Credit Flashcards

1
Q

CRL is recommended to measure in:
a) 9-10 weeks of gestation
b) 6-8 weeks of gestation
c) 11-14 weeks of gestation
d) 20-22 weeks of gestation

A

B

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2
Q

Average length of umbilical cord is:
a) 50cm
b) 20cm
c) 70cm
d) 150cm

A

A

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3
Q

The Morula is:
a) A cell originating from union of the sperm cell and the egg cell
b) Unfertilized oocyte
c) Early stage embryo consisting of 16 cells
d) A thin-walled hollow structure in early embryonic development that contains a
cluster of cells called the inner cell mass

A

C

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4
Q

Dilatation of the ureters during pregnancy:
a) Is associated with increase of circulating oestrogen
b) Is usually greater on the left than on the right side
c) Is due to increased smooth muscle activity
d) None of the above

A

D

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5
Q

According to DeLancey the vaginal support is divided into:
a) 2 levels
b) 5 levels
c) 3 levels
d) 4 levels

A

C

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6
Q

Testosterone is produced by:
a) Sertoli cells
b) Supportive cells
c) Leydig cells
d) Gonocytes

A

C

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7
Q

Most common type of Episiotomy in Europe is:
a) Lateral
b) Mediolateral
c) Suchardt incision
d) Medial

A

B

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8
Q

Tubal occlusion is treated by:
a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
b) Antibiotics
c) Micro-surgery
d) Hydrotubation using a high pressure

A

C

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9
Q

The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is:
a) Uterine rupture
b) Haemocoagulopathies
c) Uterine inversion
d) Uterine atony

A

D

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10
Q

Third Leopold manoeuvre is for estimate
a) Fetal vitality
b) Height of fundus
c) Fetal presentation
d) Fetal position

A

C

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11
Q

Biacromial diameter is:
a) 12cm
b) 8cm
c) 9,5cm
d) 14cm

A

A

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12
Q

Nocturia is:
a) Night time voiding
b) Most frequently caused by UTI
c) Number of times sleep is interrupted by need to micturate
d) Rarely associated with overactive bladder

A

A

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13
Q

Which information with relation to progesterone is incorrect:

a) Its serum concentration is increasing after ovulation
b) It is produced by placenta
c) Its serum concentration does not get changed after implantation
d) It is produced by corpus luteum

A

C

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14
Q

Combined oral contraception can be recommended:
a) After two years of regular menstruation
b) Since 18 years of age
c) Since 15 years of age
d) With the beginning of sexual life

A

D

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15
Q

Endocervical canal is normally lined with:
a) Mesoderm
b) Glandular epithelium
c) Squamous epithelium
d) Mesothelial cells

A

B

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16
Q

The most common physiological position of the uterus is:
a) Anteversion
b) Retroversion
c) Reversion
d) Aversion

A

A

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17
Q

Circumferentia suboccipitobregmatica is:
a) 34cm
b) 32cm
c) 30cm
d) 36cm

A

B

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18
Q

With fetal pulse oximetry (FPO), fetal acidaemia is rare when the fetal arterial oxygen saturation is continually greater than what value (critical threshold):

a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 15%
d) 20%

A

B

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19
Q

The TVT (Tension free vaginal tape) procedure is used to solve:
a) Descensus of uterus
b) Urgency urinary incontinence
c) Vesicovaginal fistula
d) Stress urinary incontinence

A

D

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20
Q

Labia minora are covered with following epithelium:
a) Squamous
b) Cylindrical
c) Cubical
d) Metaplastic

A

A

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21
Q

Diameter maxilloparietalis is:
a) 8cm
b) 14cm
c) 9,5cm
d) 12cm

A

B

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22
Q

Normal duration of II. Stage of delivery in Nulliparas is less than:
a) 120min
b) 60min
c) 180min
d) 30min

A

A

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23
Q

Outer layer of the trophoblast is called:
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Endothelium
c) Decidua basales
d) Cytotrophoblast

A

A

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24
Q

In the 1st trimester screening we don’t use:
a) Free beta-hCG
b) PAPP-A
c) Nuchal translucency
d) Alpha Fetoprotein

A

D

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25
Q

Cardiovascular activity at the embryonic pole can be registered from:
a) 8th gestational week calculated from the last menstruation
b) 7th gestational week calculated from the last menstruation
c) 6th gestational week calculated from the last menstruation
d) 5th gestational week calculated from the last menstruation

A

C

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26
Q

We provide oGTT in:
a) 16-18 weeks
b) 19-21 weeks
c) 35-37 weeks
d) 24-28 weeks

A

D

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27
Q

The female urethral length is:
a) 30-50mm
b) 10-20mm
c) 70mm
d) 20mm

A

A

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28
Q

All of these factors can lead to a nonreactive NST except:
a) Fetal hypoxia and asphyxia
b) Behavioural states
c) Smoking
d) Stimulants

A

D

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29
Q

Which hormone is synthetized in hypothalamus:
a) Gonadoliberin (GnRH)
b) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
d) Oxytocin

A

A

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30
Q

The highest serum concentration of oestrogens is at/in:
a) At the end of follicular phase
b) During menstruation
c) Luteal phase
d) The beginning of follicular phase

A

A

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31
Q

Oestrogens has an effect of secretion of FSH and LH:
a) Only stimulating
b) Stimulating and inhibiting
c) No effects
d) Only inhibiting

A

B

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32
Q

Obstetrical conjugate is:
a) Distance between the symphysis and perineum
b) Distance between the sacral promontory and the symphysis
c) Distance between the sacral promontory and the rectum
d) Distance between the sacral promontory and the ischial tuberosity

A

B

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33
Q

Which best describes the reproductive history of a woman at 12/40 with a previous twin delivery and a stillbirth at 27/40:

a) G4P2
b) G4P4
c) G4P3
d) G3P3

A

D

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34
Q

Lack of oestrogens lead to:
a) Urogenital atrophy
b) Decrease in vaginal pH
c) Increased hair growth
d) Increased vaginal lubrication

A

A

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35
Q

Term pregnancy corresponds to the week of pregnancy:
a) 37+0 – 41+6
b) 39+0 – 41+0
c) 40+0 – 41+6
d) 33+0 – 40+0

A

A

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36
Q

Normal length of menstrual cycle is:
a) 23-30 days
b) 15-24 days
c) 21-39 days
d) 23-36 days

A

C

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37
Q

The major reason that percutaneous umbilical blood sampling has diminished over the last 10 years is because:
a) Non-invasive techniques have diminished the need for this type of invasive sampling
b) Patients are refusing to have a needle placed into the umbilical cord of their fetuses
c) Official medical bodies have issued a moratorium on this procedure because of its
risk
d) Fewer people are being trained in the procedure

A

A

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38
Q

Which of the following complications have been noted with early amniocentesis prior to 14th weeks:
a) All of the above
b) Leakage of amniotic fluid in up to 4% of cases
c) A higher rate of clubfeet
d) A higher fetal loss rate than with standard amniocentesis or CVS

A

A

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39
Q

HPV vaccination is most effective in:
a) After onset of sexual life
b) In postmenopause
c) In newborns
d) Children between 12-13 years of age

A

D

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40
Q

Choose the option that is the greatest contraindication to epidural anesthesia:
a) Previous treatment with anticoagulants
b) Multiple pregnancy
c) Hypertension in pregnancy
d) Hypovolemia

A

A

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41
Q

The iliac Inter-Cristal diameter:
a) 25-26cm
b) 28-29cm
c) 22-23cm
d) 32-34cm

A

B

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42
Q

Intestine motility in pregnancy is:
a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Same
d) In first trimester higher and in third lower

A

A

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43
Q

Fertilization takes place in:
a) Tube
b) Ovary
c) Uterus
d) Vagina

A

A

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44
Q

Diameter submentobregmatica is:
a) 12cm
b) 9,5cm
c) 8cm
d) 14cm

A

B

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45
Q

Anterior vaginal wall is:
a) Sometimes shorter sometimes longer
b) Longer than posterior wall
c) Shorter than posterior wall
d) As long as posterior wall

A

C

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46
Q

USG examination is useful for the assessment of:
a) The position and mobility of the bladder neck and vesicalization of the urethra
b) Width of external urethral meatus
c) Pressures in the urethra during coughing
d) No answer is correct

A

A

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47
Q

• Centrum tendineum is located in/at/on:
a) Ovary
b) Mons veneris
c) Uterus
d) The perineum

A

D

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48
Q

Placenta is composed from 3 structure except:
a) Endometrium
b) Umbilical cord
c) Extraplacental membranes
d) Placental disc

A

A

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49
Q

Immediate precursor of oestrogen biosynthesis is (are): a) Androgens
b) Aldosterone
c) Progesterone
d) Cholesterol

A

A

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50
Q

Third stage of delivery is:
a) Delivery of fetus and placenta
b) Delivery of fetus
c) Delivery of placenta
d) Rupture of membranes

A

C

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51
Q

We are able to detect fetal heart rate in:
a) 4 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 2 weeks

A

C

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52
Q

Umbilical cord normally has:
a) 2 veins
b) 1 artery
c) 2 vessels
d) 3 vessels

A

D

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53
Q

Menarche is (in Europe) usually at:
a) 8-10 years
b) 12-13 years
c) 14-17 years
d) 10-12 years

A

B

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54
Q

Severe bradycardia is FBR less than:
a) 80
b) 110
c) 100
d) 90

A

C

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55
Q

Fully dilated cervix is opened on:
a) 9cm
b) 12cm
c) 10cm
d) 8cm

A

C

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56
Q

Which sonographic parameter provides reliable estimates of gestational age between 12 and 24 weeks gestation:
a) CRL (Crown-rump length)
b) FL (Femur length)
c) BPD (Biparietal diameter)
d) AC Abdominal circumference)

A

C

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57
Q

Sinusoid pattern in CTG is typical for fetal:
a) Anaemia
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Polyglobulia

A

A

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58
Q

The complaint of involuntary loss of urine on effort or physical exertion is:
a) Overflow urinary incontinence
b) Urgency urinary incontinence
c) Stress urinary incontinence
d) Coital incontinence

A

C

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59
Q

A normal blood loss during menstruation is:
a) 100-150ml
b) 20-100ml
c) 200-250ml
d) 150-200ml

A

B

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60
Q

During embryo transfer within in vitro fertilization, the embryo(s) are transferred into:
a) Fallopian tube
b) Uterus
c) Ovary
d) Vagina

A

B

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61
Q

The weight of uterus in adult nullipara is:
a) 50-60g
b) 10-20g
c) 200g and more
d) 100-200g

A

A

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62
Q

Implantation of the embryo occurs at:
a) 6 to 7 days after fertilization
b) Does not occur in humans
c) 6 to 7 minutes after fertilization
d) 2 to 3 days after fertilization

A

A

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63
Q

The assessment of basal FSH and LH is usually performed at
a) Day 14 of the menstrual cycle (ovulation)
b) Day 28 of the menstrual cycle (before menstruation)
c) Day 2 -3 of the menstrual cycle (i.e. during menstruation)
d) Day 20 of the menstrual cycle (after ovulation)

A

C

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64
Q

Which of the following chromosomal disorders is not associated with significant growth restriction:
a) Trisomy 18
b) Trisomy 13
c) Klinefelter syndrome
d) Triploidy

A

C

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65
Q

IUD is usually designed for:
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 15 years
d) 5years

A

D

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66
Q

First stage of delivery length in nulliparous woman is approximately:
a) 3-5 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 6-7 hours
d) 2-4 hours

A

C

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67
Q

Oocyte can be fertilized for:
a) Longer period of time than a sperm
b) Around 12 hours after the ovulation
c) More than 48 hours after the ovulation
d) Until the menstruation

A

B

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68
Q

A sperm is able to fertilize an ovum:
a) For 1 hour only
b) For 12 hours at most
c) For unlimited period of time
d) Even for 48 hours

A

D

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69
Q

The most common fetal position is:
a) Left anterior
b) Right anterior
c) Left posterior
d) Right posterior

A

A

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70
Q

Round ligament ends in:
a) Labium majus
b) Sacral bone
c) Ovary
d) Rectum

A

A

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71
Q

Cervical cancer most frequently comes from:
a) Mesoderm
b) Is Metastatic
c) Cylindrical epithelium
d) Squamous epithelium

A

D

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72
Q

HELLP syndrome does not include:
a) Elevated CRP
b) Haemolysis
c) Elevated liver enzymes
d) Thrombocytopenia

A

A

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73
Q

I. Trimester ends in.
a) 15 weeks of gestation
b) 14 weeks of gestation
c) 16 weeks of gestation
d) 17 weeks of gestation

A

B

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74
Q

The FEV1 (forced expiratory volume at 1s) in normal pregnancy is
a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Unchanged
d) Variable

A

C

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75
Q

Diameter frontoocipitalis is:
a) 12cm
b) 14cm
c) 9,5cm
d) 8cm

A

A

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76
Q

The risk factor for cervical cancer is:
a) Obesity
b) Early coitarche
c) Late menopause
d) Diabetes

A

B

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77
Q

Before a prescription of combined hormonal contraception is necessary:
a) To evaluate a level of serous amylase
b) To take a careful patient’s history
c) To perform electrocardiography
d) To weight patient

A

B

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78
Q

Circumferentia frontooccipitalis is:

a) 36cm
b) 30cm
c) 32cm
d) 34cm

A

D

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79
Q

Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) – choose incorrect answer:
a) Is a fetal-specific protein
b) Is elevated in amniotic fluid when the pregnancy is affected with open spina bifida
c) Is decreased in maternal serum when the pregnancy is affected with Down syndrome
d) Is elevated in maternal serum when the pregnancy is affected with Down syndrome

A

D

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80
Q

Incidence of breech presentation at the end of pregnancy is:
a) 33%
b) 23%
c) 13%
d) 3%

A

D

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81
Q

The precursor of progesterone is:
a) Testosterone
b) Pregnenolone
c) Androstenedione
d) DHEAS

A

B

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82
Q

Testicular feminization means:
a) Presence of oestrogen-producing testes in individuals with male karyotype
b) Presence of non-functional, dystrophic ovaries in individuals with a female karyotype
c) Absence of peripheral androgen receptor in individuals with male karyotype
d) Presence of dysfunctional testes in individuals with female karyotype

A

C

83
Q

A mildly elevated WBC count during pregnancy:
a) Is due to an increase in granulocytes
b) Indicates acute leukaemia
c) Is due to an increase in lymphocytes
d) Is suggestive of an acute inflammatory process

A

A

84
Q

Which of the following is not true about oestrogens:
a) They stimulate proliferation of the ducts in the breast
b) They are responsible for the secondary sex characteristics development
c) They inhibit osteoclasts
d) They inhibit osteoblasts

A

D

85
Q

A woman contacts her midwife with concerns regarding fetal well-being at 32/40 in a previously normal pregnancy. Which is the best management?:
a) Auscultation of the fetal heart at home by midwife
b) Attend hospital if fetal movements are decreased
c) Advice repeated nuchal translucency scan
d) Encourage the patient to record a 24-hour kick chart

A

B

86
Q

The height of the uterine fundus in 20 weeks is:

a) around symphysis
b) around third rib
c) around belly button
d) impossible to palpate

A

C

87
Q

What is not necessary to know for an adequate cytological evaluation of the Pap-smear: a) Hormonal treatment
b) Number of deliveries and miscarriages
c) Last menstruation
d) Patient age

A

B

88
Q

Which of the following hormones is not produced in anterior pituitary gland:
a) LH
b) FSH
c) ADH
d) ACTH

A

C

89
Q

Which of the following conditions is not associated with hydramnios:
a) Renal agenesis
b) Spina bifida
c) Twin-twin transfusion
d) Oesophageal atresia

A

A

90
Q

Physiological pH in umbilical artery is:
a) 7,5 – 7,6
b) 6,8 – 6,95
c) 7,2 – 7,3
d) 7,0 – 7,15

A

C

91
Q

Exposure of the fetus to gentamicin has been associated with:
a) Congenital heart disease
b) Limb reduction defects
c) Cleft lip and palate
d) Ototoxicity

A

D

92
Q

Levator ani avulsion is most frequently caused by:

a) Car accident
b) Vaginal delivery
c) All answers are correct
d) Extreme sexual practice

A

B

93
Q

Circumferentia submentobregmatica is:
a) 32cm
b) 36cm
c) 34cm
d) 30cm

A

A

94
Q

Which statement is correct regarding calculating expected date of delivery (EDD):
a) Pregnancy is dated from conception
b) Head circumference may be used to date a pregnancy until 25 weeks
c) The last menstrual period (LMP) is reliable if the cycles are irregular
d) The average length of the pregnancy is 280 days

A

D

95
Q

Pearl index is:
a) Index of “infertile” days
b) Number of infertile women in group of 100 women/one year
c) Index of failure of a specific method of contraception
d) Number of pregnancies in a group of 100 women using a specific contraceptive

A

D

96
Q

At term the typical placenta weight is:
a) 1500g
b) 900g
c) 500g
d) 700g

A

D

97
Q

HELLP syndrome includes:
a) Polakisuria
b) Haemolysis
c) Neutropenia
d) X

A

B

98
Q

The first step to stop uterine bleeding is:
a) Hysterectomy
b) Lynch suture
c) Uterotonics
d) Spasmoanalgetics

A

C

99
Q

Highest peak of hCG is in:
a) 16 weeks of gestation
b) 8 weeks of gestation
c) 24 weeks of gestation
d) 10 weeks of gestation

A

D

100
Q

Which site represents the most oxygenated blood in the fetus:
a) The umbilical vein
b) The fetal aorta
c) Inferior vena cava
d) The fetal carotid artery

A

A

101
Q

Cervical remodelling and repining are mediated by which of the following substances:
a) Prostaglandins
b) All of the above
c) Interleukin (IL) 8
d) Oestrogens

A

A

102
Q

All of the following are true about the cardiovascular changes during pregnancy except:
a) Blood pressure decreases by 10-20mmHg
b) The absolute red blood cell count is the same
c) Blood volume increases by 40%
d) Angiotensin II resistance causes a characteristic hyponatremia

A

D

103
Q

The most common cause of maternal mortality worldwide is:
a) Infection
b) Stroke
c) Haemorrhage
d) Car accident

A

C

104
Q

Combined hormonal contraception has not to be withdrawn in:
a) Suspicion of pulmonary embolism
b) Hyperprolactinemia
c) Unilateral oedema of the lower extremity
d) Sudden vision disorder

A

B

105
Q

Endometriosis is a:
a) Autopic heterotransplantate
b) Heterotopic heterotransplantate
c) Autopic autotransplantate
d) Heterotopic autotransplantate

A

D

106
Q

The anlage (!?!?) of the female sex duct system is:
a) Urogenital fold
b) Müllerian duct
c) Mesonephric fold
d) Mesonephros

A

B

107
Q

Gonadoliberin (GnRH):
a) Stimulates the secretion of FSH and LH
b) Is produced in acidophilic cells of anterior pituitary gland
c) Is a polypeptide with high molecular weight
d) One application causes ovulation

A

A

108
Q

From the available published literature, the procedure-related loss rate from amniocentesis is approximately:

a) 0,5%
b) 0,1%
c) 1,5%
d) 2,0%

A

B

109
Q

HPV is cause of:
a) Breast cancer
b) Cervical cancer
c) Endometrial cancer
d) Ovarian cancer

A

B

110
Q

Indication of withdrawal of oral contraception is:
a) Mastodynia
b) New migraine
c) Nausea
d) Insomnia

A

B

111
Q

Obstetrical conjugate usually has:
a) 8cm
b) 14cm
c) 10cm
d) 16cm

A

C

112
Q

First Leopold manoeuvre is for estimate:
a) Number of fetuses
b) Fetal position
c) Height of fundus
d) Fetal aneuploidy

A

C

113
Q

Which method is not used in diagnostics of infertility:
a) Tubal insufflation
b) Colposcopy
c) Hysteroscopy
d) Laparoscopy

A

B

114
Q

Basal body temperature is measured:
a) In the morning
b) In the evening
c) Any time before meal
d) Regularly every 24 hours, the day-time chosen by a woman

A

A

115
Q

Second stage of delivery length in nulliparous woman is approximately:
a) 5min
b) 30min
c) 15-20min
d) 60min

A

D

116
Q

The main contraceptive mechanism of COC is:
a) The decrease of libido
b) Blockage of proliferation of endometrium
c) Causing of an early miscarriage
d) Blockage of ovulation

A

D

117
Q

Increased glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy is associated with which of the following:
a) Decreased serum sodium
b) Decreased serum albumin
c) Decreased glucosuria
d) Elevated serum creatinine

A

B

118
Q

The objective of GnRH agonist administration in long ovarian stimulation protocol is:
a) Increase endogenous production of FSH and LH
b) Increase oestradiol levels
c) Stop endogenous reduction of FSH and LH
d) Increase progesterone levels

A

C

119
Q

Ovulation usually takes place:
a) At the same time with the highest level of progesterone
b) 14 days before the onset of menstruation
c) 1 day before the highest level of FSH
d) 2 days after the highest level of LH

A

B

120
Q

Surfactant synthesis is stimulated by the following hormones and growth factors:
a) Adrenal hormones
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Mineralocorticoids
d) Antidiuretic hormone

A

B

121
Q

During menstruation following layer is shed:
a) Endometrium with a part of myometrium
b) The whole endometrium
c) Stratum basalis endometris
d) Stratum functionale endometris

A

D

122
Q

The Bi-Trochanters diameter normally has:
a) 28-29cm
b) 24-26cm
c) 36cm
d) 31-32cm

A

D

123
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for antepartum fetal surveillance:
a) Fetal macrosomia
b) Prior unexplained fetal demise
c) Maternal medical complication (e.g. DM, HT, renal disease, collagen vascular d., etc)
d) Premature rupture of membranes

A

A

124
Q

Cryptomenorrhea means:
a) Bleeding to uterine wall
b) Bleeding to tube
c) Bleeding to abdominal cavity
d) False primary amenorrhea

A

D

125
Q

FSH:
a) Is responsible for the rupture of a follicle during ovulation
b) Is elevated in the polycystic ovary syndrome
c) Stimulates oestrogen production in granulosa cells
d) Is essential for preservation of the function of the corpus luteum

A

C

126
Q

The shape of a uterine cervix in nullipara is:
a) Cylindrical
b) Squared
c) Conical
d) Flat

A

C

127
Q

Definition of perinatal mortality is:
a) Number of stillbirth
b) Number of stillbirth + early neonatal death
c) Number of stillbirth + preterm deliveries
d) Number of stillbirth + abortions

A

B

128
Q

The most common gynaecological cancer is:
a) Cancer of the endometrium
b) Cervical cancer
c) Ovarian cancer
d) Breast cancer

A

A

129
Q

The most frequent inflammation in puerperium is:
a) Encephalitis
b) Mastitis
c) Pancreatitis
d) Otitis media

A

B

130
Q

Tertiary vesicular follicle (“mature vesicular follicle”) is sometimes called:
a) Corpus luteum
b) Corpus albicans
c) Preantral follicle
d) Graafian follicle

A

D

131
Q

Mesosalpinx lies next to:
a) Tube
b) Ovary
c) Uterine cervix
d) Uterine corpus

A

A

132
Q

What percentage of pregnant patients are now aged over 34 years:
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 20%

A

D

133
Q

What is the level of fetus at 20 weeks gestation:
a) perinaval
b) perisymphysis
c) cannot be felt
d) 3 fingers above umbilicus

A

A

134
Q

Punch biopsy is performed for:
a) Suspicion of cervical cancer
b) Suspicion of endometrial cancer
c) Peritoneal biopsy
d) Pelvic lavage

A

A

135
Q

Vagina originates from:
a) Mutual attachment of ductus mesonephricus
b) Sinus urogenitalis only
c) Caudal part of uterovaginal canal and sinus urogenitalis
d) Caudal part of uterovaginal canal only

A

C

136
Q

First pass effect is:
a) Effect of orally administered medicament on gastrointestinal system
b) Induction of liver enzymes during metabolization of medicaments
c) Conversion of medicaments in to its metabolites in intestine and liver
d) Induction of liver enzymes after beginning of usage of oral contraception

A

C

137
Q

The number of primordiary follicles in an ovary of the neonate is cca:
a) 80000–100000
b) 500000–1000000
c) Small
d) 200 000 – 300 000

A

B

138
Q

Nuchal translucency is measured in:
a) 11-14 weeks of gestation
b) 20-22 weeks of gestation
c) 9-10 weeks of gestation
d) 6-8 weeks of gestation

A

A

139
Q

The height of the uterine fundus in 12 weeks is:
a) In pelvis
b) Around symphysis
c) 1 finger below belly button
d) Around belly button

A

B

140
Q

When does the embryo implants the uterine wall:

a) 24 days after fertilization
b) 10 days after fertilization
c) 6-7 days after fertilization
d) Immediately after fertilization

A

C

141
Q

The cardiac silhouette on a normal chest radiograph during pregnancy can be expected to have the following:
a) Prominence of the left cardiac border
b) Cardiac hypertrophy
c) Prominence of the pulmonary artery
d) All of the above

A

A

142
Q

The increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is due to:
a) An increase in heart rate
b) All of the above
c) An increase in stroke volume
d) A decrease in systemic vascular resistance

A

B

143
Q

Mean duration of a normal menstrual cycle is:

a) 24 days
b) 36 days
c) 32 days
d) 28 days

A

D

144
Q

Which option is correct regarding diagnostic ultrasound:
a) It employs the use of low-intensity, high frequency sound waves
b) In 6 per cent of pregnancies there will be serious structural abnormality
c) An increase in nuchal translucency is associated with cardiac defects
d) Determine chorionicity in twin pregnancy at the 20/40 scan

A

A

145
Q

Second Leopold manoeuvre is for estimate:
a) Fetal vitality
b) Height of fundus
c) Fetal position
d) Fetal presentation

A

C

146
Q

A woman is founded to have oligohydramnios at 30/40. Which of the following is the most likely cause:
a) Duodenal atresia
b) Oesophageal atresia
c) Diabetes
d) Renal agenesis

A

D

147
Q

When evaluating hypothyroidism during pregnancy, one should:

a) Sure all of the above
b) Measure a total T3 (triiodothyronine) level
c) Measure a free T4 (thyroxine) level
d) Measure a total T4 level

A

C

148
Q

The iliac Bi-spinous diameter normally has:
a) 18-20cm
b) 28-29cm
c) 25-26cm
d) 22-23cm

A

A

149
Q

Saltatory pattern is typical for:
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Umbilical cord complication
c) Engagement of the head to the pelvis
d) Fetal anaemia

A

A

150
Q

Viscosity of the cervical mucus is highest in:
a) Preovulatory phase
b) Early luteal phase
c) Late luteal phase
d) Early follicular phase

A

B

151
Q

Colpocleisis is:
a) Vaginal inversion
b) Microbial smear in the vagina
c) Surgical closure of the vagina
d) Insertion of vaginal pessary

A

C

152
Q

Fertilization takes place in:
a) Vagina
b) Uterus
c) Tube
d) Ovary

A

C

153
Q

All of the following are true about the cardiovascular changes in pregnancy except:
a) Angiotensin II resistance causes a characteristic hyponatremia
b) The absolute red blood cell count is the same
c) Blood pressure decreases by 10-20 mmHg
d) Blood volume increases by 40%

A

A

154
Q

The size of the follicle right before ovulation is:
a) Very variable
b) Usually over 24 mm
c) Usually 18 – 24 mm
d) Usually 15 – 18 mm

A

C

155
Q

Which of the following is not a component of a standard nuchal translucency (NT) assessment in the first trimester:
a) Assessment of the NT thickness in the midsagittal plane
b) Crown-rump length
c) Colour doppler evaluation of the ductus venosus

A

C

156
Q

Normal blood loss in delivery is till:

a) 750 ml
b) 500 ml
c) 1000 ml
d) 250 ml

A

B

157
Q

The weight of uterus in adult nullipara in:
a) 10–20g
b) 200g and more
c) 50–60g
d) 100 – 200g

A

C

158
Q

Ovarian follicle in follicular phase grows:
a) 10 mm/day
b) 1–2mm/day
c) Logarithmically; i.e. 100 mm/day at the beginning and then gradually less and less
d) Exponentially; i.e. 1 mm/day at the beginning. 100 mm/day at the end of follicular
phase

A

B

159
Q

How many ovarian follicles undergo ovulation during the whole woman’s life:
a) 300 – 400
b) 100 - 200
c) More than 1000
d) 600 – 700

A

A

160
Q

Ultrasonographic examination is useful for the assessment of
a) Pressures in the urethra during coughing
b) Width of external urethral meatus
c) The position and mobility of the bladder neck and vesicalization of the urethra
d) No answer is correct

A

C

161
Q

Female sterilization means:
a) Oophorectomy
b) Discontinuation of the tubes next to uterine corners
c) Adnexectomy
d) Ligation of the ovaries

A

B

162
Q

Which of the following drugs may increase the risk of birth defects when used in the first trimester:
a) Erythromycin
b) Ampicillin
c) Trimethoprim
d) Acyclovir

A

C

163
Q

Infertility is defined in case when the pair in spite of unprotected sexual intercourse 3-4 times per week does not conceive within:
a) 10 years
b) 6 weeks
c) 1 month
d) 12 months

A

D

164
Q

The components of the Apgar score include all except:
a) Pulse rate
b) Appearance
c) Good eye opening
d) Respiratory effort

A

C

165
Q

Ultrasonography is the best graphic method for diagnostics of:
a) Cystic lesions of the breast
b) Retracted posttraumatic or postoperative scars
c) Microcalcifications
d) Dopplerometric diagnostics of breast precancerosis

A

A

166
Q

The steps of fetal head delivery during the second stage of labour usually take place in the following order:
a) External rotation, Internal rotation, Extension (Rotation around symphysis), Flexion, Progression
b) Flexion, Extension (Rotation around symphysis), Progression, Internal rotation, External rotation
c) Flexion, Progression, Internal rotation, Extension (Rotation around symphysis), External rotation
d) Extension (Rotation around symphysis), Flexion, Progression, External rotation, Internal rotation

A

C

167
Q

Uterine retraction after delivery is approximately:
a) 1cm/day
b) 1cm/3days
c) 3cm/day
d) 2cm/day

A

A

168
Q

Substances positively affecting uterine contractility are all except:
a) Oestrogens
b) Oxytocin
c) Prostaglandins
d) Progesterone

A

D

169
Q

FHR variability can be decreased in all of the following situations, except:
a) Fetal asphyxia
b) Excessive fetal movement
c) Fetal behavioural states
d) Narcotics

A

B

170
Q

DIP I decelerations are:
a) Early
b) Late
c) Prolonged
d) Variable

A

A

171
Q

The obstetric doctor on call is asked to review a cardiograph performed prior to induction of labour in a 39/40 multigravida. Which of the following features should help to reassure the doctor that this is a normal trace:
a) An acceleration of 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds is present on the trace
b) There are no significant accelerations of the fetal heart on the 30-minute recording
c) The baseline heart rate is 100 beats per minute
d) The baseline variability is <5 beats per minute

A

A

172
Q

How many stages of delivery do we have:
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 6

A

A

173
Q

16-cell stage is called:
a) Zygote
b) Blastocyst
c) Morula
d) Trophoblast

A

C

174
Q

Maximum volume of amniotic fluid is in about:
a) Colposcopy
b) Hysteroscopy
c) Laparoscopy
d) Tubal insufflation

?

A

?

175
Q

Normal mechanism of delivery of head is:
a) Flexion-Progression-Internal rotation-Deflexion-External rotation
b) Progression-Flexion-Internal rotation-External rotation-Deflexion
c) Deflexion-Progression-Flexion-Internal rotation-External rotation
d) External rotation-Deflexion-Internal rotation-Progression-Flexion

A

A

176
Q

The term of pregnancy is:
a) 40+0
b) 39+3
c) 39+0
d) 41+0

A

A

New: c?

177
Q

Transfer of the HPV infection from mother to new born during delivery threatens mostly with:
a) Viral pneumonia
b) Skin warts
c) Keratoconjunctivitis
d) Papillomatosis of larynx

A

D

178
Q

The precursor of E3 is:
a) Testosterone
b) Pregnenolone
c) Androstenedione
d) DHEAS

A

D

179
Q

II. Stage of delivery in Multiparas is less than:
a) 60min
b) 120min
c) 30min
d) 180min

A

A

180
Q

Endometrial growth is stimulated by:
a) Oestrogens
b) hCG
c) Gonadotropins
d) Gestagens

A

A

181
Q

Which statement is correct regarding general examination in pregnancy:
a) Breast examination should be conducted as part of routine antenatal care
b) A symphysis-fundal height measurement should be plotted at every visit after 16/40
c) Approximately 80 per cent of women have an audible murmur at 12/40
d) The abdomen should always be palpated lying flat

A

D

182
Q

The course of menstruation cycle is mostly under the influence of:
a) Pulsatile secretion of Gonadoliberine (GnRH)
b) The release of prolactin from the pituitary gland
c) The ovarian synthesis of oestrogen
d) The synthesis of progesterone in corpus luteum

A

D

183
Q

Average thickness of umbilical cord is:
a) 20cm
b) 5cm
c) 10cm
d) 1-2cm

A

D

184
Q

Blood volume in pregnancy increases about:
a) 500ml
b) 2L
c) 2,5L
d) 1-1,5L

A

D

185
Q

A Thirty-seven-year old woman attends for a routine dating scan. She asks you in detail what information will be obtained from the scan. Which of the following will not be possible:
a) The detection of placenta praevia
b) Accurate dating of the pregnancy
c) The early detection of twin pregnancies
d) The detection of a failed pregnancy

A

A

186
Q

Asherman syndrome is best treated with:
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Hysteroscopy
c) Hysterectomy
d) Antibiotics

A

B

187
Q

Choose the best statement in regard to genetic counselling:
a) A discussion regarding termination should not be raised with the parents unless a
test result has shown a serious condition
b) A consent form should be signed prior to genetic tests being carried out
c) A 1 per cent risk of miscarriage from an invasive test will be considered acceptable to
all parents
d) If no genetic basis is known for a condition, there is little use in genetic counselling
for the parents

A

D

188
Q

Which of the following endogenous oestrogens is most biologically active:
a) Estradiol
b) Estriol
c) Estron
d) Estetrol

A

A

189
Q

How long does the puerperium take:
a) 2 weeks
b) 4-5 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 6-8 weeks

A

D

190
Q

Bulbus vestibuli is:
a) Paired venal plexus
b) Disorder of Bartholin’s gland
c) Non-professional description for Bartholinitis
d) Located at mons veneris

A

A

191
Q

Normal duration of active phase of I. Stage of delivery is less than:

a) 12 hours
b) 10 hours
c) 16 hours
d) 16 hours

A

A

192
Q

II. Trimester ends in:
a) 31 weeks of gestation
b) 30 weeks of gestation
c) 29 weeks of gestation
d) 28 weeks of gestation

A

D

193
Q

To assess the exact gestational age, the most exact method is:
a) Calculation according to the first fetal movements
b) Calculation according to the last menstruation period (LMP)
c) Calculation according to the last fetal movements
d) The measurement of crown-rump-length (CRL)

A

D

194
Q

All but one of the following are integral components of the algorithm for first trimester risk of Down-syndrome:
a) The NT thickness in millimetre
b) The patient’s age
c) The fetal heart rate
d) The crown-rump-length of the fetus

A

D

195
Q

The lung cells responsible for surfactant synthesis are:
a) Type 2 pneumocytes
b) Bronchial epithelium
c) Type 1 pneumocytes
d) Endothelial cells

A

A

196
Q

How many Leopold’s manoeuvres do we have:
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3

A

C

197
Q

Tetracyclines inhibit the growth of fetal:
a) Heart muscle
b) Bones and teeth
c) Lip and palate
d) Neural tube

A

B

198
Q

Ureter is located:
a) In a cranial part extraperitoneally, in a caudal part intraperitoneally
b) Extraperitoneally
c) Intraperitoneally
d) In a cranial part Intraperitoneally, in a caudal part extraperitoneally

A

B

199
Q

The gender is usually determined:
a) After the indifference stage
b) After differentiation
c) At the time of conception
d) By oocyte

A

C

200
Q

The junction zone in post menopause is located on/in/at:
a) Endocervix
b) Vagina
c) Ectocervix
d) Vulva

A

A

201
Q

At what gestational week the volume of amniotic fluid is the highest:
a) 30 weeks
b) 40 weeks
c) 18 weeks
d) 36 weeks

A

D

202
Q

Early neonatal death can be stated at which period?

a) Within 7days after delivery
b) After 14 days of delivery
c) After 21 days of delivery
d) …..

A

A

203
Q

Rupture of rectum occurs in which stage?

a) 3A
b) 3B
c) 3C
d) … Other option

A

3B?

204
Q

Why do we perform mediolateral episiotomy?
a) Avoid extensive bleeding
b) avoid damage to external sphincter
c) …..
d) ….

A

B?