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Epizootology > Credit 1 > Flashcards

Credit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the principle of AGID (agar gel immunodiffusion) test?

A

When antigen and specific antibodies bind they form a precipitation seen as visible line, this indicates a positive test.
Incubation for 24 hours.

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2
Q

Division of the media used for cell culture:

A

Liquid, solid

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3
Q

In blocking ELISA positive result is:

A

No colour

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4
Q

Give an example of facultative pathogens:

A

Bacteria: Salmonella, Staphylococcuc spp., Listeria spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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5
Q

Animal notifiable diseases are reported to:

A

World organization for animal health

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6
Q

What are the stages for epizootic process?

A

Interepizootic
Preepizootic
Ascending
Culmination
Descending
Postepizootic

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7
Q

What is epizootiological triad?

A

Animal populations, etiological agents and environmental factors

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8
Q

What is an abortive infection?

A

Infection that disappear after prodromal period

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9
Q

What are the ways of etiological agents transmission?

A

Mode of transmission = the way in which etiological agents is transmitted from affected to susceptible individuals

Route of infection = route by which agent gains access to the body of individual
* Alimentary tract
* Respiratory tract
* Skin
* Urogenital tract
* Mammary gland
* Conjunctiva
* Umbilical infection
* Accidental entry

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10
Q

What test is virological?

A

Virus neutralization

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11
Q

What is the principle of haemagglutination inhibition test?

A

Antibodies to a particular virus will prevent attachment of virus to RBC by hemagglutinin
(parvovirus, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus)
Positive = inhibition of blood cell agglutination –'’button’’
Negative = typical hemagglutination, diffuse layer of the cells

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12
Q

Complement fixation test is used for the detection of:

A

antibodies in serum
(Ag + Ab + complement –> immunocomplex + complement –> OERY + amboceptor –> pos: no hemolysis OR neg: hemolysis)

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13
Q

In sandwich ELISA positive result is:

A

Change of colour to green/yellow

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14
Q

Carnivores are born:

A

Hypoamaglobulinemic

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15
Q

What is tropisms of pathogens?

A

Tropism = ability of a given pathogen to infect a specific location

Monotropic = for one organ or system
Polytropic = for more organs and systems
Pantropic = multiple sites in organism

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16
Q

What is the role of colostral immunity?

A

Provide passive immunity
Protection against septicaemia and organ infection.
Local protection of intestine.
GIT multiplication of bacteria.

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17
Q

Clinical signs indicating failure of passive transfer of immunity in 3-5 days old animals:

A

Profuse diarrhoea and dehydration.
Respiratory or systemic infections.

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18
Q

What sample is taken for rabies diagnosis?

A

Brain

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19
Q

Cytopathic effect is:

A

Destruction of the cells after virus inoculation

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20
Q

Which medium is used for cultivation of Salmonella?

A

MacConkey agar

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21
Q

Which methods is used for microscopic detection of fungi?

A

Native with KOH

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22
Q

What are the main reagents in ELISA test?

A

Antigen
Antibody
Enzymes
Chromogen
Coating buffer
washing buffer
protein stabilizers/blockers
sample

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23
Q

What are the advantages of real time PCR comparing with classical PCR?

A

Fast answer
Easy

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24
Q

Division of etiological agents according to their pathogenicity?

A

Obligate
Facultative
Apathogenic

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25
Give an example of non-contagious infectious diseases:
Borreliosis Lyme disease Blue tongue
26
Describe risk-assesment in epizootology:
Pathogenicity Mode of transportation Hosts If the pathogen is zoonotic Mortality
27
What is the principle of ELISA test?
Antibody detect target antigen using specific antigen-antibody interactions.
28
What is the cytopathic effect in cell cultures?
Any changes of the cell after viral infection
29
In complement fixation test positive result is:
No hemolysis
30
What are the stages of infectious process?
Incubation = from time of exposure to clinical signs Prodromal = unspecific signs of infection Manifestation = specific clinical signs Remission = recovery or death
31
What are objects of study in epizootology?
Study of diseases and how antibody and antigen work
32
Forms of infectious diseases according to clinical signs manifestation:
Acute < less than two days Subacute 2-14 days Peracute > over 14 days Chronic is several months
33
Hyperimmune serum application is:
Artificial passive immunisation
34
What is basic characteristics of DNA polymerase in PCR?
Need a template Add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA strand Prevents denaturation of enzyme during heating step in the PCR technique
35
Half time of maternal antibodies is:
Period in which 50% of antibodies is declined
36
Give an example of biological immunomodulators:
Monoclonal antibodies Interferons Interleukins Tumour necrosis factor Colony stimulating factor
37
What are negri bodies?
Eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathogenic inclusion bodies in cytoplasm of certain nerve cells
38
What media is used for cultivation for mycobacteria?
Blood agar Middlebrook agar
39
Which staining method is used for microscopic detection of brucella?
Ziehl-Neelsen
40
What are stages of phagocytosis?
Chemotaxis Adherence Ingestion Digestion
41
FAO is:
Food and agriculture organisation
42
Forms of infectious process according to quantity of agents:
Monoetiological Polyetiological Multifactorial
43
What are the grades of epizootological process?
Sporadic cases: occurrence in uneven and scattered manner Enzootic: Spatial distrubidity is small (local, farm) Epizootic: Spatial distribution is large (district, state) Panzootic: Very large (number of countries)
44
Dogs and cats are born:
Hypogamaglobulinemic
45
Causative agent for oedema diseases in pigs:
Hemolytic E. coli
46
Susceptible species in mycobacteriosis:
all vertebrates including man
47
Marek disease is caused by:
Herpes virus
48
Swine vesicular disease is:
zoonotic
49
Enzootic pneumonia of swine is caused by:
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
50
Way of avian influenza transmission:
Inhalation
51
Rinderpest is caused by:
Morbillivirus
52
Aujeszky disease is always fatal for:
Dogs
53
Reservoirs for Leptospirosa are:
Rodents
54
Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by:
Mosquitos
55
Susceptible species for mycobacteriosis:
All vertebrates including man
56
Enzootic pneumonia of swine is caused by:
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
57
Rinderpest is caused by:
Morbillivirus
58
Hyperimmune serum application is:
Artificial passive immunisation
59
What is the basic characteristics of DNA polymerase in PCR:
Thermolability
60
What is tropisms of pathogens:
The ability of a pathogen to infect a certain location
60
Name at least three tests for cellular immunity evaluation:
IGRA (interferon gamma release assay) DTH (delayed hypersensitivity) Complete blood count Lymphocyte proliferation assay
61
What is the role of colostral immunity:
Protect against septicaemia and organ infection Local protection of intestine GIT multiplication of bacteria Enteropathogenic E. coli first 3 days Enteroviruses after 5 days
62
Clinical signs of failure of passive transfer of immunity:
Profuse diarrhoea and dehydration Respiratory or systemic infections
63
PCR test is used for the detection of:
Genome or part of genome
64
Staphylococci are Gram:
Positive
65
Division of cell cultures according to growth potential:
Primary and established
66
In haemagglutination inhibition test positive result is:
Inhibition of the blood cell agglutination ''button''
67
What is the ''one-health'' concept?
The One Health concept recognizes the interrelatationship between animal, human and environmental health One world - One health - One medicine
68
Natural focus of the infection is limited:
Geographical and seasonal
69
Young ruminants are born:
Agamaglobulinemic
70
Phylogenetic tree shows:
In graphic form, developmental relationship between studied strains
71
What is the principle of virus neutralization test?
Neutralization of virus by specific antibodies in the serum tested. Positive serum contains Ab that neutralize the virus and consequently the virus cannot damage the cells.
72
Division of cell cultures according to the way of cultivation:
Monolayers and suspension
73
Which medium is used for cultivation of fungi?
Sabourad agar
74
Which staining method is used for mycobacteria?
Ziehl-Neelsen
75
What are main reagents of PCR?
Primers Enzyme DNA sample dNTP (deoxynucleotide triphosphate)
76
Which is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of rabies?
Fluorescent antibody test
77
OIE is:
World health organization for animal health
78
What does the approach to one health mean?
Human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the ecosystem in which they exist
79
Source of infection is:
Macroorganisms, in which etiological agents survives, multiplies and is excreted
80
Immunofluorescence detects:
Antigen
81
Wavelength of immunofluorescence:
380-750 nm
82
Boya's method is for detection of:
Mycobacterium
83
Rabies is detected by:
Immunofluorescence
84
Haemagglutination detects:
virus (Ab)
85
PCR procedure:
Amplification of DNA
86
What is real-time PCR?
Amplification of DNA in real time
87
Blocking ELISA is used for detection of:
Antibodies
88
Annealing temperature of PCR:
45-60*C
89
Skin contamination is cleaned by:
0.5% chloramine B
90
Excision of histological sample:
1 cm maximum
91
Blastotransformation is:
Lymphocyte ???
92
Enzyme most commonly used in ELISA:
Horseradish peroxidase
93
Conjugation involves:
Ig, serum and fluorochrome
94
PCR is:
Amplification of DNA fragments
95
What is the principle of immunofluorescence?
To use marked antibodies of immune serum against antigen which we want to neutralize
96
Define indirect transmission:
The passage of infectious agent between individuals through the medium of inanimate or animate objects. The period between contamination of the object and subsequent exposure of susceptible individuals is highly variable and may range from a few minutes to a few years.
97
Define panzootic process:
A process occurring over a wide area and subsequently affecting a large proportion of the population
98
Methods used in epizootology:
Diagnostic Descriptive Analytical Statistical Experimental Theoretical
99
Cyclozoonoses require:
More than one vertebrate host
100
Synthetic immunomodulators are:
Levamizole, Isoprinosone
101
WHO is:
World health organization
102
Positive result in hemagglutination inhibition test is:
sedimentation of erythrocytes
103
CAMP test is used for detection of:
Streptococcus agalactie
104
For detection of antibodies we use:
Indirect ELISA
105
PCR is used for:
Detection of etiological agent nucleic acid
106
Define a polyvalent vaccine:
Contains two or more strains of the same antigen
107
Triocomponental foci of infectious diseases is divided into:
Vector, interhostal, postinterhostal
108
Eradication of infectious disease means:
Reduction of an infectious disease's prevalence in the global host population to zero
109
Method for diagnosis of Brucella is:
Rose Bengal, ELISA, serum agglutination
110
Sandwich and competitive ELISA detects:
AntiGEN
111
Ascoli test is:
Detection
112
Blocking ELISA detects:
AntiBODY
113
Temp for annealing of primers in PCR:
52*C
114
Caprinization:
Artificially obtained a virulent population of microbes are frequently used. Method of passaging of microbes in less sensitive hosts
115
Bovine leukosis is by what virus?
Retrovirus (Family) and delta retrovirus (genus)
116
Bovine leukosis is a disorders of:
B lymphocytes
117
Wavelength of UV light:
120-380 nm
118
Established cell line:
Permanent cell sub cultured 70 times at intervals of 3 days between subculture
119
In which test do we find a precipitation line?
AGID test
120
What is lapinization?
Passing through several animals (Rabbits)
121
Tube serum agglutination is:
quantitative
122
Direct immunofluorescence checks for:
Antigen
123
Indirect immunofluorescence checks for:
Ag and Ab
124
What is surveillance?
Collection and analysis of data on disease occurrence. The main purpose is to detect trends, changes in distribution of disease
125
Monovalent vaccine:
Monovalency serum contains antibodies only against one microbe
126

Epizootology (1 decks)

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