Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ophthalmology > Credit test > Flashcards

Credit test Flashcards

1
Q

A cataract operation is indicated to

A

Restore visual acuity and for congenital and traumatic cataracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A child with strabismus has to wear prescribed glasses

A

Accommodative esotropia - 50% success?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A newborn child with bilateral dense cataract should be operated

A

as soon as possible (usually before 2 months as it leads to amblyopia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A normal human cornea is

A

11.5mm diameter, and 0.5-0.6mm thick in centre and 0.6-0.8mm at the periphery.
Refractive power is ~43D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient with anterior uveitis feels

A

Pain constantly, worse during accommodation and sharp light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient with suspected retinal detachment is examined by

A

Optical coherence tomography (OCT) or with the indirect ophthalmoscope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A peripheral iridectomy is indicated in

A

Angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute conjunctivitis is

A

Common, bilateral, mucopurulent, glossy, transparent cornea, normal IOP and normal visual acuity.
Treated with antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acute iritis is

A

Photophobia, blepharospasm, little reflex lacrimation, decreased vision, miotic pupil (pinhole). Treated with steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

After an ocular trauma caused by work with a hammer and chisel, metal

A

Xray?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

After strabismus surgery

A

Close eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Age related macular degeneration does NOT end with

A

Complete blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Amblyopia can be found in

A

Concomitant strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amblyopia is found most often in

A

Young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amblyopia usually starts in

A

Young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An emmetropic patient needs at the age of 45 years usually presbyopic correction

A

of +1D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Anisometripia means

A

a different refractive power in each eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anterior chamber is the chamber between

A

The cornea and the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aphakiais

A

the absence of the lens of the eye due to surgical removal, a perforating wound or ulcer, or congenital anomaly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION) is treated by

A

Steroids (start with oral prednisone 80mg/day and/or i.v. hydrocortisone 250mg/day with slowly decreasing dose according to the ESR value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Astigmatism is

A

The different refraction of the eye at different meridians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Atopic or anaphylactic immunological (type 1) is

A

Acute allergic conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis is treated by

A

Antibiotic drops and ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bacterial corneal ulcers we do NOT use

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Basal cell carcinoma of the eyelid

A

Does not metastasise but infiltrates into the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by

A

A lesion pressing on the optic chiasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bleeding into the anterior chamber is called

A

Hyphema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Blowout fracture is caused by

A

Blunt trauma of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

By what is siderosis of the eye caused by?

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cataract can be caused by

A

Long term local or systemic administration of corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cataracts are treated by

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of sudden unilateral blindness can be

A

lesion of the optic nerve occlusion of the central retinal artery, AION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Central scotoma in perimetry is caused by

A 
Optic neuritis (in MS) and compressive lesions of the optic nerve (unilateral).
Bilateral differential diagnosis includes nutritional deficiencies, toxic optic neuropathy and hereditary disorders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chalcosis is caused by chronic

A

Copper poisoning or a copper foreign body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clinical signs of anterior uveitis

A

Blepharospasm, little reflex lacrimation, decreased (impaired) vision, miotic pupil, pain, posterior synechial opacities, aqueous flare, pseudohypopyon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Congenital cataract is NOT caused by

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Contact lens wearing is identified as a risk factor or

A

Conjunctivitis, bilateral keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Corneal erosion is treated

A

By patch and ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Corneal wound healing may be adversely affected by

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dacryocystitis is infection/inflammation

A

Of the lacrimal/nasolacrimal sac, frequently caused by nasolacrimal duct obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Damage of the visual pathways in the tractus opticus causes

A

Homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Diabetic ocular complications can be found

A

In preventative complications and include retinopathy, cataracts, and blindness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ectropion means

A

Outward turning of the lower lid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is caused by

A

Adenovirus (causes corneal complications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Damage of the visual pathways in the optic tract causes

A

Homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Diabetic ocular complications

A

Can be found in preventative examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Exotropia means

A

Divergent strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Firstaid in alkali eye burns is

A

Immediate long lasting irrigation with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

First air chemical burns of the eye

A

Immediate irrigation with water and NaCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

First choice medicaments in open angle glaucoma are

A

B-blockers, hyper-osmotic agents, pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

For simple background diabetic retinopathy are typical

A

Infarcts, heart exudate?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Fovea centralis is

A

area of acute/sharp visions (only cones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gonioscopy is an examination method for

A

anterior chamber angle measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hemicrania is present in

A

acute glaucoma (persistent pain in one side of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Homonimous defect of visual field are cuased by

A

lesion in parietal lobe/lesion behind optic chiasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Homonymous hemianopia is caused by

A

lesion in optic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Horner’s syndrome is caused by

A

spiral sympathetic nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Horner’s syndrome is characterised by

A

enophthalmus, miosis, ptosis, anhydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is acute glaucoma treated?

A

Iridectomy, topical miotics, IV hyperosmotic agents, B-blokers and carboanhydrase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hyphaemais a term for

A

blood in anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hypopyon means

A

Pus in the bottom of anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In acute perforation of the eye we do NOT find

A

Lagophthalmos (inability to close the eyelids completely (cornea will be hypertonic, the anterior chamber will be shallow, there will be a decreased in visual acuity)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Mucopurulent discharge (not iris discolouration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In glaucoma de the colour of the eye is

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In herpes simplex epithelial keratitis

A

Hypoaesthesia of cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In hypermetropia distant objects are focused

A

Behind retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In hypermetropia we prescribe

A

Stronger convex lens/glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In infantile glaucoma

A

Enlarged eyeball, increased IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In keratitis, caused by herpes simplex virus

A

Dendritis, stained with fluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In keratoconus following statement is NOT true

A

keratoplastia contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In myopia the parallel rays entering the eye focus

A

before retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In open angle glaucoma there is NO alteration of the

A

lens, AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In paralytic strabismus this statement is NOT correct

A

Amblyopia is present (only diplopia is present), amblyopia is present in child strabismus because neuroplasticity of the brain suppresses one of the images)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

In perimetric examination of the visual field the blind spot is found

A

20 degrees nasal

75
Q

In primary open angle glaucoma

A

Bilateral visual field defects

76
Q

In progressed cataract usually

A

has normal light projection

77
Q

In rupture of the globe which actions are NOT to take

A

test visual acuity (you should patch the eye and sedate)

78
Q

In treatment of acute conjunctivitis

A

Antibiotics

79
Q

In traumatic corneal erosion

A

No steroids

80
Q

in which part of the eye melanoma can NOT be found

A

Lens

81
Q

Indication for corneal transplant (keratoplasty)

A

Optical, therapeutic, acute, cosmetic/corneal scar, inflammation, trauma

82
Q

Is retinoblastoma bilateral ?

A

25% of the time

83
Q

Javal’s ophthalmometer measures

A

Anterior curvature of cornea, astigmatism of cornea

84
Q

Keratic precipitates

A

Cells on the posterior surface of the cornea found in anterior uveiitis

85
Q

Keratoplasty is performed for

A

corneal scar, inflammation, trauma

86
Q

Lagophthalmos is treated by

A

ointment for long term

87
Q

Leukocoria means

A

White mass behind pupil, white pupillary reflex in children

88
Q

Macula lutea is the term for

A

High acuity vision, presence of high density of cones

89
Q

Management of corneal foreign body

A

Local anaesthetic, extract foreign body and antibiotics

90
Q

Management of lagophthalmos

A

Long term ointment and surgery

91
Q

Metastases of malignant melanoma of the uvea involve mostly

A

Liver, lung, less to bone and skin

92
Q

Mydriatic drugs can cause in predisposed patients

A

Acute close angle glaucoma

93
Q

Myopia is

A

Shortsightedness

94
Q

Neovascularisations are seen in diabetic patients in

A

all parts

95
Q

Ocular signs of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are

A

keratoplasty and cataracts and iridocyclitis

96
Q

Open angle glaucoma is NOT treated by

A

steroid eyedrops

97
Q

Ophthalmic complications of DM is treated by

A

laser photocoagulation

98
Q

Ophthalmoscopy can NOT be performed by

A

Electric torch

99
Q

Ophthalmoscopy id indicated for

A

retinal detachment, glaucoma, macular degerneration, melanoma

100
Q

Ophthalmoscopy is used for examination of

A

retina, optic disc, macula

101
Q

Optotypes used to test

A

visual acuity

102
Q

Panretinal photocoagulation is used in

A

diabetic retinopathy

103
Q

Paracentral arcuate scotomas are found in

A

glaucoma (primary open angle glaucoma)

104
Q

Paralytic strabismus (squint) symptoms include

A

diplopia

105
Q

Parasympaticolytic drugs cause

A

mydriasis (atropine)

106
Q

Pars plana vitectomy for ocular diabetic retinopathy is

A

performed in hemophthalmus (complete retinal detachment)

107
Q

Pars plana vitrectomy is indicated in

A

retinal detachment, macular holes, diabetic retinopathy

108
Q

Patients with rhegmatogenous retinal detachment usually have NOT

A

hypermetropia (retinal detachments are usually more common in longer myopic eyes)

109
Q

Perimetry is an examination method for staging

A

visual field

110
Q

Presbyopia is

A

insufficient accomodation

111
Q

Presbyopia

A

decreased visions, decreased accomodation, increases with age

112
Q

Presbyopia is caused by

A

loss of lens elasticity

113
Q

Presbyopia is corrected at the age of 60

A

by addition of reading lenses (+3-3.5D)

114
Q

Primary retinal detachment treatment is

A

Surgical only

115
Q

Pseudophakia means

A

artificial lens implanted in cataract eye

Refractive surgery deals with cornea and lens

116
Q

Refractive surgery deals with

A

cornea and lens

117
Q

rejection of corneal transplants depends on

A

host corneal vascularisation etc

118
Q

retinal detachment you do

A

treat by surgery - vitrectomy

119
Q

Retinal detachment cannot be treated by

A

not replace vitreous by gel (but by silicon oil or gas)

120
Q

retinal detachment in the temporal upper quadrant causes a scotoma in

A

nasal inferior quadrant

121
Q

retinal haemorrhages and microaneurisms are signs of

A

neovascular glaucoma or incipient retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy

122
Q

retinoblastoma originates from

A

neural cells or retina

123
Q

retinoblastoma is found in

A

small/young children

124
Q

scotoma is a

A

blind spot/area of the visual field

125
Q

sign of damage of the corneal epithelium is

A

decreased visual acuity, red eye, pain, light sensitivity

126
Q

sign of endocrine orbitopathy is NOT

A

lagophthalmos (inability to close eyes properly)

127
Q

signs of blow out fracture of the orbit are

A

enophthalmus and diplopia

128
Q

signs of corneal erosion are

A

decreased visual acuity, red eye, pain, light sensitivity

129
Q

subluxation of the lens is part of

A

Marfans syndrome

130
Q

sympathetic ophthalmia

A

autoimmune eye disease in which a penetrating injury to one eye produces inflammation in uninjured eye (can lead to blindness)

131
Q

sympathetic ophthalmia is caused by

A

perforating injury of eye

132
Q

sympathetic uveitis is

A

inflammation of uninjured eye caused by perforating injury fo the other eye (uveal tract)

133
Q

action of atropine is

A

mydriasis (pupil dilation)

134
Q

the blind spot in perimetry is caused by

A

optic nerve

135
Q

the content of water in the vitreous is

A

98%

136
Q

the course of diabetic retinopathy is NOT influenced by

A

Racial factors

137
Q

the diameter of normal cornea is about

A

11mm

138
Q

the effect of filtering procedures in glaucoma is

A

decreased in IOP (new outflow)

139
Q

the evaluation of Schirmer’s test of total lacrimal secretion is made after

A

5 minutes

140
Q

The human visual pathways are formed by

A

3 neurons

141
Q

the IV grade of trachoma is characterised (according to McCallan)

A

ectropion (lower eye lid turned outward)
And, tarsal conjunctiva completely scarred but pattern smooth, mosaic or Arlt’s line + sequele + cornea free of infiltrate

142
Q

The lateral rectus muscle is innervated by

A

abducens nerve (VI)

143
Q

the loss of the lens causes loss of

A

accommodation

144
Q

the loss of the lens (e.g. after cataract operation) cannot be corrected by

A

operation of ciliary muscles

145
Q

the main risk factor in open angle glaucoma

A

increased IOP

146
Q

the most frequent complication of uveitis for diminishing vision is

A

cataracts (other complications include - glaucoma, cataract, posterior synechiae, CME, rare phthisis bulbi)

147
Q

the most frequent complication of keratoplasty are

A

endotherial graft rejection

148
Q

the most frequent symptom of allergic conjunctivitis is

A

itching (+foreign body sensation, watery or thick discharge, extreme discomfort)

149
Q

the most common for of uveitis is

A

anterior uveitis (acute)

150
Q

the ocular nerve foes not innervate

A

superior oblique and lateral recuts muscle

151
Q

the ocular form of toxoplasmosis causes

A

uveitis

152
Q

the oculomotor nerve innervates

A

medial, superior, inferior rectus muscles, inferior oblique muscle, levator palpebral muscle

153
Q

the physiological cornea is

A

diameter 10-12mm, central thickness of 0.52mm, peripheral thickness 0.65-1mm, avascular clear tissue, hydration 78%

154
Q

the production and outflow of aqueous humour in glaucoma is

A

diminished

155
Q

the refractive power of the lens is

A

20D

156
Q

the signs of paralytic strabismus (squint) are

A

diplopia

157
Q

the superior oblique oculomotory muscle is innervated by

A

trochlear nerve (IV)

158
Q

the symptoms of cataracts are

A

loss of visual acuity

159
Q

the treatment of lagophthalmos consists of

A

surgery, ointments, tears supplementation, topical anti-inflammatory agents

160
Q

the treatments of acute stage of angle closure glaucoma consists of

A

topical application of miotics, topical application of beta blockers and carboanhydrase inhibitors, oral application of carboanhydrase inhibitors, IV hyperosmotic agents, therapeutic iridotomy and prophylactic iridotomy of the fellow eye

161
Q

typical first complain of patients with age related macular degeneration

A

visual field loss (mainly central

162
Q

the visual axis of the normal eye passes the

A

centre of the cornea

163
Q

this statement for concomitant strabismus is NOT true?

A

?

164
Q

type I hypersensitivity is not present in

A

?

165
Q

the signs of cataracts does not belong

A

?

166
Q

to what age is treatment of amblyopia possible?

A

up to 6 years old

167
Q

trachoma is caused by

A

chlamydia trachomatous

168
Q

treatment of rejection of corneal transplant consists in

A

corticosteroids

169
Q

treatment of simple retinal detachment

A

laster surgery (photo coagulation)

170
Q

uveitis can be associated with

A

Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiter’s disease, Juvenile chronic arthritis, Fuchs’ heterochromic uveitis, toxoplasmosis, AIDS

171
Q

uveitis is an inflammation of

A

uveal tract (iris, ciliary body, and choroid)

172
Q

Vit A deficiency causes

A

xerophthalmia (night blindness, conjunctival xerosis, corneal xerosis, corneal ulceration or focal melting - keratomalacia)

173
Q

vitreous opacities are a symptom of

A

intraocualr inflammation

174
Q

What are the usual signs of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

acute onset of redness, on waking eyelids stick together, mucopurulent discharge

175
Q

what is astigmatism?

A

optical power of the cornea in different planes is not equal

176
Q

what is gonioscopy?

A

Use of a goniolens (also known as a gonioscope) in conjunction with a slit lamp or operating mucroscope to gain a view of the iridocorneal angle

177
Q

what is the refractive power of the cornea

A

43D

178
Q

what means anisometropia?

A

condition in which the two eyes have unequal refractive power

179
Q

when should bilateral dense congenital cataracts be operated

A

?

180
Q

which are the first signs of retinoblastoma?

A

leucocoria (which pupillary reflex), a squint due to reduced vision, and occasionally a painful red eye (dilated fundoscopy shows a whitish-pink mass protruding from the retina into the vitreous body)

181
Q

Which part of the eye can be affected by UV radiation ?

A

Cornea, lens, and conjunctiva

182
Q

Which parts of the body are involved in Reiter’s Syndrome?

A

Urethra, joints, and conjunctiva (this syndrome causes urethritis, arthritis, conjunctivitis)
Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

183
Q

Which type of treatment is NOT used in retinal detachment surgery?

A

?

Ophthalmology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions