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19
Q

Permissible Scope of Automobile searches incident to arrest

A

Police may search the passenger cabin including closed containers but not the trunk.

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20
Q

Secured versus unsecured arrestes as it pertains to automobile searches

A

Once an officer has secured an arrestee the officer may search the arrestee’s vehicle only if she has reason to believe the vehicle may contain evidence relating to the crime for which the arrest was made.

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21
Q

Consent exception:

A
  1. consent must be voluntary 2. Consent to search extends to all areas for which a reasonable officer would believe permission to search was granted (may be limited)3. If an office obtains consent to search from someone who lacks “actual” authority to grant it, the consent is still valid under the 4th amendment, provided the officer reasonably believed that the consenting party had actual authority.
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22
Q

Automobile exception

A

Police officers need probable cause to believe that contraband or evidence of crime will be found in he vehicle. If they have that, the officers may search the entire vehicle and they may open any package, luggage, or other container that may reasonably contain the items for which there was probable cause to search.

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23
Q

Pain View Requirements

A
  1. Police must be in a lawful place 2. Lawful access to the item searched3. The criminality of the item must be immediately apparent
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24
Q

Inventory searches

A

Commonly occur in two contexts: (1) Arrestees when they are booked into jail (2) Vehicles when they are impounded

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25
Q

Inventory searches are constitutional if three requirements are met:

A
  1. The regulations governing them are reasonable in scope. 2. If the search itself complies with the regs 3. The search is conducted in good faith.(motivated solely by the ned to safeguard the owner’s possessions and or to ensure officer safety.)
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26
Q

Terry Stop and Frisks…What is a terry stop?

A

It is a temporary detention or seizure for the purpose of investing suspicious conduct.

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27
Q

When are you seized for 4th amendment purposes?

A

An individual is seized for 4th Amendment purposes when, based on the totality of the circumstances, a reasonable person would not feel free to leave or to decline an officer’s request to answer questions.

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28
Q

In evaluating whether an individual has been seized during questioning by law enforcement, you should consider:

A
  1. Whether an officer brandishes a weapon, 2. The officer’s tone and demeanor when interacting with the person questioned, 3. Whether the individual was told she had the right to refuse consent.
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29
Q

When being pursued by an officer, an individual is seized only if

A

he submits to the officer’s authority by stopping or if the officer physically restrains him.

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30
Q

Three important traffic stop principles:

A
  1. In traffic stops, both the driver and the passengers are seized, such that either can challenge he legality of the stop. 2. In a traffic stop, the officer may, in her discretion, order both the driver and the passengers out of the vehicle. 3. Dog sniffs at traffic stops are permissible provided the sniff does not prolong the stop unreasonably.
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31
Q

MD rule with regard to traffic stops:

A

An alert to the detection of drugs in a vehicle by a K-9 officer establishes probable cause to search the vehicle, but does not establish PC to search a passenger in the vehicle.

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32
Q

What is a Terry Frisk?

A

It is a pat down of the body and outer clothing for weapons that is justified by an officers belief that a suspect is armed and dangerous.

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33
Q

What can you seize during a terry frisk?

A

If during a Terry frisk, an officer finds something she reasonably believes to be a weapon, it can always be seized. If, instead, the officer finds something she recognizes as contraband without manipulating the object, she can seize it as well.

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34
Q

Car Frisks

A

When conducting a traffic stop, if an officer believes that a suspect is dangerous, he may search the passenger cabin of the suspect’s vehicle, limited to those areas in which a weapon may be placed or hidden.

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35
Q

Protective Sweep

A

When making an in home arrest, police may “sweep” the residence to look for criminal confederates of the arrestee whose presence may threaten officer safety.

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36
Q

What evidentiary standard applies to Terry stops and Frisks?

A

Reasonable Suspicion

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37
Q

What is reasonable suspicion?

A

Requires specific and articulable facts that inform an officers belief that criminal activity is present or afoot.

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38
Q

What evidentiary standard applies to protective sweeps?

A

Whenever officers are making an in-home arrest officers have the authority to look in areas adjoining the place of arrest from which an attack could be immediately launched. To justify a sweep in more remote areas, the arresting officers must have additional information sufficient to allow them to conclude that an individual who may threaten officer safety is present in the area swept.

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39
Q

Special Needs Doctrine concerns the needs of

A

law enforcement, governmental employers and school officials beyond a general interest in law enforcement.

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40
Q

Drug testing: The US SC has approved warrantless, suspicionless, drug tests in a variety of contexts including:

A
  1. Railroad employees, following an impact accident. 2. Custom agents responsible for drug interdiction; and 3. Public school children who participate in any extracurricular activities.
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41
Q

Search of Parolees:

A

warrantless, suspicionless searches of a parolee and his home are permissible as a condition of parole.

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42
Q

School Searches

A

Warrantless searches of the person and the effects of public schoolchildren are permissible to investigate violations of school rules, such as the prohibition of smoking on school grounds, provided the search is reasonable at its inception and is not excessively intrusive in light of the age and sex of the student and the nature of the infraction.

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43
Q

Boarder searches:

A

Neither citizens nor non-citizens have any 4th amendment rights at the boarder with respect to routine searches of persons and effects.

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44
Q

Exclusionary Rule

A

Evidence, whether physical or testimonial, that is obtained in violation of a federal statutory or constitutional provision is inadmissible in court against the individual whose rights were violated.

45
Q

Three exceptions/limitations of the fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine:

A
  1. Independent Source: source for discovery and seizure of the evidence that is distinct from the original illegality. 2. Inevitable Discovery: where the evidence would necessarily been discovered through lawful means. 3. Attenuation: passage of time and intervening events purge the taint of the original illegality and restore the defendant’s free will.
46
Q

Four major requirements for a valid wiretap warrant:

A

“Screen Telephone Calls Carefully”1. Suspected Persons: The warrant must name the suspected persons whose conversations are to be overheard. 2. Time: the wiretap must be for a strictly limited time period. 3. Crime: There must be probable cause that a specific crime has been committed. 4. Conversations: The warrant must describe with particularity the conversations that can be overheard.

47
Q

When does an arrest occur?

A

An arrest occurs whenever police take someone into custody against her will for prosecution or interrogation. De-facto arrest: when police compel someone to come to the police station for questioning or fingerprinting.

48
Q

What standard of proof applies for arrests?

A

Probable cause

49
Q

When do you need an arrest warrant?

A
  1. No arrest warrant needed to arrest someone in a public place 2. Absent an emergency, police officers need a warrant to arrest someone in his or her home. 3. To arrest someone in the home of a third party, police officers need an arrest warrant and a search warrant.
50
Q

What is the standard for excluding a confession under the Due Process Clause?

A

Involuntariness, which means that the confession is the product of police coercion that overbears the suspect’s will.

51
Q

In MD when will an otherwise voluntary confession be suppressed?

A

If it is the product of promises or inducement

52
Q

When does the 6th amendment attach?

A

when the Defendant is formally charged NOT UPON ARREST. Applies to all critical stages of the prosecution that take place after the filing of formal charges including arraignment, probable cause hearings, police interrogation and plea bargaining.

53
Q

Is the 6th amendment offense specific?

A

Yes, it applies only to the crimes with which the D is formally charged. It provides no protection for uncounseled interrogation for other uncharged criminal activity.

54
Q

Incriminating statements as it pertains to the 6th amendment

A

Incriminating statements obtained from the defendant by law enforcement about charged offenses violate the 6th amendment if those statements are deliberately illicited and the defendant did not knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily waive his right to have his attorney present.

55
Q

What are the four core Miranda warnings?

A

1, Right to remain silent2. Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law 3. The right to an attorney 4. If you cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed for you.

56
Q

When are Miranda warnings necessary?

A

when a person is in custody and interrogated

57
Q

When is a person in custody?

A

when:1. A reasonable person would have felt that she was not at liberty to end the interrogation and leave and 2. The environment presents the same inherently coercive pressures as the station house questioning at issue in Mirada.

58
Q

What is interrogation as it applies to Miranda?

A

Any conduct that the police knew or should have known was likely to illicit and incriminating response. Does not apply to spontaneous statements

59
Q

Public Safety Exception to the Miranda Doctrine:

A

If a subject is subjected to custodial interrogation, as defined above, the Miranda doctrine applies with one exception: If the custodial interrogation is prompted by an immediate concern for public safety Miranda warnings are unnecessary and any incriminating statements are admissible against the suspect.

60
Q

Unless the public safety exception applies, a suspects incriminating testimonial responses obtained through custodial interrogation are admissible if (and only if) an officer does two things:

A

Reasonably conveys to the suspect his or her core Miranda rights; and Thereafter obtains a valid waiver of a suspects Miranda rights to silence and counsel

61
Q

What are the two core requirements of a valid miranda waiver?

A

Waiver must be voluntary, knowingly and intelligently given. A waiver is knowingly and intelligent if the suspect understands: 1. the nature of the rights and 2. the consequences of abandoning themWaiver is voluntary if it is not the product of police coercion.

62
Q

Who has the BOP when it applies to a Miranda waiver?

A

The prosecution bears the BOP in proving a valid waiver of a suspect’s Miranda rights by a preponderance of the evidence.

63
Q

Invoking the right to remain silent:

A
  1. Suspect must unambiguously invoke their right to remain silent. 2. Once invoked officers must scrupulously honor that invocation. This means that the police may not badger the suspect into talking in addition officers must wait a significant amount of time before reinitiating questioning and must first obtain a valid waiver.
64
Q

Invoking the right to counsel

A
  1. Must be sufficiently clear that a reasonable officer in the same situation would understand the statement to be a request for counsel. 2. Once right is invoked all questioning must cease unless initiated by the suspect. 3. Not offense specific….interrogation as to all topics must cease. 4. request for counsel expires 14 days after a suspect is released from custody.
65
Q

Three types of pretrial identifications:

A
  1. Line-up: witness is asked to identify the perpetrator from a group 2. Show-up: one-on-one confrontation between the witness and the suspect. 3. Photo arrays: witness is shown a series of photos and is asked if she sees the perpetrator among them.
66
Q

6th Amendment right to counsel for pretrial identifications

A

A right to counsel exists under the 6th amendment at line ups and show ups that take place after formal charging; however, there is NO 6th amendment right to counsel at photo arrays! (Bar MBE favorite)

67
Q

5th Amendment right to counsel for pretrial identifications

A

The is no 5th amendment right to counsel under the Miranda doctrine for pretrial identification procedures.

68
Q

When does pretrial identification procedures violate the Due process clause of the 14th amendment?

A

when it is so unnecessarily suggestive that it creates a substantial likelihood of misidentification. In making this determination, course must weigh the reliability of a suggestive identification against its corruptive effect.

69
Q

MD distinctions of BOP of pretrial identification violations:

A

Once the defendant establishes that the identification procedure was unnecessarily suggestive, the burden shifts to the state to prove by clear and convincing evidence that the reliability outweighs its corrupting effect.

70
Q

In MD, an arrestee must appear before a District Court Commissioner no more than ____ after arrest

A

24 hours

71
Q

A hearing to determine probable cause is unnecessary if:

A

The grand jury has issued an indictment and a magistrate has issued an arrest warrant

72
Q

Evidentiary disclosure: A prosecutor must disclose to a criminal defendant all: (Brady Rule)

A

material, exculpatory evidence

73
Q

MD distinction for Evidentiary Disclosure: The state is obligated to disclose:

A
  1. all material, exculpatory evidence and 2. material subject to a motion to suppress; including any statements made by the defendant; and any pretrial identifications.
74
Q

The right to an unbiased judge means two things:

A
  1. The judge has no financial stake in the outcome and 2. The judge has no actual malice towards the defendant.
75
Q

Criminal Defendants have a right to a jury when the maximum authorized sentence exceeds____

A

6 months.

76
Q

The fewest number of jurors allowed in a criminal trial is ____

A

6

77
Q

Jury verdicts in criminal trials must be unanimous only if ___ jurors are used. Verdicts in ___ person juries need not be unanimous.

A

6 and 12

78
Q

In MD, absent a waiver from the defendant, jury trials require ___ jurors whose verdict must be ___

A

12 and unanimous

79
Q

Two Prong test for Ineffective assistance of Counsel

A
  1. Deficiency: Defendant must show that his counsel’s performance fell below an objective standard of reasonableness meaning that counsel made errors so serious that he was not functioning as counsel and 2. Prejudice: D must also show that, but for the deficiency the outcome of the trial would have been different.
80
Q

For a guilty plea to be valid, the judge must establish that

A

it is voluntary and intelligent.

81
Q

Before accepting the plea, the judge must in open court address on the record:

A
  1. The nature of the charges, including required elements of the charged offense and 2. The consequences of the plea (waiver of the right to plead no guilty; waiver of the right to a trial.
82
Q

Once a D who has pled guilty is sentenced, it is difficult for him to withdraw his plea. He may do so, however, if:

A
  1. The plea is involuntary, due to a defect in the plea taking colloquy; 2. The defendant prevails on a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel; or 3. The prosecutor fails to fulfill his or her part of the bargain.
83
Q

The 8th amendment prohibition against cruel and unusual punishment disallows criminal penalties that are:

A

grossly disproportionate to the seriousness of the offense committed.

84
Q

A death penalty statute would violate the 8th amendment if it created

A

an automatic category for the imposition of the death penalty.

85
Q

In deciding whether to impose the death penalty, jurors must be allowed to consider

A

all potentially mitigating evidence

86
Q

The 8th amendment prohibits the imposition of the death penalty:

A
  1. Against D’s with mental retardation2. Against D’s who are presently insane 3. Against defendants who were under the age of 18 at the time the relevant offense occurred (not their present age). - also may not be sentenced to life in prison without the possibility of parole. 4. On crimes against individual persons (child rape) where the victim did not die.
87
Q

Does Maryland have the death penalty?

A

It has been repealed

88
Q

What are the four exceptions to the double jeopardy rule that permit retrial?

A
  1. A hung jury 2. A mistrial for manifest necessity 3. A successful appeal, unless the reversal on appeal was based on the insufficiency of the evidence presented by the prosecution at trial; or 4. A breach of the plea bargain by the defendant
89
Q

Three ways to eliminate the self incrimination right:

A
  1. Grant of Immunity: Prosecutors can grant use and derivative use immunity which bars the government from using your testimony or anything derived from it to convict you.2. Taking the stand: by taking the stand, the defendant waives the ability to “Take the fifth” as to anything properly within the scope of cross examination. 3: Statute of Limitations: The privilege is unavailable if the statute of limitations has run on the underlying crime since, in this circumstance, a witness’s testimony could not expose him or her to criminal prosecution.
90
Q

When describing a bargain for exchange what is the legal detriment?

A

It will result if the promisee does something he was under no obligation to do or refrains from doing something that he has a legal right to do.

91
Q

Same offense requirement for Double Jeopardy:

A

Two offenses are not the “same offense” for purposes of double jeopardy if each contains an element the other does not.

92
Q

In double jeopardy, what is the Greater and Lesser Included Offense Rule?

A
  1. Prosecution for a greater offense precludes the later prosecution for the lesser-included offense. 2. Prosecution for the lesser-included offense also precludes later prosecution for the greater offense.
93
Q

Sentence enhancement rule:

A

Any fact that increases either the statutory minimum or the mandatory minimum sentence for a crime must be found by the jury not the judge. However, a decision as to whether sentences for multiple crimes are to run consecutively or concurrently may be made by the judge.

94
Q

All criminal defendants have a right to a ____ and ____ jury

A

fair and impartial

95
Q

Cross sectional requirement regarding jurors

A

requires that the pool from which the jury is drawn represents a cross-section of the community; therefore, a jury that contains all white women over the age of 60 does not violate the requirement, provided the pool from which it was drawn was appropriately diverse.

96
Q

Peremptory Challenges:

A

Peremptory challenges permit both sides to exclude jurors without stating their reasons for doing so, but they cannot be used by either side to exclude prospective jurors on account of race or gender.

97
Q

Soon after arrest, a defendant must be brought before a magistrate- in MD what is tis person called?

A

District Cout Commissioner

98
Q

What does the magistrate or district court commissioner do in the first appearance?

A
  1. Advise the D of his rights2. Appoint Counsel 3. Set bail
99
Q

What are the bail guidelines?

A

To comply with the constitutional prohibition on excessive bail, the amount should generally be no greater than what is necessary to ensure the accused’s presence at trial; however, bail may be denied, and the accused detained pending trial, based on proof of danger to the community.

100
Q

In First Appearances, the government needs____ to bind a defendant over for trial and to detain him in jail before trial.

A

probable cause

101
Q

The remedy for constitutional violations in pretrial identifications is the exclusion of:

A

a witness’s in court identification

102
Q

If there is a constitutional violation in a pretrial identification procedure, an in court identification will still be allowed if the prosecution can prove that it is based on:

A

observations other than the unconstitutional show-up, line-up, or photo array. To make such a showing, the prosecution can point to factors such as: 1. The witness’ opportunity to view the D at the crime scene 2. The specificity of the description given to the police; and 3. The certainty of the witness’s identification.

103
Q

What do grand juries do?

A

they issue indictments

104
Q

Are grand jury proceedings public?

A

no

105
Q

In MD, what offense requires a grand jury indictment?

A

no offense requires such

106
Q

A Miranda waiver need not be express instead, it may be?

A

implied by a course of conduct that indicates the desire to speak with police interrogators. If suspect has received and understood his Miranda rights, he waives his right to remain silent by making an uncoerced statement to the police.

107
Q

Incriminating statements obtained in violation of a suspect’s Miranda rights are:

A

inadmissible in the prosecution’s case in chief but may be used to impeach the defendant’s testimony on cross examination.

108
Q

Failure to give a suspect Miranda Warnings does NOT require the suppression of the:

A

physical fruits of incriminating statements, provided the statements are voluntary.

109
Q

If testimonial evidence that should have been excluded as violative of Miranda was improperly admitted at trial, and the defendant was convicted, is the court required to vacate the guilty verdict?

A

It depends…The verdict will stand if the government can prove, beyond a reasonable doubt that the error was harmless because the defendant would have been convicted without the tainted evidence. **Harmless error test also applies to physical evidence improperly admitted under the fourth amendment.