Crim & Crim Pro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the Reply Letter Doctrine?

A

Under the reply letter doctrine (an evidence doctrine), a document may be authenticated by evidence that it was written in response to a communication, so long as it is unlikely, based on the contents, that it was written by someone other than the recipient of the first communication

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2
Q

Does an offender at a probation hearing have an absolute right to counsel?

A

No.
An offender does not have an absolute constitutional right to counsel at a probation revocation hearing when an already-imposed sentence is executed as a result of the revocation of probation. Instead, an offender only has such a right if it is necessary for a fair trial.

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3
Q

Common-law murder

A

the unlawful killing of another human being committed with malice aforethought

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4
Q

Redline Rule

A

Under the Redline doctrine, a defendant is generally not guilty of felony murder when a victim or a police officer, acting in self-defense or trying to prevent the escape of the defendant or his co-felon, kills the co-felon. However, this is only applicable as a defense to felony murder for the death of a co-felon during a felony.

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5
Q

False Pretenses

A

False pretenses requires (i) obtaining title to the property (ii) of another person (iii) through the reliance of that person (iv) on a known false representation of a material past or present fact, and (v) the representation is made with the intent to defraud.

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6
Q

How do you authenticate voice evidence?

A

A voice can be identified by any person who has heard the voice at any time.

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7
Q

How may a defendant challenge a facially warrant in an attempt to suppress evidence obtained?

A

A defendant can successfully challenge a facially valid warrant only when the defendant can establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (i) the affidavit contained false statements that were made by the affiant knowingly, intentionally, or with a reckless disregard for their truth; and (ii) the false statements were necessary to the finding of probable cause.

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8
Q

What is the extent of prosecutorial immunity?

A

A prosecutor is absolutely immune from civil liability for damages resulting from his prosecutorial acts unless it is clear that the prosecutor did not have jurisdiction

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9
Q

Conspiracy + Majority Rule

A

Conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to accomplish an unlawful purpose with the intent to accomplish that purpose. The majority rule requires an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy, although the common law does not. A conspirator can be convicted of both the offense of conspiracy and all substantive crimes committed by any other co-conspirators acting in furtherance of the conspiracy.

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10
Q

Larceny

A

Larceny is the (i) trespassory (ii) taking and carrying away (iii) of the personal property of another (iv) with the intent to permanently deprive that person of the property. If the defendant intends only to borrow the property with the ability to do so, then larceny does not occur because there is no intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property.

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11
Q

Doctrine of Transferred Intent

A

When a defendant acts with an intent to cause harm to one person and that act directly results in harm to another person. Under the doctrine of transferred intent, the defendant is treated as having the intent to cause harm to the person harmed.

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12
Q

Larceny by Trick

A

A defendant is guilty of larceny by trick if she obtains possession (but not title) to property owned by another through fraud or deceit, with the intent to permanently deprive the victim of that property, resulting in the conversion of the property.

i.e. larceny w/o the trespassory taking

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13
Q

Solicitation

A

Solicitation is the enticing, encouraging, requesting, or commanding of another person to commit a crime with the intent that the other person commits the crime

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14
Q

Is factual impossibility a defense to solicitation?

A

Nope.

Factual impossibility is NOT a defense to solicitation.

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15
Q

What is factual impossibility?

A

Factual impossibility is not a defense to solicitation.

(Think of the fact pattern where the girl tries to poison her hippy parents with the wrong berries.)

Factual impossibility isn’t a defense to the crime of attempt.

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16
Q

When is involuntary intoxication a defense?

A

When it serves to negate an element of the crime.

Involuntary intoxication is a defense when the intoxication serves to negate an element of the crime, including general as well as specific-intent and malice crimes. To be considered involuntary, the intoxicating substance must have been taken without knowledge of the intoxicating nature of the substance, including substances taken pursuant to medical advice.

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17
Q

Common law conspiracy

A

At common law, a conspirator cannot be convicted of conspiracy if all other conspirators are acquitted at the same trial, because there must be more than one conspirator to have a conspiracy.

Takes two tango

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18
Q

Tell me about bigamy

A

Two marriages concurrently.

Bigamy is a strict-liability crime and does not require a mens rea, or guilty mind. Rather, proof of the actus reus, the bad or unlawful act, is sufficient for a conviction.

Yikes.

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19
Q

Can a person be convicted as an accomplice to a crime even if he was not involved in the principal’s criminal actions?

A

YES.

An accomplice is responsible for the crime to the same extent as the principal. An accomplice who is neither physically nor constructively present during the commission of the crime, but who possesses the requisite intent, is an accessory before the fact

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20
Q

Can a person be convicted as an accomplice even if the principal was not convicted? (Modern approach)

A

YES.
By modern statute, in a majority of jurisdictions, an accomplice may be convicted of a crime even if the principal is not tried, is not convicted, has been given immunity from prosecution, or is acquitted.

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21
Q

Forgery

A

Forgery is the making of a false writing with apparent legal significance and with the intent to defraud. Making includes creating, altering, or fraudulently inducing another to sign a document when that person is unaware of the significance of the document.

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22
Q

When is malice aforethought required, and what is it?

A

Common-law murder is the unlawful killing of another human being committed with malice aforethought. “Malice aforethought” includes reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life.

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23
Q

Accomplice (Majority and MPC)

A

An accomplice is a person who, with the purpose of promoting or facilitating the commission of the offense, aids or abets a principal prior to or during the commission of the crime. However, a person is not guilty as an accomplice when that person’s action is itself an essential element of the crime. When the crime requires another party (i.e., the crime of distributing drugs requires a purchaser), the other party is not, simply by engaging in the criminal act, guilty of the crime as an accomplice.

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24
Q

Involuntary manslaughter

A

Involuntary manslaughter is an unintentional homicide committed with criminal negligence or during an unlawful act.

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25
Q

First degree murder

A

First-degree murder is a statutorily created category of murder that requires premeditation and deliberation with a specific intent to kill.

Deliberate means the defendant made the decision to kill in a cool and dispassionate manner.

Depending on the jurisdiction, felony murder may also constitute first-degree murder.

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26
Q

When is a murder premeditated?

A

A murder is premeditated if the defendant had enough time to reflect on the idea of or plan the killing. The amount of time needed for premeditation may be brief as long as after forming the intent to kill, the defendant had sufficient time to become fully conscious of the intent and to consider the killing.

Relevant for findings of FIRST DEGREE MURDER.

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27
Q

Second degree murder

A

n some jurisdictions, second-degree murder is a codification of common-law murder. In other jurisdictions, second-degree murder is codified as a murder that is committed without premeditation and deliberation, which typically includes killings that occur when the intent is not to kill but to commit serious bodily injury, or killings committed with a depraved heart.

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28
Q

When does malice aforethought exist?

A

Malice aforethought exists if the defendant acts with any of the following mental states: (1) intent to kill, (2) intent to inflict serious bodily injury, (3) reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life, or (4) intent to commit a felony.

Relevant to: CL MURDER

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29
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

Voluntary manslaughter is a killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation. Provocation is adequate if there is a sudden and intense passion in the mind of a reasonable person that would cause her to lose control, the defendant was in fact provoked, there was not sufficient time for cooling off, and the defendant did not in fact cool off between the provocation and the killing.

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30
Q

Fact Pattern:
Bob walks in and sees spouse cheating on him. In a blind rage, kills spouse or other.

Bob’s been cuckholded!

A

Voluntary Manslaughter.

Voluntary manslaughter is a killing that would be murder but for the existence of adequate provocation. Provocation is adequate if there is a sudden and intense passion in the mind of a reasonable person that would cause her to lose control, the defendant was in fact provoked, there was not sufficient time for cooling off, and the defendant did not in fact cool off between the provocation and the killing.

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31
Q

Arson

A

Common-law arson is the (1) malicious burning of the (2) dwelling of another. The crime of arson is a malice crime requiring a reckless disregard of a high risk of harm.

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32
Q

MPC Test for Insanity

A

tl;dr At the time of the crimes, due to mental illness, defendant (A) couldn’t understand it was wrong OR (B) conform action to the law.

Under the MPC test: A defendant is not guilty by reason of insanity if, at the time of the conduct, he, as a result of a mental disease or defect, did not have substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of the act or to conform his conduct to the law.

MPC combines the M’Naghten and irresistible-impulse tests

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33
Q

Pinkerton Rule

A

The “Pinkerton Rule” says that every co-conspirator is guilty of any substantive offense committed in furtherance of the conspiracy, regardless of actual knowledge of its commission.

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34
Q

Name of the rule that says every co-conspirator is guilty of any substantive offense committed in furtherance of the conspiracy, regardless of actual knowledge of its commission.

A

The “Pinkerton Rule”

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35
Q

Can voluntary intoxication be a defense to a specific-intent crime?

A

Not if the intent was formed before intoxication.

You can’t get drunk/high to commit a crime.

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36
Q

Under the MPC if the if the requisite mens rea is not stated in a criminal statute, it is established if _________________________.

A

the defendant acted at least recklessly.

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37
Q

What are the levels of cupability from LOWEST to HIGHEST

A

1) Negligence - lowest
2) Recklessly
3) Knowingly or Willfully
4) Purposefully - highest

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38
Q

How do you prove homicide?

A

1) the prosecution must show that the defendant caused the victim’s death AND 2) the prosecution must prove both actual and proximate causation. If the victim would not have died but for the defendant’s act, then the defendant’s act is the actual cause (i.e., cause-in-fact) of the death.

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39
Q

Legal Impossibility

A

Under legal impossibility, if the act intended is not a crime, the defendant cannot be guilty of attempt.

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40
Q

What is an accomplice liable for?

A

The accomplice is liable for the crime itself and all natural and probable consequences of the crime.

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41
Q

Who is the “principal” in a crime?

A

A principal is the person whose acts or omissions are the actus reus of the crime, in other words, the perpetrator of the crime.

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42
Q

Receiving Stolen Property

A

Receiving stolen property is a statutory crime that requires receiving control of stolen property with knowledge that the property is stolen and with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property.

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43
Q

What amendments provides right to counsel?

A

5th Amendment, and 6th

44
Q

Is the right to counsel under the 5th Amendment automatic?

A

Nope.
The right to counsel under the Fifth Amendment is not automatic. (Cf. 6th Amendment).

To invoke the right to counsel under the Fifth Amendment, the defendant must make a specific, unambiguous statement asserting his desire to have counsel present

45
Q

When does the 6th Amendment right to counsel attach?

A

The right automatically attaches when formal judicial proceedings have begun, whether that be at a post-arrest initial appearance before a judicial officer, or by way of formal charge, preliminary hearing, indictment, information, or arraignment.

Think - The Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies at all critical stages of a prosecution, after formal proceedings have begun

46
Q

Does a prosecutor have an obligation to present evidence that may be exculpate the defendant to a grand jury?

A

Nope!
The prosecutor has no legal obligation to present evidence exculpating the defendant to the grand jury, even if it is requested by the grand jurors. Thus, a grand jury indictment cannot be dismissed for the prosecutor’s failure to present exculpatory evidence, unless the prosecutor violated a preexisting constitutional or legislative rule.

Kinda crazy.

47
Q

Following a hung jury, can a defendant be retried without violating Double Jeopardy?

A

Yes. The defendant may be retried.

48
Q

Does a grand jury witness have a 5th Amendment right to counsel in the grand jury room?

A

Nope.
A grand jury witness has no Fifth Amendment right to counsel in the grand jury room. But the witness may consult with an attorney outside the grand jury room.

Also — A witness has no 6th Amendment right to present witnesses or to introduce evidence at a grand jury proceeding.

49
Q

What does the 4th Amendment require to justify a warrantless search of an automobile incident to arrest.

A

(1) that the arrestee is within reaching distance of the passenger compartment at the time of the search and may pose an actual and continuing threat to the officer’s safety, (2) a need to preserve evidence from being tampered with by the arrestee OR (3) that it is reasonable that evidence of the offense of arrest might be found in the vehicle.

50
Q

Battery

A

Battery is the unlawful application of force to another person that causes bodily harm to that person or constitutes an offensive touching.

51
Q

What is aggravated battery?

A

Battery but with a deadly weapon.
So…
Aggravated battery is the unlawful application of force to another person that causes bodily harm to that person or constitutes an offensive touching WITH A DEADLY WEAPON.

52
Q

Assault

A

Assault is either (1) an attempt to commit battery, or (2) the intent to place another in reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm

53
Q

What is aggravated assault?

A

Assault with a deadly weapon.

Aggravated assault is (1) an attempt to commit battery, or (2) the intent to place another in reasonable apprehension of imminent bodily harm. WITH A DEADLY WEAPON

54
Q

Kidnapping

A

Kidnapping is the (1) unlawful confinement of a person, (2) against that person’s will, (3) coupled with either moving or hiding that person

55
Q

Rape (modern statute)

A

Rape is (1) unlawful sexual intercourse, (2) against the victim’s will, (2) without consent, by force or threat of immediate force.

56
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

A killing can be reduced to voluntary manslaughter when the killing occurred: (1) in the heat of passion, or (2) as a result of imperfect self-defense.

An imperfect defense occurs when a person kills in self-defense as a result of an honest but unreasonable belief that he faced deadly force against him.

57
Q

When does a killing occur “in the heat of passion”?

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

A killing occurs in the heat of passion if: (1) there was a provocation that would arouse a sudden or intense passion in the mind of a reasonable person, (2) the defendant was actually provoked when he acted, (3) there was insufficient time for a reasonable person to cool off, and (4) the defendant did not actually cool off by the time he acted.

58
Q

Embezzlement

A

Embezzlement is the fraudulent conversion of personal property of another by someone who was already in lawful possession of that property.

59
Q

Robbery

A

Robbery is (1) larceny, (2) by force or threat of injury (to victim, a family member, or a person in Victim’s presence), (3) when the property is taken from the person or presence of the owner.

60
Q

False Pretenses

A

False pretenses occurs when the defendant obtains TITLE to the property of another by making a false representation of material facts with the intent to defraud. (Cf. Larceny by Trick, in which possession but not title is obtained via fraud or deceit.)

61
Q

Receipt of Stolen Property

A

Receipt of stolen property occurs when one knowingly receives, conceals, or disposes of stolen property with the intent to permanently deprive the property’s owner of it.

62
Q

Arson

A

Arson is the malicious burning of the dwelling of another. Malice requires either intent or extreme recklessness. Modernly, most jurisdictions include any kind of structure and include damage from explosives.

63
Q

What is “Attempt”?

Criminal Law

A

Attempt is an act done with the intent to commit a crime, that constitutes a substantial step towards committing the crime and goes beyond mere preparation.

64
Q

What is the Wharton Rule?

Conspiracy

A

At common law, conspiracies had to be bilateral (two or more people intend to form a conspiracy), and under the WHARTON RULE, if a crime required two or more participants, there would be no conspiracy unless more parties than are necessary to complete the crime agreed to commit it.

At common law, the conspiracy was complete as soon as the parties entered into an agreement, so withdrawal was not a defense.

Modernly, a defendant can be guilty of a unilateral conspiracy. And it is complete when the overt act is committed, so prior to that time a conspirator can withdraw by notifying the other co-conspirators or the police.

65
Q

Merger Doctrine

Criminal Law

A

Under the merger doctrine, two or more offenses merge into one, preventing the defendant from being prosecuted separately for each crime. Inchoate offenses of solicitation and attempt (but not conspiracy) merge into the actual crime if it is committed. Lesser included offenses (crimes all of whose elements are also elements of a greater crime) merge into the greater crime, including underlying felonies under the FMR.

66
Q

When does a person have a right to self-defense?

Are there restrictions on the methods of self-defense?

When, if ever, is deadly force ok?

A

A person has the right to self-defense to protect himself against unlawful force, but the amount of force used must be proportionate to the provoking offense.

Deadly force may only be used when the defendant reasonably believes he faces imminent death or grievous bodily harm.

67
Q

Defense of others:

  • how much force is ok?
  • when is it ok?
A

A person may use reasonable force to defend another when he reasonably believes that the other person would be justified in using that force to defend himself.

A reasonable but mistaken belief that the other would be entitled to self-defense will still be effective as a defense.

68
Q

Can you use deadly force to protect your property?

A

A person has the right to use reasonable non-deadly force to protect his personal or real property from trespass or unlawful interference. Deadly force is never permitted.

(unless you’re in TX, or a castle state)

69
Q

M’Nagthen Insanity Test

A

Defendant must show that he suffered from a mental illness that caused a defect in his reasoning abilities, resulting in him (1) not understanding the nature and quality of his act, or (2) not understanding that his act was wrong.

70
Q

Irresistible Impulse Insanity Test

A

Defendant must show that due to a mental illness, he was (1) unable to control his actions, or (2) unable to conform his conduct to the law.

71
Q

Durham Insanity Test

A

Defendant must show that but-for his mental illness, the defendant would not have committed the crime.

72
Q

When can you use involuntary intoxication as a defense?

A

Involuntary intoxication (caused by duress or unknowing ingestion) may be a defense to any crime. When intoxication is sufficiently severe, it can also lead to insanity. [Do insanity analysis]

73
Q

Can necessity be a valid defense to a crime?

A

Sometimes, yes.
Necessity can be a valid defense when the defendant reasonably believed that commission of the crime was necessary to avoid an imminent and greater injury to society.

74
Q

Duress

  • what is it?
  • can it be used as a defense to a murder?
A

Duress is a third party’s unlawful threat that causes the defendant to reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or serious bodily injury to himself or another is to commit the crime.

Duress is never a defense to intentional murder (but can be to the Felony Murder Rule).

75
Q

When is a warrant valid?

UPP

A

A warrant is valid if it is issued by an [U]nbiased magistrate and it is supported by [P]robable cause and [P]articularity.

An informant or an anonymous tip can provide probable cause if the tip is reliable.

76
Q

What effect does a violation of the 4th Amendment have on evidence obtained?

A

If evidence is obtained in violation of the 4th Amendment, it is generally EXCLUDED.

But indirectly obtained evidence from the violation may be admitted if 1) the discovery was inevitable; 2) if an independent source would have revealed the evidence; 3) or the taint of the unlawful search disappears

77
Q

Can you admitted evidence indirectly obtained during a violation of the 4th Amendment?

A

Indirectly obtained evidence from the violation may be admitted if 1) the discovery was inevitable; 2) if an independent source would have revealed the evidence; 3) or the taint of the unlawful search disappears

78
Q

For a Terry stop, the officer needs _____________ [standard].

BUT for a Terry frisk, the officer needs _____________ [standard].

A

Terry Stop: The officer needs REASONABLE SUSPICION that criminal activity is afoot. (Stop must be brief).

Terry Frisk - The officer needs REASONABLE BELIEF that the suspect is armed and dangerous. (May only frisk for weapons)

79
Q

When do 5th Amendment Miranda rights attach?

A

When there is a custodial interrogation.

80
Q

What effect does violation of 5th Amend Miranda rights have on the evidence obtained?

A

If Miranda is violated, incriminating statements may not be used in the prosecutor’s case-in-chief, but may be used to impeach the defendant.

Physical fruits of voluntarily made incriminating statements may be admitted.

81
Q

When is murder reduced to voluntary manslaughter due to an imperfect defense?

A

When the defendant argues that his deadly force was necessary in defense of himself or others, but

1) the defendant started the altercation OR
2) the defendant unreasonably and honestly believed in the necessity of using deadly force.

82
Q

What are the six elements of common-law larceny?

A

1) trespassory
2) taking and
3) carrying away
4) of the personal property
5) of another
6) with the intent to permanently deprive that person of the property

Note: Larceny is a specific intent crime

83
Q

What are the four common-law elements of battery?

A

Battery is the:

1) Unlawful;
2) Application of force;
3) To another person;
4) That causes bodily harm to that person or constitutes an offensive touching.

Note: Battery is a general-intent crime.

84
Q

What is an accessory after the fact?

A

A person who aids or assists a felon to avoid apprehension or conviction after commission of the felony; the person must know a felony has been committed, and is only liable for a separate crime.

85
Q

What are the common-law elements of burglary?

A

1) Breaking and Entering;
2) Of the dwelling
3) Of another;
4) At nighttime;
5) With the specific intent to commit a felony therein.

86
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

Unintentional homicide committed:

With criminal negligence (or recklessness under the MPC);

OR

During an unlawful act

87
Q

What mental states does “malice aforethought” include?

A

Malice aforethought includes the following mental states: intent to kill, intent to do serious bodily injury, reckless indifference to an unjustifiably high risk to human life (depraved heart), or intent to commit certain felonies (felony murder)

88
Q

A husband and wife own a home together. The police suspect that the husband is hiding stolen goods in his home. If both the husband and wife are home when the police come to search, may the wife consent to the search over her husband’s (i.e. the potential defendant’s) objection.

A

No.

When property to be searched is under the joint control of the defendant and a third party (e.g., a house jointly owned by a husband and wife), the authority of the third party to consent turns on whether the defendant is present at the time of the search.

89
Q

Generally, is there a 6th Amend right to counsel in photo array identification procedures?

A

No.

But police have to turn over photo array to counsel later

90
Q

After indictment does the D have a lawyer present as line up identification procedures?

A

Yes because D has been indicted. (No right to have counsel at pre-indictment line-up)

AND if counsel not present then the evidence from the line up may be excluded from evidence if the lineup was impermissibly suggestive

91
Q

Exclusionary Rule (Generally)

A

Evidence obtained illegally in the violation of the D’s 4th, 5th, and 6th Amendment rights is inadmissible in the criminal trial of the D.

  • Remember D needs standing to challenge
92
Q

If driver is of a car is arrested w/o probable cause, the passengers are deemed to be seized as well and can challenge the constitutionality of the stop and seek to exclude items uncovered in the stop.

This is a summary of an exception to what rule?

A

Exclusionary Rule

93
Q

What does the doctrine of the Fruit of the Poison Tree stand for?

A

A doctrine that extends the exclusionary rule to make evidence inadmissible in court if it was derived from evidence that was illegally obtained. As the metaphor suggests, if the evidential “tree” is tainted, so is its “fruit.”

94
Q

If the police have a warrant but fail to Knock and Announce is the evidence seized admissible?

A

Yes, under the Knock and Announce exception to the Exclusionary Rule

95
Q

What are the 5 exceptions to the Exclusionary Rule?

A

1) Knock and Announce
2) Independent Source Rule
3) Inevitable Discovery
4) Attenuation in the Causal Chain
5) Officer’s Good Faith Exception, e.g. such as conducting a search based on a warrant not defective on its face, or arrest based on a law later deemed unconstitutional

96
Q

A question asks whether a conviction should be overturned because of a problematic seizure or violation of 4th, 5th, or 6th Amendment rights. What next?

A

Think of the Harmless Error Rule.

Ask whether if the evidence had not be admitted would it have made a difference to the conviction.

The burden is on the prosecutor to show that it would not have.

It the improperly obtained evidence would not have made a difference, i.e. was a harmless error, then the conviction can stand. If not the conviction should be overturned.

97
Q

What does the 8th amendment prohibit?

A

Excessive bail

98
Q

What is curtilage?

A

The immediate area surrounding the home. Reasonable expectation of privacy there.

99
Q

Does using a drug detection dog constitute a search

A

Yes

100
Q

Does using a drug detection dog constitute a search

A

Yes - if physically intrudes onto the constitutionally protected property

101
Q

Is there a reasonable expectation of privacy in odors emanating from a car?

A

Nope

102
Q

Is there a reasonable expectation of privacy in luggage?

A

REP for invasive searches, but not for drug dog sniffs

103
Q

Is there a reasonable expectation of privacy in open areas (outside curtilage)?

A

No.

104
Q

A police uses a sense-enhancing device that is not used by the general public. Is this a search under the 4th Amendment?

A

Yes.

105
Q

A government agent attaching a tracking device to a person without his or her consent. Is this a search under the 4th Amendment?

A

Yes.

106
Q

Does a police/FBI agent need a warrant to collect cell-site location from a wireless carrier to track a person?

A

Yes.