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CREOG > CREOG True learn > Flashcards

CREOG True learn Flashcards

1
Q

% of women who experience DV

A

30

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2
Q

rate of uterine inversion

A

1/2000 - 1/20’000

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3
Q

up to how many weeks can you use misoprostol for IOL with hx of CD

A

28w

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4
Q

FIGO score of high risk GTD

A

7+

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5
Q

what % of cervical cancers are caused by HPV 16 or 18

A

66%

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6
Q

name 7 high risk HPV genotype

A 
16
18
31
33
45
52
58
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7
Q

Minimum % weight loss for obese patient to have improvement in stress incontinence

A

5%

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8
Q

Treatment of high risk GTD

A

EMA-CO:

  • etoposide
  • MTX
  • actinomycin D
  • cisplatin
  • oncovin (vincrisine)
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9
Q

dose-limiting side effect of cisplatin

A

nephroxicity

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10
Q

what is BEP?

A

rx of malignant germ cell and sex-cord stromal tumors

  • belomycin
  • etoposide
  • cisplatin (Platinum)
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11
Q

AE of etoposide

A

secondary leukemia

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12
Q

AE of bleomycin

A

pulmonary toxicity

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13
Q

AE of cyclophosphamide

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

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14
Q

what % of APLS have iuGR

A

15%

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15
Q

how many x more likely to get PEC with APLS

A

5.5x

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16
Q

what % of women with recurrent pregnancy loss have APLS

A

5-20%

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17
Q

what % of fetuses enter the pelvis in OP position?

A

20%

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18
Q

what % of fetuses deliver in OP position

A

5-10%

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19
Q

what % of fetuses enter pelvis in OA position

A

50%

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20
Q

what % of fetuses enter pelvis in OT position

A

25%

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21
Q

NNT of epidurals for 1 more successful ECV

A

5

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22
Q

prevalence of autism

A

1/88

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23
Q

incidence of brachial plexus injuries after shoulder dystocia

A

4-20%

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24
Q

what % of brachial plexus injuries occur during CD

A

4%

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25
Q

what % of brachial plexus injuries lead to permanent damage

A

<10%

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26
Q

1g ancef for weight and BMI:

A

<100kg (<220lbs), <35 BMI

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27
Q

2g ancef for weight:

A

> 100kg/220lbs, BMI >35

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28
Q

when to redose ancef (hrs, EBL)

A

> 3hrs

>1500 EBL

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29
Q

incidence of breast-feeding associated mastitis

A

1%

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30
Q

given mastitis, what % will get abscess?

A

10%

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31
Q

1st line for mastitis

A

dicloxacillin

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32
Q

1st line for mastitis is pen allergic

A

erythromycin

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33
Q

what is in cryoprecipitate?

A
  • FFP
  • Factor VIII
  • Factor XIII
  • fibrinogen
  • VWF
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34
Q

risk of transmission and perinatal death with primary syphilis

A

50%/50%

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35
Q

risk of transmission and perinatal death with secondary syphilis

A

50%/50%

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36
Q

risk of transmission and perinatal death with early latent syphilis

A

40%/20%

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37
Q

risk of transmission and perinatal death with late latent syphilis

A

10% transmission

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38
Q

MOA of oxybutinin

A

competitive Ach inhibitor at M receptors –> decreased detrussor contractions

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39
Q

world prevalence of PCOS

A

6-10%

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40
Q

% of infertility patients that have PCOS

A

25-30%

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41
Q

what % of women who are anovulatory have PCOS (as per roterdam cirteria)

A

90%

50% as per NIH criteria

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42
Q

types of invasive genetic testing and what GA to do them

A

CVS: 10-14w
Amnioscentesis: >14w

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43
Q

incidence of heterotopic pregnancy

A

1 in 30’000

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44
Q

types of submucosal fibroids and success rates for hysteroscopic removal

A 
Type 0 (all in cavity) = 96-97%
Type 1 (<50% in myometrium) = 86-90%
Type 2 (>50% in myometrium) = 61-83%
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45
Q

lifetime risk of breast cancer in women

A

1 in 8

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46
Q

E6 of HPV targets:

A

p53

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47
Q

E7 of HPV targets:

A

Rb

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48
Q

what is the most common mullerian abnormality and what is the rate of miscarriage with this abnormality

A 
septate uterus (85-90%)
65% miscarriage rate
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49
Q

creatinine level in vagina above which you can say there is aurogenital fistula

A

17

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50
Q

optimal placement of lateral trochars

A

2cm medial and 2cm cephalic from ASIS

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51
Q

most commonly injured vessels during laparoscopic port placement

A

inferior epigastric arteries

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52
Q

what common thalassemia can hgb electrophoresis NOT pick up

A

a-thal

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53
Q

what % of pregnancies with elevated AFP actually have NTD

A

2%

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54
Q

what % of pregnancies with NTD have elevated AFP

A

80-90%

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55
Q

4 criteria to diagnose HIE

A
  • umbilical artery acidemia
  • multisystem organ failure
  • APGAR <5 at 5 and 10 mins
  • spastic quadriplegia or dyskinetic cerebral palsy
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56
Q

risk of shoulder dystocia with previous dystocia

A

10% (up to 16%)

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57
Q

incidence of shoulder dystocia

A

3%

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58
Q

under what EF is TOP recommended

A

<40%

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59
Q

under what circumstances do women need antibiotic for HSG and what is the abx

A

hx of PID (or any STDs) or dilated tubes

Doxy pre-procedure and 100 BID q5d after

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60
Q

emergency contraception that can be used in the 72- 120hrs period

A

Ulipristal and copper IUD

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61
Q

dosing of HPV vaccine per age

A

<15yo: 2 doses, 0 and 6-12m

>15yo: 3 doses, 0, 1-2, and 6m

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62
Q

mirena failure rate at 1 yr

A

0.2%

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63
Q

copper IUD failure rate @ 1 yr

A

0.8%

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64
Q

Nexplanon failure rate @ 1 yr

A

0.05%

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65
Q

female sterilization failure rate @ 1 yr

A

0.5%

66
Q

male sterilization failure rate @ 1 yr

A

0.1% (1.5% typical use)

67
Q

below what plt count to treat ITP

A

30k

68
Q

min plt for Cesarean

A

50k

69
Q

min plt count for epidural

A

80k

70
Q

partial mole IHC staining marker

A

p57kip2

71
Q

normal umbilical artery findings

A

pH 7.28 ± 0.05
PCO2 49.2 ± 8.4 mm Hg
PO2 18.0 ± 6.2 mm Hg
HCO3 22.3 ± 2.5 mEq/L

72
Q

MTP options of RBC:FFP:plt

A

1: 1:1
4: 4:1
6: 4:1

73
Q

hgb goal in sickle cell in pregnancy

A

hgb >10

hbS < 40%

74
Q

max amount of lidocaine

A

4mg/kg

75
Q

max amount of lidocaine + epi

A

7mg/kg

76
Q

what weeks can you collect cell free DNA?

A

> 9-10w

77
Q

when does neural tube close?

A

4w post-conception (6w post-LMP)

78
Q

first line medicine for fibromyalgia

A

TCAs (amytryptiline)

79
Q

how old is APA?

A

40-50

80
Q

normal level of free testosterone

A

25-40nG/dL

81
Q

Normal DHEA-S

A

non detectabel - 470 (workup if > 500)

82
Q

what is sapropterin

A

synthetic BH4, adjunctive rx to moms with PKU to further decrease toxic phenylalanine levels

83
Q

when do give TDAP in pregnancy

A

27-36w

84
Q

incidence of postpartum depression

A

10-20%

85
Q

IUD perforation rate

A

1/1000

86
Q

IUD expulsion rate

A

2-10% (24% if immediately PP)

87
Q

what is FRAX

A

Fraction Risk Assessment Tool. Used if DEXA reveals osteopenia to determine need for medications

88
Q

When to Rx for osteopenia based on FRAX score

A

major osteoporotic fracture risk >20% in 10-yrs

Hip fracture risk >3% in 10 years

89
Q

At what aortic root dilation should you do cesarean

A

> 40-45mm dilation

90
Q

when do start DM screening if BMI <25

A

45yo

91
Q

when to start DM screening if BMI >25

A

if other RF present: sedentery, 1st degree relative, high ethnic/racial group, hc G-DM, HTN, dyslipidemia, PCO, vascular disease

92
Q

how often to screen for DM once started

A

q3 years

93
Q

MCC of acute pancreatitis (2)

A

alcohol
gallstones
together 2/3 of cases

94
Q

what is best fluid type for recussitation

A

colloid ( LR, NS, dextran, glycogen, starches)

95
Q

Stages of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia

A

Stage I: confined to the uterus

  - Stage II: GTN extends outside of the uterus but is limited to genital structures (adnexa, vagina, broad ligament) 
  - Stage III: GTN extends to the lungs, with or without genital tract involvement 
  - Stage IV: GTN extends to distant sites, including liver and brain
96
Q

At what age should you start biopsying bartholin gland cysts to rule out malignancy

A

40yo

97
Q

Incidence of HIV transmission penis to oral

A

0-4/10’000

98
Q

incidence of HIV transmission receptive anal

A

138/ 10’000

99
Q

incidence of HIV receptive penile to vaginal

A

8/ 10’000

100
Q

Prevalence of gestational thrombocytopenia

A

7-12% of pregnancies

101
Q

herbal treatment for hot flashes

A

Black Cohosh

102
Q

What is a positive contraction stress test

A

Late decels with 50% of ctx (need min 3/10mins)

103
Q

Lifetime risk of cervical cancer

A

1/75

104
Q

What percentage of smokers quit during pregnancy

A

53%

105
Q

What percentage of smokers who quit during pregnancy resume smoking by 6 months PP

A

40%

106
Q

when to start assessing presentation for possible ECV?

A

36w

107
Q

sensitivity of pipelle endometrial biopsy for detection cancer vs. hyperplasia

A

99% cancer

81% hyperplasia

108
Q

what % of the endometrium is sampled during a pipelle biopsy

A

5-15%

109
Q

time to onset of pitocin; time to steady state

A

5 mins; 40 mins

110
Q

baseline % of spontaneous abortions in the general population

A

7-20%

111
Q

% of spontaneous abortions in pre-gestational diabetics

A

26.8%

112
Q

baseline risk of PTD

A

3.5%

113
Q

risk of PTD after excisional procedure

A

6.6% (~double the baseline risk of 3.5%)

114
Q

Metabolic syndrome criteria

A

3/5 of:
Elevated waist circumference (≥102 cm or ≥ 40 in. in men, ≥ 85 cm or ≥ 35 inches in women)
Elevated triglyceride levels (≥ 150 mg/dL)
Reduced HDL levels (<40 mg/dL in women)
Elevated blood pressure (≥ 130 mm Hg systolic or ≥85 mm Hg diastolic)
Elevated fasting glucose levels (≥ 100 mg/dL)

115
Q

what is the risk of recurrence of OASIS

A

3%

116
Q

what is the most thrombogenic of the thrombophilias

A

Antithrombin deficiency

117
Q

when is the greatest risk of VTE during pregnancy?

A

<20w

118
Q

incidence of pre-partum depression (pregnant - 12m PP)

A

1/7

119
Q

incidence of PROM in term pregnancies

A

8%

120
Q

%of term PROM that will deliver by 5hrs; 28hrs of rupture?

A 
5hrs = 50%
28hrs = 95%
121
Q

prothombin gene mutation and type of mutations

A

G21210A; point mutation

122
Q

placement of vacuum

A

Center of cup 3cm from posterior fontanelle

123
Q

pregnancy rate of copper IUD when used for emergency contraceptions

A

1/1000

124
Q

Child Pugh classification and risk of death form non-hepatic surgery

A

A: 10%
B: 17%
C:63%

125
Q

what are CAPs

A

Contraction Associated Protein:

  • connexin-43
  • (A)oytocin
  • prostaglandin F2
126
Q

HDFN: gene, prevalence, when does it occur, rx

A

gene: HPA-1a
Prevalence: 2% of preg. wiht no HPA-1a but prevalence only 1/1000 because needs fetal-maternal hemorrhage (which only happens in 5-10% of pregs)
When: first baby
Rx: IVIG +/- prednisone at 12 or 20w

127
Q

success rate of EAU for fibroids

A

~100%

128
Q

Prevalence and management of vasa previa

A

1/2500

Steroids 28-32w, hospitalize 30-34w, deliver 34-37w

129
Q

when to deliver HIV positive, VL >1000

A

38w by c-section

130
Q

how many weeks after varicella vaccine to conceive

A

4w

131
Q

risk of male breast CA with BRCA 1

A

1%

132
Q

when to stop HPV screen if normal paps

A

65

hx of 2x cotest in 10 yrs OR 3x reflex in 10 yrs

133
Q

for what previous abnormal paps do you stop screening at 20 yrs after normal results/treatment

A

CIN2, CIN3, adenocarcinoma

134
Q

carbamazapine teratogenicity

A

nail hypoplasia, facial dysmorphisms

135
Q

lamotrigine teratogenicity

A

none! use for bipolar in pregnancy

136
Q

parotexine teratogenicity

A

heart defects (SSRI)

137
Q

valproate teratogenicity

A

NTD; fetal growth restriction, facial dysmorphology, and limb and heart defects

138
Q

what disease linked fto primary ovarian insufficiency

A

Fragile X - FMR1

139
Q

how many calories do you need to burn to lose weight when obese?

A

2000cal/week

140
Q

risk of cancer per BIRADS score

A 
0 - NA
1 - 1%
2 - 1%
3 - <2%
4a - 10%
4c - 50-90%
5 - >95%
141
Q

what is the periviable period

A

20+0 - 25+6

142
Q

how many calories do you need to burn to lose weight when obese?

A

2000cal/week

143
Q

what % of women treated with properly fitting pessary are symptom free at 4m and 1- 2yrs?

A 
4m = 70-90%
1-2y = 53-80%
144
Q

which uterine anomaly has the best pregnancy prognosis

A

didelphys

145
Q

patient presents with breast pain only, what are the chances she has cancer?

A

0.5-3%

146
Q

UAE RELATIVE contraindications

A

Coagulopathy (bleeding complications)
Renal impairment (renal effects of contrast)
Desire for future fertility (pregnancy complications)
Uterine size greater than 20-24 weeks (difficult to embolize)
Prior salpingectomy or salpingo-oophorectomy (altered arterial anatomy)
Prior pelvic radiation (altered arterial anatomy)
Concurrent GnRH agonist use (hinders embolization)
Pedunculated: subserosal or submucous leiomyoma (necrosis causes detachment)
Large hydrosalpinx (increased infection risk)
Severe contrast allergy (allergic reaction risk)

147
Q

which uterine anomaly has the best pregnancy prognosis

A

didelphys

148
Q

ECV at 36w reduces risk of 1’ CD by what %?

A

50%

149
Q

UAE RELATIVE contraindications

A

Coagulopathy (bleeding complications)
Renal impairment (renal effects of contrast)
Desire for future fertility (pregnancy complications)
Uterine size greater than 20-24 weeks (difficult to embolize)
Prior salpingectomy or salpingo-oophorectomy (altered arterial anatomy)
Prior pelvic radiation (altered arterial anatomy)
Concurrent GnRH agonist use (hinders embolization)
Pedunculated: subserosal or submucous leiomyoma (necrosis causes detachment)
Large hydrosalpinx (increased infection risk)
Severe contrast allergy (allergic reaction risk)

150
Q

what is the only thrombophilia you cant test for in pregnancy?

A

Protein S deficiency

151
Q

what type of vaccine is HPV vaccine

A

viral capsid protein

152
Q

Sonogram findings of EPL:

A

crown-rump length of ≥ 7 mm and no heartbeat
mean sac diameter of ≥ 25 mm and no embryo
absence of embryo with heartbeat ≥ 2 weeks after a scan that showed a gestational sac without a yolk sac or ≥ 11 days after a scan that showed a gestational sac with a yolk sac.

153
Q

what is the only thrombophilia you cant test for in pregnancy?

A

Protein S deficiency

154
Q

what % of women do not attend a post-partum visit

A

40%

155
Q

Sonogram findings of EPL:

A

crown-rump length of ≥ 7 mm and no heartbeat
mean sac diameter of ≥ 25 mm and no embryo
absence of embryo with heartbeat ≥ 2 weeks after a scan that showed a gestational sac without a yolk sac or ≥ 11 days after a scan that showed a gestational sac with a yolk sac.

156
Q

When to repeat DEXA

A

15 years: women who are older than 65-years-old with a T-score greater than -1.5.
5 years: women with a T-score between -1.5 to -1.99.
1-year: women with a T-score between –2.0 and –2.49

157
Q

what % of women do not attend a post-partum visit

A

40%

158
Q

Medical treatment of mastalgia

A

Danazol 200qd or 100 bid
Only medicine

After decreased coffee, salt and fat; nsaids

159
Q

AE of danazole

A

Hirsutism, acne, hair loss, weight gain, sore throat, voice deepening, menstrual irregularities, clitoral enlargement

160
Q

% of patient with PTL that deliver full term

A

50%

161
Q

pregnancy rates 1-2 yrs after myomectomy with no other infertility issues

A

40-60%

162
Q

risk of clear cell carcinoma from endometriosis

A

0.7-1%

CREOG (3 decks)

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