Creogs R2 Flashcards
1
Q
Chance of occult cancer in VIN 3
A
3%
2
Q
Margins on excisional bx of VIN
A
0.5-1.0 cm
3
Q
Laser ablation for VIN 3, extend through which layer?
A
Dermis
4
Q
What type of virus is HPV?
A
small double-stranded DNA
5
Q
Co factors with HPV that increase risk of cervical dz
A
smoking, OCPs, HIV, Pregnancy
6
Q
Seizure med to use in myasthenia gravis pts
A
kepra (levetriraceptam)
7
Q
Most common sex chromosomal abnormality
A
47 XXY- Klinefelder’s, 1/500 chance
8
Q
Most helpful test to dx Grave’s dz
A
TSH receptor ab
9
Q
How long should you wait to conceive after radioactive iodine ablation
A
6 months
10
Q
How long should you wait to conceive after bariatric sx?
A
12 months
11
Q
Most common cause of hirsutism in pregnancy
A
ovarian luteoma
12
Q
holoprosencephaly is associated with which chromosomal abnl?
A
trisomy 13
13
Q
Most common congenital anomaly is what system?
A
CV (VSD) #2 is CNS
14
Q
Pap with NILM, + HPV, next step?
A
HPV genotyping
15
Q
co-testing starts at what age?
A
30yo
16
Q
Colpo with CIN 3, without treatment chance of developing invasive ca?
A
5-10% in 5-10 yrs
17
Q
Risk of high-grade cervical dysplasia w/in 5 years of negative contesting?
A
0.1%
18
Q
inconclusive cffDNA, next step?
A
refer to MFM, offer ultrasound, diagnostic testing
19
Q
How much fetal DNA mus be present in cffDNA?
A
4% (high BMI dilutes)
20
Q
Treatment of IB3 cervical ca?
A
rad hyst with pelvic LAD
21
Q
patient takes pyrisostigmine, whats contraindicated in labor?
A
Mag
22
Q
Most appropriate age to start DEXA scan
A
65yo
23
Q
ABX choice for syphillis during pregnancy in pt with PCN anaphylaxis
A
PCN after desensitization
24
Q
Malignancy most likely to metastasize to placenta
A
Melanoma
25
Most common malignancy in pregnant woman
breast ca
26
2nd most common type of vulvar ca
melanoma
27
Most common early postop complication s/p rad vulvectomy with LAD
lymphocyst
28
Best way to dx premenstrual dysphoric d/o?
daily symptom diary
29
Most common karyotype in complete molar pregnancy
46XX (completely dad)
30
Most common CF mutation
delta F508
31
most common cause of ambiguous genitalia
CAH
32
BRCA1 and 2 and what types of genes?
tumor suppressor genes
33
Most common HPV type in high grade cervical dz
HPV 16
34
National Data Base is used to...
record medical malpractice awards paid by docs to plaintiffs
35
Most common site of mets of gestational trophoblastic dz
Lungs (stage 3)
36
Most effective BC
implant
37
Persistent OP is common in which pelvis type?
Anthropoid
38
Cohort studies are
prospective
39
Case control studies are
retrospective
40
Most common sexual disorder in females
hypoactive sexual disorder
41
Most common cause of hirsutism
PCOS
42
Sacral agenesis occurs with what?
uncontrolled maternal DM
43
Best nonhormonal treatment for hot flashes
Paxil (paroxetine)
44
How is CAH inheritied
AR
45
The highest concentration of fibrinogen is in
Cryo
46
Treatment for PMDD
SSRI
47
Most common sign of uterine rupture
NRFHT
48
First line pressor for hypovolemic shock
norepi
49
Echo shows what in PPCM?
LVEF <45%
50
US finding most c/w accreta
turbulent placantal lacunae
51
Most common cause of PMB
atrophy
52
Which imaging modality gives the most radiation in pregnancy?
CT or CT-PE
53
For pt with h/o T5 spinal cord injury, what do you do to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
early regional anesthesia
54
Physiology of blood gases in pregnancy
resp alkalosis with compensatory met acidosis
55
In addition to glycemic control, what is acute therapy for DKA?
aggressive fluid resuscitation
56
Strongest risk factor for Pre-E
APAS
57
Strongest risk for PP infxn
c-section
58
Names of incisions in normal LTCS
Pfannenstiel, Kerr (uterine)
59
Mechanism of action of TXA
prevents degradation of fibrin through inhibition of plasminogen
60
Pregnant ot with pheo, HTNive- first med you give?
phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker)
61
Treatment for ovarian hyperthecosis
BO
62
Most common cause of woman with Kell ab
h/o blood trx
63
What to do if pregnant woman has Kell ab
test FOC (if neg ok)
64
Most common symptoms of vaginal cuff dehiscence
abundant vaginal discharge
65
Average growth of dermoid per year
1.8 mm
66
Biggest risk factor for invasive cervical ca
never had a pap before
67
BI-RADS 0 on mammo means
incomplete exam
68
Most common causes of 1T losses
trisomy 16, turners, polyploid
69
what causes hypoTN after CLE placement
local anesthetic effect on sympathetic fibers
70
Most common side effect of tamoxifen
hot flashes
71
Leading cause of trauma in pregnancy
DV
72
Risk of seizure in severe pre-e without mag
2-3%
73
Typical eclamptic seizure lasts
less than 4 min
74
Purpose of mag in eclampsia
prevent next seizure
75
t1/2 of acetaminophen
3.5 hours
76
PPCM occurs
last mo preg, first 5mo PP
77
Most common cause of cancer death in women in US
lung cancer
78
when do you star a bisphosphonate
hip frx risk >3% or mjr frx risk > 10%
79
Characteristics of yolk sac tumor
Schiller-duval tumors, make AFP
80
Characteristics of granulosa cell tumor
solid mass, vaginal bleeding, inhibin, call-exner bodies
81
MOA of oxybutynin
anti-muscarinic
82
Injury to which nerve during GYN surgery causes motor dysfxn
obturator nerve
83
Recommendation for delivery in pt with accreta
CS at 34 w
84
Incision when rectus is transected at their origin at the pubic symphysis
Cherney
85
Most common cause of C-hyst
accreta
86
Accreta is absence of which cell layer
decidua basalis
87
Average ES thickness in women with endometrial ca
35mm
88
Recurrence risk of gDM
50%
89
T sign is in
di-di twins
90
lamba sign is in
di-di twins
91
Advanced paternal age increases risk of
autosomal dominant dz
92
Most common OB condition that results in DIC
abruption
93
Most common side effect of TXA
headache
94
WHat accelerate menopausal occurence
smoking
95
Actinomyces on IUD, next step
manage expectantly
96
Most common cause of primary ovarian failure
idiopathic
97
Which incision puts inferior epigastric vessels at risk
Maylard
98
Mode of inheritance of neural tube defects
multifactorial
99
What ovarian volume is diagnostic of PCOS
15mm
100
Sterilization at highest risk of failure
spring clip applicator
101
postterm pregnancy is commonly associated with which fetal condition/.
anencephaly
102
MOA of heparin
combines with ATIII
103
Typical sequence of puberty is
adrenarche (growth spurt), thelarche (breast bud), pubarche (pubic hari), peak growth spurt, menarche, ovulation
104
What aspect of GnRH causes puberty
amplitude, not frequency
105
MOA of warfarin
inhibits vitamin K dependent factors (2,7,9,10,C and S)
106
MOA of rvaroxaban
inhibits Xa
107
MOA of letrazole
aromatase inhib, inhibits androgens from becoming estrogen
108
MOA of cyclophophamide
alkylating agent, use with mesna to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis
109
MOA of 5-fluorouracil
nucleoside inhib
110
MOA of MTX
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
111
MOA of bleomycin
causes DNA breaks (causes pulmonary fibrosis which is worsened by O2)
112
MOA of doxorubicin
prevents double stranded DNA repair, causes CM and palmar redness
113
MOA of Taxol
binds to microtubules
114
MOA of cisplatin
cross links DNA to prevent replications; causes nephrotoxicity
115
MOA of Sumatriptan
serotonin receptor agonist
116
MOA of Bisphosphonates
inhibit osteclasts
117
MOA of Oloparib (PARP)
inhibits poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase, for BRCA+ ca
118
MOA of metformin
decreases hepative gluconeogenesis
119
MOA of hydral
smooth muscle relaxant
120
MOA of mirabegron
beta 3 agonist, relaxes bladder (not to be used with HTN)
121
MOA of methergine
smooth muscled constrictor via serotonin receptors
122
most common adverse effect of implant
AUB
123
Most common extrauterine spread of endometrial ca
lymph nodes
124
Another term of EIN
complex endometrial hyplerplasia with atypia
125
Chance of concurrent cancer in pt with complex endometrial hyplerplasia with atypia
40%
126
HPV 16 is associated with what type of cancer?
squamous cell carcinoma
127
HPV 18 is associated with what type of cancer?
adenocarcinoma
128
When should surgical management of dermoid be considered?
symptomatic or >5 cm or malignant features//always cystectomy, not oophorectomy
129
Incidence of recurrence of dermoid?
3-4%
130
Dermoid can develop into which type of cancer
squamous cell carcinoma
131
h/o PTD, what GA are CXL indicated in asymptomatic women
16-24w
132
What antenatal testing is indicated in gDMA1
none
133
Definition of poly
MVP > 8cm; AFI >25
134
Definition of oligo
MVP < 2 cm; only use MVP in 3T; AFI <8
135
When does cleavage occur in di-di twins?
days 1-3
136
When does cleavage occur in mo-di twins?
4-8 days
137
When does cleavage occur in mo-mo twins?
8-13 days
138
When does cleavage occur in conjoined twins?
13-15 days, most commonly thoracic-abdominal
139
Most common karyotypes in duodenal atresia
1) normal (2/3) 2) trisomy 21 (1/3)
140
US finding with duodenal atresia
double bubble sign
141
Characteristics of omphalocele
covered; associated with Down's
142
Which cell in pregnancy make hcg
syncitiotrophoblasts
143
What FSH level is associated with menopause?
>30
144
blood work up for recurrent pregnancy loss
anticardiolipin IgG, anti-beta 2 glycoprotein IgG and Ig M, lupus anti-coagulant
repeat test 12 w apart;
karyotype
Prolactin, TSH, HgbA1c
145
imaging workup in recurrent pregnancy loss
evaluate for uterine abnormalities with sonohyst, HSG MRI or hysteroscopy
146
when to measure luteal ohase progesterone in recurrent pregnancy loss
never
147
treatment option for pregnant woman with APS
lovenox or low dose ASA once viable, IUP is identified
148
Treatment for hyper-prolactinemia
dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine)
149
treatment in pregnant woman with recurrent pregnancy loss with no abnormal labs
none, same as normal pregnancy, NOT blood thinners
150
IUFD workup
KB, tox screen before delivery
CBC, parvo, syphilis, lupus AC, anto-cardiolipin, TSH, coombs
Fetal autopsy, placental pathology
151
Best tissue to obtain fetal tissue after delivery of a demise
placenta (block 1x1 cm) near cord insertion, next best is patella, then umbilical cord
152
Pregnant woman exposed to parvo, next step
maternal parvo Ab
153
Besides colpo what additional test does a woman with AGCUS need?
ECC
154
empiric ABX for neutropenic fever?
PO: cipro + augmentin
IV: meropenem + pip-tazo
155
which gene is suppressed in uterine pap-serous cancer and which is suppressed in endometrioid adenocarcinoma?
endometrioid adenocarcinoma: PTEN
| UPSC: TP53
156
Where does tamoxifen act?
+ on uterus and bone
- on breast
(increased risk of DVT's too)
157
Common side effect of aromatase inhibitors?
joint and muscle aches
158
Most common abnormal pap smear
normal cytology with + HR HPV
159
If a patient has HR HPV 16, what is her immediate risk of CIN 3?
3%
160
What is the most common HPV strain to cause squamous cell carcinoma?
16
161
What is the most common HPV strain to cause adenocarcinoma?
18
162
What is the treatment for PMDD?
SSRI
163
2 Most common causes of SAB?
Turners, Trisomy 16
164
MOA of taxol
microtubules
165
MOA of platin
crosslinks DNA
166
Most common fetal CNS abnormality on AS?
ventriculomegaly
167
Invasive cervical cancer which causes hydronephrosis, stage?
3B
168
Most common blood type in Rh+ woman?
CDE/cde
169
MOA of elagolix (for menorrhagia 2/2 fibroids)
GnRH antagonist
170
Fetal congenital birth defect associated with diabetes?
sacral agenesis
171
Which patients need a PARP inhibitor?
platinum sensitive patients with ovarian ca after initial treatment (maintenance therapy)
172
Most common complication of radical hysterectomy?
urinary retention
173
most common cause of holoprosencephaly
trisomy 13
174
Percentage risk of iso-immunization in Rh neg women without rhogam
20%
175
Which forceps does not have pelvic curve?
Kielland
176
Which cytokine is responsible for dysmenorrhea?
PGF2
177
Which test distinguishes PCOS from CAH?
early follicular phase 17-OHP
178
Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborn?
CAH
179
3 most common causes of primary amenorrhea in order
Gonadal dysgenesis, Mullerian agenesis, (T-fem) androgen insensitivity sndrome
180
Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy?
gTCP
181
Most common cause of cystic hygroma?
Klinefelter's syndrome
182
What modifiable RF increases your risk of mucinous ovarian cancer?
smoking
183
Thrombocytopenia of pregnancy, most likely dx if PLT >100? if PLT around 50?
>100 gTCP
| around 50 ITP
184
How to treat APAS in pregnancy?
lovenox 40 mg daily + ASA
185
Which thrombophilia can you not test for during pregnancy?
Protein S deficiency
186
Which conditions in pregnancy are associated with neonatal purpura fulminans?
protein C and S deficiency
187
How do you diagnose APAS?
Lupus anti-coagulant, anti-cardiolipin, anti-b2 glycoprotein. Two tests 12 weeks apart
188
Critical titer level for iso-immunization, how often to test and what to do when critical level is reached?
>1:8 or 1:16, check every 4 weeks until then, test paternal blood type
189
MCA doppler level where you are concerned for fetal anemia?
>1.5 MoM
190
What is the most common congenital infection?
CMV
191
What is the risk of vertical transmission in CMV?
40%
192
Which type of insurance covers anything, whenever?
occurrence insurance
193
What type of insurance only covers you for the time you have the insurance and when the claim is made?
claims insurance
194
What can you buy if you have claims insurance and why?
"nose" and "tail" to CYA before and after respectively
195
Code if you do multiple related procedures in the same visit?
51
196
Code if you do 2 significantly different procedures in the same visit?
25
197
Code for difficult procedure, multiple attempts
22
198
Code for attempted procedure, but failed
53
199
How big must a CRL be without CA to dx loss?
5mm
200
When should you retest for syphillis after treatment and how should you test? What titer means you've been successfully treatment?
6-12 months later with RPR
| 1:4
201
Which thrombophilia is "acquired"?
APAS
202
How do you distinguish a primary vs. re-activation infection of CMV? And how does this work?
avidity testing- tests strength of attachment of IgG to antigen
203
Atypical glandular cells, what is the next step of management?
ECC
204
Criteria for radical trachelectomy in early stage cervical ca?
- desire for fertility
- <40 yo
- lesions less than 2 cm
- stage 1
- no nodal mets
205
Treatment for Placental-site trophoblastic tumors
hyst
206
ultrasound finding most predictive of down's in 2nd trimester?
nuchal fold > 6mm
207
What fetal malformation is the highest risk in obesity in pregnancy?
neural tube defect
208
Hyperthyroid treatment in pregnancy?
PTU in 1T, methimazole in 2T
209
Which type of pathogen is most responsible for infections in blood transfusions now?
gram + bacteria
210
MOA of PTU in pregnancy?
inhibition of iodine organification
211
Most common gastroischisis karyotype?
46,XX
212
Protein gene relationships in HPV
E6- p53
| E7- Rb
213
Blood product with highest concentration of fibrinogen?
cryo
214
Hypotension after epidural is due to?
sympathetic fibers
215
MOA of sumatriptan
serotonin agonist
216
Time between lovenox and CLE? PPX and therapeutic
PPX 12 h
| Therapeutic 24 h
217
Mean GA for delivery of triplets? twins?
triplets 31.9 w
| twins 35.1 w
218
Chemo for ovarian ca associated with bowel perf?
bevacizumab
219
Most common side effect of tamoxifen
hot flashes
220
Biggest risk of prolonged HRT?
stroke
221
Inheritance pattern of androgen insensitivity syndrome?
X linked recessive
222
ART for retrograde ejaculation?
IUI with retrograde ejaculate from urine
223
Which treatment for prolactinemia is more tolerable and why?
cabergoline, twice weekly dosing, fewer side effects (postural hypotension), more effective
224
Which dopamine agonist is preferred for prolactinoma in pregnancy?
bromocriptine
225
How many sperm are generally needed for IUI to be successful?
10 million
226
Treatment for low bone density in adolescents?
transdermal estrogen with cyclic oral progesterone
227
Which embryonic structure forms the ureters?
Mesonephric duct
228
What is another name for the mullerian duct?
Paramesonephric duct
229
Spinal cord lesions above what level can cause autonomic hyperreflexia?
Spinal column T6
| Spinal cord level T7-T8
230
Best anti-incontinence procedure concurrent with urethral diverticulum repair?
Autologous fadcial sling
231
MOA of loperamide
Opioid receptor agonist
| Decrease smooth muscle tone off large intestine, allowing water to be absorbed from feces
232
Cut off for size of recto-vaginal fistula management. At what size do they need surgery?
5mm
233
Most likely cause of osteo after sacrocolpopexy?
Staph aureus
234
What spinal cord dermatimes should a CLE cover?
T10 to S5
235
Most common gbs presentation for babies, late onset
Fever
| Not prevented by intrapartum abx
236
Personal h/o VTE increases risk by
3-4 fold increase
237
Noninmune cause of hydrops
CV
238
Formula for SENSitivity
A/a+c
239
Formula for SPECificity
D/B+D
240
Formula for positive predictive value
A/a+b
241
Formula for negative predictive value
D/c+d
242
How is prevalence related to PPV
If prevalence increases so does PPV
243
Formula for prevalence
A+c/ total
244
What is a case control study?
Observational
| Pick disease and retrospectively look at risk factors
245
What is a cohort study?
Pick the risk factors, look at the disease prospectively
| Good for common diseases
246
What is type 1 error
Alpha
| Saying there's an effect when there's not
247
What is p?
Probability of making type 1 error
248
What is type 2 error
Beta
| Saying theres no difference when there really is
249
Formula for power
1-beta (type 2 error)
250
Formula for odds ratio
Ad/bc
251
Formula for relative risk
(A/a+b) / (c/c+d)
252
White layer on US that should be separating placenta from uterus?
Nitabuch layer
253
Inheritance pattern of BRCA
Auto dom
254
Risk of preE in twins? Triplets?
10% twins, 20% triplets
255
Most common karyotupe in incomplete mole
67XXY
256
Which STI is more common in older women than younger?
Trich
257
Chance of developing abruption after minor abdominal trauma?
2%
258
Typical eclamptic seizure lasts for
Less than 4 minutes
259
Half life of tylenol
3.5 h
260
Characteristics of yolk sac tumor
Schiller duval bodies
| AFP
261
E6 and E7 are
Onco proteins
262
Delivery timing of accreta
34w
263
Test most likely to determine cause of stillbirth
Autopsy
264
Anti epilepsy drug with highest risk of birth defect
Valproic acid
265
Most significant pulmonary change in pregnancy?
Reduction of functional residual capacity
266
Quad screen change in downs
Increased hcg
267
Normal umbilical artery cord gases
PH 7.25
PaCO2 50
PaO2 20
Base deficit 5
268
Base deficit cut off that reveals metabolic acidosis
12
269
BMI and wright gain suggestion in pregnancy
```
<18.5 = 28-40 lbs
18.5-24.9 = 25-35 lbs
25-29.9 = 15-25 lbs
30+ = 11-20 lbs
```
270
Difference between stage IA1 and IA2 cervical cancer?
Depth of invasion
IA1: <3 mm
IA2: 3-5 mm
271
Unilateral hydronephrosis with cervical cancer, what is the stage?
3b
272
Most common site of mets for choriocarcinoma?
Lungs
273
Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia?
CAH
274
Which tumor marker is associated with serous ovarian cancer?
CA-125
275
Which tumor marker is associated with yolk sac ovarian tumor?
AFP
276
Which tumor marker is associated with granulosa cell ovarian cancer?
inhibin, estrodiol
277
Which tumor marker is associated with dysgerminoma?
LDH
278
Which histologic finding is associated with granulosa cell ovarian cancer?
Call-exner bodies
279
Which histologic finding is associated with yolk sac ovarian tumors?
Schiller Duval bodies
280
Which histologic finding is associated with dermoids?
Rokitansky tubercle (solid part)
281
Which histologic finding is associated with serous ovarian cancer?
Psammoma bodies
282
Amsel's criteris for BV?
```
3 out of 4
grey
pH >4.5
fishy odor
>20% clue cells
```
283
Which STI is bimodal in women?
Trich
284
How do you diagnose DIV?
microscopy: parabasal cells, WBC's
285
How to treat DIV?
Topical clinda, steroids
286
How to treat ER+ breast cancer in pre-meno versus post-meno women?
Pre-meno: tamoxifen
| Post-meno: Aromatase inhibitor
287
Common side effect of aromatase inhibitors?
decreased bone density
288
Treatment of symptomatic labial agglutiation?
Topical estrogen
289
Most common cause of precocious puberty
idiopathic
290
Most common organ to prolapse after vaginal cuff dehiscence?
ileum
291
Most sensitive test for fetal anemia?
MCA dopplers
292
Treatment for Paget's dz
WLE
293
5 epithelial cell ovarian tumors
```
Serous
Mucinous
Clear Cell
Endometrioid
Brenner
```
294
4 germ cell ovarian tumors
dermoid
dysgerminoma
immature teratoma
yolk sac (endodermal sinus)
295
3 stromal cell ovarian tumors
graulosa cell
sertoli-leydig
fibroma
296
Chance of dermoid being bilateral
10%
297
Unique, rare symptoms of ovarian fibroma
Meig's syndrome: ascites, pleural effusions
298
Average size of dermoids
7-8 cm
299
Average growth of dermoids per year
1.2 mm per year
300
Most common malignancy to develop from dermoid?
Squamous cell carcinoma
301
H/o CS, now with IUFD. What is the gestational age limit that you can use prostaglandins?
28 weeks
302
MOA of valproic acid
anti-folate, can result in spina bifida
303
3 biggest RF for peri-op DVT?
cancer, >60yo, major surgery
304
In early pregnancy, which innate immune system cells are present in abundance in uterine decidua?
Natural killer cells
305
Where is spinal anesthesia injected?
within the dura mater
306
Where is epidural anesthesia injected?
between the ligamentum flavum and dura mater
307
First and second most common congenital defects?
1) Cardiac
| 2) Neural tube
308
Which part of the quad screen looks neural tube defects?
MS-AFP
309
Which forceps are used for rotation?
Kielland forceps
310
Which forceps are used for a round, unmolded head?
Elliott forceps
311
Which forceps are used for vaginal breech delivery?
Piper forceps
312
Which forceps are used for a molded head?
Simpson forceps
313
At which gestational do you use chorionic villus sampling? Amniocentesis?
CVS: 10-13 weeks
Amnio: anytime after 11w, normally 15-20 weeks
314
What is surgicel made of and how does it works?
oxidized regenerated cellulose
it has an acidic pH, which breaks down RBC resulting in brown color
acidic pH inactivates thrombin
315
Which stage of cervical cancer benefits from palliative radiation?
stage 4b
316
What is the most common karyotype for a mole?
46 XX or 46XY, complete mole
317
How is a complete mole made?
empty ovum that is fertilized by 2 sperms
318
What is the recommended management of enlarged BL theca lutein cysts in a molar pregnancy?
exp man
319
What is the most severe complication of vertical transmission of HPV in a mother with anal warts?
juvenile-onset respiratory papillomatosis
320
What ovarian size increases the risk of torsion?
> 5 cm
321
What pH is amniotic fluid?
7 to 7.3
322
When should flagyl be avoided?
in the first trimester
323
Which type of pelvis is associated with transverse fetal lie?
Platypelloid.
324
Within how many minutes should you place an IUD after placental delivery?
within 10 minutes
325
Contraindications to postpartum IUD placement
chorio, sepsis, hemorrhage
326
What is the rate of expulsion of IUD's placed immediately PP?
10-27%
327
What is postpartum thyroiditis?
1-4 months PP: hyperthyroidism
then hypothyroidism
then normal
328
What is the MOA of dexamethasone in thyroid storm?
blocks conversion of T4 to T3
329
What is the half life of beta hcg?
24-36h
330
Amniotic fluid continues to increase until how many weeks gestation?
34-36 weeks
331
Presence of endometriomas is at least what stage of endo?
Stage 3
332
What drugs are in Prep?
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-emtricitabine
333
How many days after fertilization does cardiac activity begin?
22 days
334
What metabolic changes can happen with massive transfusion protocol?
Metabolic alkalosis
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesia
335
What is used for prevention of hypocalcemia in MTP?
calcium chloride
336
What are postmenopausal patients with TOA's at risk of?
malignancy
337
most common cause of PP endometritis?
aerobes
338
Treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy
1T: propylthiouracil
2T: methimazole
339
BRCA 1 is on which chromosome?
17
340
BRCA 2 is which chromosome?
13
341
What GA do you deliver absent EDF? Reverse EDF?
absent EDF: 34w
| reversed EDF: 30-32w
342
Which gene can contribute to neural tube defects?
MTHFR
343
Most common way to get toxo?
raw meat
344
What is the lifetime ovarian cancer risk of BRCA 1?
39-46%
345
What age is BSO recommended in BRCA1? BRCA2?
BRCA1: 35-40 yo
BRCA2: 40-45yo
346
Quintero staging for TTTS
```
Stage 1: poly-oli
Stage 2: no bladder in donor for >60 min
Stage 3: Abnormal dopplers
Stage 4: hydrops
Stage 5: death
```
347
When do you start treatment for TTTS?
stage 2 (no bladder in donor fetus for >60 min)
348
Which 4 arteries can cause a vulvar hemotoma?
inferior rectal
perineal
urethral
posterior labial
349
Most predictive factor of successful ECV
transverse lie
