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Creogs > Creogs R2 > Flashcards

Creogs R2 Flashcards

1
Q

Chance of occult cancer in VIN 3

A

3%

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2
Q

Margins on excisional bx of VIN

A

0.5-1.0 cm

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3
Q

Laser ablation for VIN 3, extend through which layer?

A

Dermis

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4
Q

What type of virus is HPV?

A

small double-stranded DNA

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5
Q

Co factors with HPV that increase risk of cervical dz

A

smoking, OCPs, HIV, Pregnancy

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6
Q

Seizure med to use in myasthenia gravis pts

A

kepra (levetriraceptam)

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7
Q

Most common sex chromosomal abnormality

A

47 XXY- Klinefelder’s, 1/500 chance

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8
Q

Most helpful test to dx Grave’s dz

A

TSH receptor ab

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9
Q

How long should you wait to conceive after radioactive iodine ablation

A

6 months

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10
Q

How long should you wait to conceive after bariatric sx?

A

12 months

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11
Q

Most common cause of hirsutism in pregnancy

A

ovarian luteoma

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12
Q

holoprosencephaly is associated with which chromosomal abnl?

A

trisomy 13

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13
Q

Most common congenital anomaly is what system?

A

CV (VSD) #2 is CNS

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14
Q

Pap with NILM, + HPV, next step?

A

HPV genotyping

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15
Q

co-testing starts at what age?

A

30yo

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16
Q

Colpo with CIN 3, without treatment chance of developing invasive ca?

A

5-10% in 5-10 yrs

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17
Q

Risk of high-grade cervical dysplasia w/in 5 years of negative contesting?

A

0.1%

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18
Q

inconclusive cffDNA, next step?

A

refer to MFM, offer ultrasound, diagnostic testing

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19
Q

How much fetal DNA mus be present in cffDNA?

A

4% (high BMI dilutes)

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20
Q

Treatment of IB3 cervical ca?

A

rad hyst with pelvic LAD

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21
Q

patient takes pyrisostigmine, whats contraindicated in labor?

A

Mag

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22
Q

Most appropriate age to start DEXA scan

A

65yo

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23
Q

ABX choice for syphillis during pregnancy in pt with PCN anaphylaxis

A

PCN after desensitization

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24
Q

Malignancy most likely to metastasize to placenta

A

Melanoma

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25
Q

Most common malignancy in pregnant woman

A

breast ca

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26
Q

2nd most common type of vulvar ca

A

melanoma

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27
Q

Most common early postop complication s/p rad vulvectomy with LAD

A

lymphocyst

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28
Q

Best way to dx premenstrual dysphoric d/o?

A

daily symptom diary

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29
Q

Most common karyotype in complete molar pregnancy

A

46XX (completely dad)

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30
Q

Most common CF mutation

A

delta F508

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31
Q

most common cause of ambiguous genitalia

A

CAH

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32
Q

BRCA1 and 2 and what types of genes?

A

tumor suppressor genes

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33
Q

Most common HPV type in high grade cervical dz

A

HPV 16

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34
Q

National Data Base is used to…

A

record medical malpractice awards paid by docs to plaintiffs

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35
Q

Most common site of mets of gestational trophoblastic dz

A

Lungs (stage 3)

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36
Q

Most effective BC

A

implant

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37
Q

Persistent OP is common in which pelvis type?

A

Anthropoid

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38
Q

Cohort studies are

A

prospective

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39
Q

Case control studies are

A

retrospective

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40
Q

Most common sexual disorder in females

A

hypoactive sexual disorder

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41
Q

Most common cause of hirsutism

A

PCOS

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42
Q

Sacral agenesis occurs with what?

A

uncontrolled maternal DM

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43
Q

Best nonhormonal treatment for hot flashes

A

Paxil (paroxetine)

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44
Q

How is CAH inheritied

A

AR

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45
Q

The highest concentration of fibrinogen is in

A

Cryo

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46
Q

Treatment for PMDD

A

SSRI

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47
Q

Most common sign of uterine rupture

A

NRFHT

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48
Q

First line pressor for hypovolemic shock

A

norepi

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49
Q

Echo shows what in PPCM?

A

LVEF <45%

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50
Q

US finding most c/w accreta

A

turbulent placantal lacunae

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51
Q

Most common cause of PMB

A

atrophy

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52
Q

Which imaging modality gives the most radiation in pregnancy?

A

CT or CT-PE

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53
Q

For pt with h/o T5 spinal cord injury, what do you do to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

A

early regional anesthesia

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54
Q

Physiology of blood gases in pregnancy

A

resp alkalosis with compensatory met acidosis

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55
Q

In addition to glycemic control, what is acute therapy for DKA?

A

aggressive fluid resuscitation

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56
Q

Strongest risk factor for Pre-E

A

APAS

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57
Q

Strongest risk for PP infxn

A

c-section

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58
Q

Names of incisions in normal LTCS

A

Pfannenstiel, Kerr (uterine)

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59
Q

Mechanism of action of TXA

A

prevents degradation of fibrin through inhibition of plasminogen

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60
Q

Pregnant ot with pheo, HTNive- first med you give?

A

phenoxybenzamine (alpha blocker)

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61
Q

Treatment for ovarian hyperthecosis

A

BO

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62
Q

Most common cause of woman with Kell ab

A

h/o blood trx

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63
Q

What to do if pregnant woman has Kell ab

A

test FOC (if neg ok)

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64
Q

Most common symptoms of vaginal cuff dehiscence

A

abundant vaginal discharge

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65
Q

Average growth of dermoid per year

A

1.8 mm

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66
Q

Biggest risk factor for invasive cervical ca

A

never had a pap before

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67
Q

BI-RADS 0 on mammo means

A

incomplete exam

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68
Q

Most common causes of 1T losses

A

trisomy 16, turners, polyploid

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69
Q

what causes hypoTN after CLE placement

A

local anesthetic effect on sympathetic fibers

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70
Q

Most common side effect of tamoxifen

A

hot flashes

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71
Q

Leading cause of trauma in pregnancy

A

DV

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72
Q

Risk of seizure in severe pre-e without mag

A

2-3%

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73
Q

Typical eclamptic seizure lasts

A

less than 4 min

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74
Q

Purpose of mag in eclampsia

A

prevent next seizure

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75
Q

t1/2 of acetaminophen

A

3.5 hours

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76
Q

PPCM occurs

A

last mo preg, first 5mo PP

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77
Q

Most common cause of cancer death in women in US

A

lung cancer

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78
Q

when do you star a bisphosphonate

A

hip frx risk >3% or mjr frx risk > 10%

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79
Q

Characteristics of yolk sac tumor

A

Schiller-duval tumors, make AFP

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80
Q

Characteristics of granulosa cell tumor

A

solid mass, vaginal bleeding, inhibin, call-exner bodies

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81
Q

MOA of oxybutynin

A

anti-muscarinic

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82
Q

Injury to which nerve during GYN surgery causes motor dysfxn

A

obturator nerve

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83
Q

Recommendation for delivery in pt with accreta

A

CS at 34 w

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84
Q

Incision when rectus is transected at their origin at the pubic symphysis

A

Cherney

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85
Q

Most common cause of C-hyst

A

accreta

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86
Q

Accreta is absence of which cell layer

A

decidua basalis

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87
Q

Average ES thickness in women with endometrial ca

A

35mm

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88
Q

Recurrence risk of gDM

A

50%

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89
Q

T sign is in

A

di-di twins

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90
Q

lamba sign is in

A

di-di twins

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91
Q

Advanced paternal age increases risk of

A

autosomal dominant dz

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92
Q

Most common OB condition that results in DIC

A

abruption

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93
Q

Most common side effect of TXA

A

headache

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94
Q

WHat accelerate menopausal occurence

A

smoking

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95
Q

Actinomyces on IUD, next step

A

manage expectantly

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96
Q

Most common cause of primary ovarian failure

A

idiopathic

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97
Q

Which incision puts inferior epigastric vessels at risk

A

Maylard

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98
Q

Mode of inheritance of neural tube defects

A

multifactorial

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99
Q

What ovarian volume is diagnostic of PCOS

A

15mm

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100
Q

Sterilization at highest risk of failure

A

spring clip applicator

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101
Q

postterm pregnancy is commonly associated with which fetal condition/.

A

anencephaly

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102
Q

MOA of heparin

A

combines with ATIII

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103
Q

Typical sequence of puberty is

A

adrenarche (growth spurt), thelarche (breast bud), pubarche (pubic hari), peak growth spurt, menarche, ovulation

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104
Q

What aspect of GnRH causes puberty

A

amplitude, not frequency

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105
Q

MOA of warfarin

A

inhibits vitamin K dependent factors (2,7,9,10,C and S)

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106
Q

MOA of rvaroxaban

A

inhibits Xa

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107
Q

MOA of letrazole

A

aromatase inhib, inhibits androgens from becoming estrogen

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108
Q

MOA of cyclophophamide

A

alkylating agent, use with mesna to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis

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109
Q

MOA of 5-fluorouracil

A

nucleoside inhib

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110
Q

MOA of MTX

A

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

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111
Q

MOA of bleomycin

A

causes DNA breaks (causes pulmonary fibrosis which is worsened by O2)

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112
Q

MOA of doxorubicin

A

prevents double stranded DNA repair, causes CM and palmar redness

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113
Q

MOA of Taxol

A

binds to microtubules

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114
Q

MOA of cisplatin

A

cross links DNA to prevent replications; causes nephrotoxicity

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115
Q

MOA of Sumatriptan

A

serotonin receptor agonist

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116
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A

inhibit osteclasts

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117
Q

MOA of Oloparib (PARP)

A

inhibits poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase, for BRCA+ ca

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118
Q

MOA of metformin

A

decreases hepative gluconeogenesis

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119
Q

MOA of hydral

A

smooth muscle relaxant

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120
Q

MOA of mirabegron

A

beta 3 agonist, relaxes bladder (not to be used with HTN)

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121
Q

MOA of methergine

A

smooth muscled constrictor via serotonin receptors

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122
Q

most common adverse effect of implant

A

AUB

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123
Q

Most common extrauterine spread of endometrial ca

A

lymph nodes

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124
Q

Another term of EIN

A

complex endometrial hyplerplasia with atypia

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125
Q

Chance of concurrent cancer in pt with complex endometrial hyplerplasia with atypia

A

40%

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126
Q

HPV 16 is associated with what type of cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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127
Q

HPV 18 is associated with what type of cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

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128
Q

When should surgical management of dermoid be considered?

A

symptomatic or >5 cm or malignant features//always cystectomy, not oophorectomy

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129
Q

Incidence of recurrence of dermoid?

A

3-4%

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130
Q

Dermoid can develop into which type of cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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131
Q

h/o PTD, what GA are CXL indicated in asymptomatic women

A

16-24w

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132
Q

What antenatal testing is indicated in gDMA1

A

none

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133
Q

Definition of poly

A

MVP > 8cm; AFI >25

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134
Q

Definition of oligo

A

MVP < 2 cm; only use MVP in 3T; AFI <8

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135
Q

When does cleavage occur in di-di twins?

A

days 1-3

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136
Q

When does cleavage occur in mo-di twins?

A

4-8 days

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137
Q

When does cleavage occur in mo-mo twins?

A

8-13 days

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138
Q

When does cleavage occur in conjoined twins?

A

13-15 days, most commonly thoracic-abdominal

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139
Q

Most common karyotypes in duodenal atresia

A

1) normal (2/3) 2) trisomy 21 (1/3)

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140
Q

US finding with duodenal atresia

A

double bubble sign

141
Q

Characteristics of omphalocele

A

covered; associated with Down’s

142
Q

Which cell in pregnancy make hcg

A

syncitiotrophoblasts

143
Q

What FSH level is associated with menopause?

A

> 30

144
Q

blood work up for recurrent pregnancy loss

A

anticardiolipin IgG, anti-beta 2 glycoprotein IgG and Ig M, lupus anti-coagulant
repeat test 12 w apart;
karyotype
Prolactin, TSH, HgbA1c

145
Q

imaging workup in recurrent pregnancy loss

A

evaluate for uterine abnormalities with sonohyst, HSG MRI or hysteroscopy

146
Q

when to measure luteal ohase progesterone in recurrent pregnancy loss

A

never

147
Q

treatment option for pregnant woman with APS

A

lovenox or low dose ASA once viable, IUP is identified

148
Q

Treatment for hyper-prolactinemia

A

dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine)

149
Q

treatment in pregnant woman with recurrent pregnancy loss with no abnormal labs

A

none, same as normal pregnancy, NOT blood thinners

150
Q

IUFD workup

A

KB, tox screen before delivery
CBC, parvo, syphilis, lupus AC, anto-cardiolipin, TSH, coombs
Fetal autopsy, placental pathology

151
Q

Best tissue to obtain fetal tissue after delivery of a demise

A

placenta (block 1x1 cm) near cord insertion, next best is patella, then umbilical cord

152
Q

Pregnant woman exposed to parvo, next step

A

maternal parvo Ab

153
Q

Besides colpo what additional test does a woman with AGCUS need?

A

ECC

154
Q

empiric ABX for neutropenic fever?

A

PO: cipro + augmentin
IV: meropenem + pip-tazo

155
Q

which gene is suppressed in uterine pap-serous cancer and which is suppressed in endometrioid adenocarcinoma?

A

endometrioid adenocarcinoma: PTEN

UPSC: TP53

156
Q

Where does tamoxifen act?

A

+ on uterus and bone
- on breast
(increased risk of DVT’s too)

157
Q

Common side effect of aromatase inhibitors?

A

joint and muscle aches

158
Q

Most common abnormal pap smear

A

normal cytology with + HR HPV

159
Q

If a patient has HR HPV 16, what is her immediate risk of CIN 3?

A

3%

160
Q

What is the most common HPV strain to cause squamous cell carcinoma?

A

16

161
Q

What is the most common HPV strain to cause adenocarcinoma?

A

18

162
Q

What is the treatment for PMDD?

A

SSRI

163
Q

2 Most common causes of SAB?

A

Turners, Trisomy 16

164
Q

MOA of taxol

A

microtubules

165
Q

MOA of platin

A

crosslinks DNA

166
Q

Most common fetal CNS abnormality on AS?

A

ventriculomegaly

167
Q

Invasive cervical cancer which causes hydronephrosis, stage?

A

3B

168
Q

Most common blood type in Rh+ woman?

A

CDE/cde

169
Q

MOA of elagolix (for menorrhagia 2/2 fibroids)

A

GnRH antagonist

170
Q

Fetal congenital birth defect associated with diabetes?

A

sacral agenesis

171
Q

Which patients need a PARP inhibitor?

A

platinum sensitive patients with ovarian ca after initial treatment (maintenance therapy)

172
Q

Most common complication of radical hysterectomy?

A

urinary retention

173
Q

most common cause of holoprosencephaly

A

trisomy 13

174
Q

Percentage risk of iso-immunization in Rh neg women without rhogam

A

20%

175
Q

Which forceps does not have pelvic curve?

A

Kielland

176
Q

Which cytokine is responsible for dysmenorrhea?

A

PGF2

177
Q

Which test distinguishes PCOS from CAH?

A

early follicular phase 17-OHP

178
Q

Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in newborn?

A

CAH

179
Q

3 most common causes of primary amenorrhea in order

A

Gonadal dysgenesis, Mullerian agenesis, (T-fem) androgen insensitivity sndrome

180
Q

Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy?

A

gTCP

181
Q

Most common cause of cystic hygroma?

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

182
Q

What modifiable RF increases your risk of mucinous ovarian cancer?

A

smoking

183
Q

Thrombocytopenia of pregnancy, most likely dx if PLT >100? if PLT around 50?

A

> 100 gTCP

around 50 ITP

184
Q

How to treat APAS in pregnancy?

A

lovenox 40 mg daily + ASA

185
Q

Which thrombophilia can you not test for during pregnancy?

A

Protein S deficiency

186
Q

Which conditions in pregnancy are associated with neonatal purpura fulminans?

A

protein C and S deficiency

187
Q

How do you diagnose APAS?

A

Lupus anti-coagulant, anti-cardiolipin, anti-b2 glycoprotein. Two tests 12 weeks apart

188
Q

Critical titer level for iso-immunization, how often to test and what to do when critical level is reached?

A

> 1:8 or 1:16, check every 4 weeks until then, test paternal blood type

189
Q

MCA doppler level where you are concerned for fetal anemia?

A

> 1.5 MoM

190
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?

A

CMV

191
Q

What is the risk of vertical transmission in CMV?

A

40%

192
Q

Which type of insurance covers anything, whenever?

A

occurrence insurance

193
Q

What type of insurance only covers you for the time you have the insurance and when the claim is made?

A

claims insurance

194
Q

What can you buy if you have claims insurance and why?

A

“nose” and “tail” to CYA before and after respectively

195
Q

Code if you do multiple related procedures in the same visit?

A

51

196
Q

Code if you do 2 significantly different procedures in the same visit?

A

25

197
Q

Code for difficult procedure, multiple attempts

A

22

198
Q

Code for attempted procedure, but failed

A

53

199
Q

How big must a CRL be without CA to dx loss?

A

5mm

200
Q

When should you retest for syphillis after treatment and how should you test? What titer means you’ve been successfully treatment?

A

6-12 months later with RPR

1:4

201
Q

Which thrombophilia is “acquired”?

A

APAS

202
Q

How do you distinguish a primary vs. re-activation infection of CMV? And how does this work?

A

avidity testing- tests strength of attachment of IgG to antigen

203
Q

Atypical glandular cells, what is the next step of management?

A

ECC

204
Q

Criteria for radical trachelectomy in early stage cervical ca?

A
  • desire for fertility
  • <40 yo
  • lesions less than 2 cm
  • stage 1
  • no nodal mets
205
Q

Treatment for Placental-site trophoblastic tumors

A

hyst

206
Q

ultrasound finding most predictive of down’s in 2nd trimester?

A

nuchal fold > 6mm

207
Q

What fetal malformation is the highest risk in obesity in pregnancy?

A

neural tube defect

208
Q

Hyperthyroid treatment in pregnancy?

A

PTU in 1T, methimazole in 2T

209
Q

Which type of pathogen is most responsible for infections in blood transfusions now?

A

gram + bacteria

210
Q

MOA of PTU in pregnancy?

A

inhibition of iodine organification

211
Q

Most common gastroischisis karyotype?

A

46,XX

212
Q

Protein gene relationships in HPV

A

E6- p53

E7- Rb

213
Q

Blood product with highest concentration of fibrinogen?

A

cryo

214
Q

Hypotension after epidural is due to?

A

sympathetic fibers

215
Q

MOA of sumatriptan

A

serotonin agonist

216
Q

Time between lovenox and CLE? PPX and therapeutic

A

PPX 12 h

Therapeutic 24 h

217
Q

Mean GA for delivery of triplets? twins?

A

triplets 31.9 w

twins 35.1 w

218
Q

Chemo for ovarian ca associated with bowel perf?

A

bevacizumab

219
Q

Most common side effect of tamoxifen

A

hot flashes

220
Q

Biggest risk of prolonged HRT?

A

stroke

221
Q

Inheritance pattern of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

X linked recessive

222
Q

ART for retrograde ejaculation?

A

IUI with retrograde ejaculate from urine

223
Q

Which treatment for prolactinemia is more tolerable and why?

A

cabergoline, twice weekly dosing, fewer side effects (postural hypotension), more effective

224
Q

Which dopamine agonist is preferred for prolactinoma in pregnancy?

A

bromocriptine

225
Q

How many sperm are generally needed for IUI to be successful?

A

10 million

226
Q

Treatment for low bone density in adolescents?

A

transdermal estrogen with cyclic oral progesterone

227
Q

Which embryonic structure forms the ureters?

A

Mesonephric duct

228
Q

What is another name for the mullerian duct?

A

Paramesonephric duct

229
Q

Spinal cord lesions above what level can cause autonomic hyperreflexia?

A

Spinal column T6

Spinal cord level T7-T8

230
Q

Best anti-incontinence procedure concurrent with urethral diverticulum repair?

A

Autologous fadcial sling

231
Q

MOA of loperamide

A

Opioid receptor agonist

Decrease smooth muscle tone off large intestine, allowing water to be absorbed from feces

232
Q

Cut off for size of recto-vaginal fistula management. At what size do they need surgery?

A

5mm

233
Q

Most likely cause of osteo after sacrocolpopexy?

A

Staph aureus

234
Q

What spinal cord dermatimes should a CLE cover?

A

T10 to S5

235
Q

Most common gbs presentation for babies, late onset

A

Fever

Not prevented by intrapartum abx

236
Q

Personal h/o VTE increases risk by

A

3-4 fold increase

237
Q

Noninmune cause of hydrops

A

CV

238
Q

Formula for SENSitivity

A

A/a+c

239
Q

Formula for SPECificity

A

D/B+D

240
Q

Formula for positive predictive value

A

A/a+b

241
Q

Formula for negative predictive value

A

D/c+d

242
Q

How is prevalence related to PPV

A

If prevalence increases so does PPV

243
Q

Formula for prevalence

A

A+c/ total

244
Q

What is a case control study?

A

Observational

Pick disease and retrospectively look at risk factors

245
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Pick the risk factors, look at the disease prospectively

Good for common diseases

246
Q

What is type 1 error

A

Alpha

Saying there’s an effect when there’s not

247
Q

What is p?

A

Probability of making type 1 error

248
Q

What is type 2 error

A

Beta

Saying theres no difference when there really is

249
Q

Formula for power

A

1-beta (type 2 error)

250
Q

Formula for odds ratio

A

Ad/bc

251
Q

Formula for relative risk

A

(A/a+b) / (c/c+d)

252
Q

White layer on US that should be separating placenta from uterus?

A

Nitabuch layer

253
Q

Inheritance pattern of BRCA

A

Auto dom

254
Q

Risk of preE in twins? Triplets?

A

10% twins, 20% triplets

255
Q

Most common karyotupe in incomplete mole

A

67XXY

256
Q

Which STI is more common in older women than younger?

A

Trich

257
Q

Chance of developing abruption after minor abdominal trauma?

A

2%

258
Q

Typical eclamptic seizure lasts for

A

Less than 4 minutes

259
Q

Half life of tylenol

A

3.5 h

260
Q

Characteristics of yolk sac tumor

A

Schiller duval bodies

AFP

261
Q

E6 and E7 are

A

Onco proteins

262
Q

Delivery timing of accreta

A

34w

263
Q

Test most likely to determine cause of stillbirth

A

Autopsy

264
Q

Anti epilepsy drug with highest risk of birth defect

A

Valproic acid

265
Q

Most significant pulmonary change in pregnancy?

A

Reduction of functional residual capacity

266
Q

Quad screen change in downs

A

Increased hcg

267
Q

Normal umbilical artery cord gases

A

PH 7.25
PaCO2 50
PaO2 20
Base deficit 5

268
Q

Base deficit cut off that reveals metabolic acidosis

A

12

269
Q

BMI and wright gain suggestion in pregnancy

A 
<18.5 = 28-40 lbs
18.5-24.9 = 25-35 lbs
25-29.9 = 15-25 lbs
30+ = 11-20 lbs
270
Q

Difference between stage IA1 and IA2 cervical cancer?

A

Depth of invasion
IA1: <3 mm
IA2: 3-5 mm

271
Q

Unilateral hydronephrosis with cervical cancer, what is the stage?

A

3b

272
Q

Most common site of mets for choriocarcinoma?

A

Lungs

273
Q

Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia?

A

CAH

274
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with serous ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125

275
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with yolk sac ovarian tumor?

A

AFP

276
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with granulosa cell ovarian cancer?

A

inhibin, estrodiol

277
Q

Which tumor marker is associated with dysgerminoma?

A

LDH

278
Q

Which histologic finding is associated with granulosa cell ovarian cancer?

A

Call-exner bodies

279
Q

Which histologic finding is associated with yolk sac ovarian tumors?

A

Schiller Duval bodies

280
Q

Which histologic finding is associated with dermoids?

A

Rokitansky tubercle (solid part)

281
Q

Which histologic finding is associated with serous ovarian cancer?

A

Psammoma bodies

282
Q

Amsel’s criteris for BV?

A 
3 out of 4
grey
pH >4.5
fishy odor
>20% clue cells
283
Q

Which STI is bimodal in women?

A

Trich

284
Q

How do you diagnose DIV?

A

microscopy: parabasal cells, WBC’s

285
Q

How to treat DIV?

A

Topical clinda, steroids

286
Q

How to treat ER+ breast cancer in pre-meno versus post-meno women?

A

Pre-meno: tamoxifen

Post-meno: Aromatase inhibitor

287
Q

Common side effect of aromatase inhibitors?

A

decreased bone density

288
Q

Treatment of symptomatic labial agglutiation?

A

Topical estrogen

289
Q

Most common cause of precocious puberty

A

idiopathic

290
Q

Most common organ to prolapse after vaginal cuff dehiscence?

A

ileum

291
Q

Most sensitive test for fetal anemia?

A

MCA dopplers

292
Q

Treatment for Paget’s dz

A

WLE

293
Q

5 epithelial cell ovarian tumors

A 
Serous
Mucinous
Clear Cell
Endometrioid
Brenner
294
Q

4 germ cell ovarian tumors

A

dermoid
dysgerminoma
immature teratoma
yolk sac (endodermal sinus)

295
Q

3 stromal cell ovarian tumors

A

graulosa cell
sertoli-leydig
fibroma

296
Q

Chance of dermoid being bilateral

A

10%

297
Q

Unique, rare symptoms of ovarian fibroma

A

Meig’s syndrome: ascites, pleural effusions

298
Q

Average size of dermoids

A

7-8 cm

299
Q

Average growth of dermoids per year

A

1.2 mm per year

300
Q

Most common malignancy to develop from dermoid?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

301
Q

H/o CS, now with IUFD. What is the gestational age limit that you can use prostaglandins?

A

28 weeks

302
Q

MOA of valproic acid

A

anti-folate, can result in spina bifida

303
Q

3 biggest RF for peri-op DVT?

A

cancer, >60yo, major surgery

304
Q

In early pregnancy, which innate immune system cells are present in abundance in uterine decidua?

A

Natural killer cells

305
Q

Where is spinal anesthesia injected?

A

within the dura mater

306
Q

Where is epidural anesthesia injected?

A

between the ligamentum flavum and dura mater

307
Q

First and second most common congenital defects?

A

1) Cardiac

2) Neural tube

308
Q

Which part of the quad screen looks neural tube defects?

A

MS-AFP

309
Q

Which forceps are used for rotation?

A

Kielland forceps

310
Q

Which forceps are used for a round, unmolded head?

A

Elliott forceps

311
Q

Which forceps are used for vaginal breech delivery?

A

Piper forceps

312
Q

Which forceps are used for a molded head?

A

Simpson forceps

313
Q

At which gestational do you use chorionic villus sampling? Amniocentesis?

A

CVS: 10-13 weeks
Amnio: anytime after 11w, normally 15-20 weeks

314
Q

What is surgicel made of and how does it works?

A

oxidized regenerated cellulose
it has an acidic pH, which breaks down RBC resulting in brown color
acidic pH inactivates thrombin

315
Q

Which stage of cervical cancer benefits from palliative radiation?

A

stage 4b

316
Q

What is the most common karyotype for a mole?

A

46 XX or 46XY, complete mole

317
Q

How is a complete mole made?

A

empty ovum that is fertilized by 2 sperms

318
Q

What is the recommended management of enlarged BL theca lutein cysts in a molar pregnancy?

A

exp man

319
Q

What is the most severe complication of vertical transmission of HPV in a mother with anal warts?

A

juvenile-onset respiratory papillomatosis

320
Q

What ovarian size increases the risk of torsion?

A

> 5 cm

321
Q

What pH is amniotic fluid?

A

7 to 7.3

322
Q

When should flagyl be avoided?

A

in the first trimester

323
Q

Which type of pelvis is associated with transverse fetal lie?

A

Platypelloid.

324
Q

Within how many minutes should you place an IUD after placental delivery?

A

within 10 minutes

325
Q

Contraindications to postpartum IUD placement

A

chorio, sepsis, hemorrhage

326
Q

What is the rate of expulsion of IUD’s placed immediately PP?

A

10-27%

327
Q

What is postpartum thyroiditis?

A

1-4 months PP: hyperthyroidism
then hypothyroidism
then normal

328
Q

What is the MOA of dexamethasone in thyroid storm?

A

blocks conversion of T4 to T3

329
Q

What is the half life of beta hcg?

A

24-36h

330
Q

Amniotic fluid continues to increase until how many weeks gestation?

A

34-36 weeks

331
Q

Presence of endometriomas is at least what stage of endo?

A

Stage 3

332
Q

What drugs are in Prep?

A

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-emtricitabine

333
Q

How many days after fertilization does cardiac activity begin?

A

22 days

334
Q

What metabolic changes can happen with massive transfusion protocol?

A

Metabolic alkalosis
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesia

335
Q

What is used for prevention of hypocalcemia in MTP?

A

calcium chloride

336
Q

What are postmenopausal patients with TOA’s at risk of?

A

malignancy

337
Q

most common cause of PP endometritis?

A

aerobes

338
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

1T: propylthiouracil
2T: methimazole

339
Q

BRCA 1 is on which chromosome?

A

17

340
Q

BRCA 2 is which chromosome?

A

13

341
Q

What GA do you deliver absent EDF? Reverse EDF?

A

absent EDF: 34w

reversed EDF: 30-32w

342
Q

Which gene can contribute to neural tube defects?

A

MTHFR

343
Q

Most common way to get toxo?

A

raw meat

344
Q

What is the lifetime ovarian cancer risk of BRCA 1?

A

39-46%

345
Q

What age is BSO recommended in BRCA1? BRCA2?

A

BRCA1: 35-40 yo
BRCA2: 40-45yo

346
Q

Quintero staging for TTTS

A 
Stage 1: poly-oli
Stage 2: no bladder in donor for >60 min
Stage 3: Abnormal dopplers
Stage 4: hydrops
Stage 5: death
347
Q

When do you start treatment for TTTS?

A

stage 2 (no bladder in donor fetus for >60 min)

348
Q

Which 4 arteries can cause a vulvar hemotoma?

A

inferior rectal
perineal
urethral
posterior labial

349
Q

Most predictive factor of successful ECV

A

transverse lie

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