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Project + > Creating a Project Plan & Procuring Solutions > Flashcards

Creating a Project Plan & Procuring Solutions Flashcards

1
Q

a compact, visual model of the project schedule

a) total float
b) precedence diagram method
c) project network diagram

A

project network diagram

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2
Q

this diagram uses rectangles and arrows to show the dependencies between activities.

a) critical path method
b) precedence diagram method
c) project network diagram

A

Precedence Diagram Method (PDM)

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3
Q

analyzes a project schedule to identify the dependent activity sequence with the longest duration.

a) critical path method
b) precedence diagram method
c) project network diagram

A

critical path method (CPM)

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4
Q

the amount of time an activity can wait to start without impacting the total project timeline.

a) free float
b) critical path
c) total float

A

Total Float (TF)

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5
Q

Total Float formulas

A

TF = LS - ES

TF = LF - EF

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6
Q

the amount of time an activity can wait to start without impacting any other activities.

A

Free Float (FF)

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7
Q

Free Float formula

A

FF(1) = the minimum ES of all direct successors - EF(1)

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8
Q

Critical Path formula

A

Critical Path = list of all activities where (TF = 0)

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9
Q

an early version of a product

a) beta
b) developing
c) minimum viable product

A

minimum viable product (MVP)

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10
Q

a calculated buffer of time and cost that covers documented risks.

a) scope baseline
b) contingency reserve
c) management reserves

A

contigency reserve

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11
Q

an additional sum of time or money that covers “unknown unknowns.”

a) scope baseline
b) contingency reserve
c) management reserves

A

management reserves

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12
Q

accommodates multiple methods for calculating contingency reserves

a) cost analysis
b) reserve analysis
c) trade-off analysis

A

reserve analysis

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13
Q

this value is summed to calculate the project’s contingency buffer

a) capital gain
b) expenditure total
c) expected monetary value

A

Expected monetary value (EMV)

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14
Q

the original scope from the detailed scope statement.

a) scope baseline
b) schedule baseline
c) cost baseline

A

scope baseline

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15
Q

the total project duration captured from the project schedule.

a) cost baseline
b) schedule baseline
c) reserve baseline

A

schedule baseline

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16
Q

the expected costs plus the contingency reserves.

a) cost baseline
b) schedule baseline
c) expenditure baseline

A

cost baseline

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17
Q

a set of processes that can touch every part of a project.

a) development
b) testing
c) quality assurance

A

quality assurance (QA)

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18
Q

this plan describes how the team will ensure the project outputs meet the project’s requirements.

a) QA plan
b) regression plan
c) succession plan

A

QA Plan

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19
Q

measures the smallest piece of functionality in software.

a) unit test
b) smoke test
c) regression test

A

unit test

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20
Q

confirms that the code change did not affect any existing functionality.

a) performance test
b) user acceptance test
c) regression test

A

regression test

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21
Q

this test runs after the code is compiled into a build and before it is deployed and released.

a) performance test
b) user acceptance test
c) smoke test

A

smoke test

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22
Q

this testing evaluates the final outputs against specifications.

a) smoke test
b) user acceptance test
c) stress test

A

User acceptance testing (UAT)

23
Q

this test measure the system’s performance

a) smoke test
b) performance test
c) stress test

A

performance test

24
Q

this test evaluates how a system performs when it reaches or exceeds the expected workload.

a) smoke test
b) performance test
c) stress test

A

stress test

25
Q

a reference document that describes how a project will verify that the project’s outputs meet the expected quality.

a) procurement plan
b) unit plan
c) test plan

A

test plan

26
Q

a set of documents that describes what the team will deliver and how they will deliver them.

a) procurement plan
b) project management plan
c) test plan

A

project management plan

27
Q

a customer’s request for specific goods or services

a) procurement documents
b) master service agreement
c) purchase order

A

purchase order (PO)

28
Q

an overarching document that defines the terms of a vendor–buyer relationship.

a) request for information
b) master service agreement
c) purchase order

A

master service agreement (MSA)

29
Q

these documents can help you select the right solution and vendor for your project.

a) procurement documents
b) master service agreement
c) purchase order

A

procurement documents

30
Q

used to learn more about solutions before initiating the solicitation process.

a) request for information
b) master service agreement
c) purchase order

A

request for information (RFI)

31
Q

used to solicit multiple vendor proposals for a solution.

a) request for information
b) request for bid
c) request for proposal

A

request for proposal (RFP)

32
Q

this deciding factor solicits proposals like, but the vendors compete on price.

a) request for quote
b) request for bid
c) request for proposal

A

request for bid (RFB)

33
Q

a formal document requesting pricing information for detailed, specific requirements, such as supplies or labor.

a) request for quote
b) request for bid
c) request for proposal

A

request for quote (RFQ)

34
Q

a formal document that outlines the work a vendor needs to deliver.

a) functional SOW
b) performance SOW
c) procurement SOW

A

procuement SOW

35
Q

this SOW outlines how to deliver the work, and it sets resource and performance requirements at each stage.

a) functional SOW
b) design SOW
c) procurement SOW

A

design SOW

36
Q

this SOW lists the requirements of a finished product only

a) functional SOW
b) design SOW
c) performance SOW

A

functional SOW

37
Q

describes the expected outcomes along with minimum performance standards.

a) functional SOW
b) design SOW
c) performance SOW

A

performance SOW

38
Q

this analysis looks at all the same vendors but compares them against each other.

a) cost-benifit analysis
b) risk analysis
c) competitive analysis

A

competitive analysis

39
Q

a specific audience

a) end user
b) focus group
c) predetermined client

A

predetermined client

40
Q

expenses concerning permanent assets, such as data centers, vehicles, and equipment

a) budget
b) OpEx
c) CapEx

A

CapEx

41
Q

an organization’s regular expenses, such as salaries, taxes, and recurring expenses, such as subscriptions, rentals, and utilities.

a) budget
b) OpEx
c) CapEx

A

OpEx

42
Q

this analysis compares the cost of a project against the expected financial benefits it will deliver.

a) competitive analysis
b) risk analysis
c) cost-beneift analysis

A

cost-benifit analysis

43
Q

this contract also called a “lump sum contract”, which agrees to a set price for a fixed scope of work and places most of the contract risk on the vendor.

a) fixed-price contract
b) firm fixed-price contract
c) cost-plus contract

A

fixed-price contract

44
Q

this contract sets an expectation with the vendor to deliver on time. In exchange, they will receive the total price offered in the contract.

a) incentive price
b) discounted price
c) firm fixed-price

A

firm fixed-price (FFP)

45
Q

a contract where A buyer can add incentives

a) incentive price fee
b) fix-price incentive fee
c) firm fixed-price fee

A

fixed-price incentive fee (FPIF)

46
Q

this contract is a fixed-price contract that factors in inflation costs.

a) incentive price fee
b) fix-price incentive fee
c) fixed-price with economic price adjustment

A

fixed-price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA )

47
Q

this contract is also called a “cost-reimbursable contract.” It pays for all resource costs needed to complete the work plus a fee to the vendor, representing the vendor’s profit margin.

a) fixed-price contract
b) firm fixed-price contract
c) cost-plus contract

A

cost-plus contract

48
Q

in this contract The vendor receives a fixed fee for the work when signing

a) cost-plus incentive fee
b) cost-plus award fee
c) cost-plus fixed fee

A

cost-plus fixed fee (CPFF)

49
Q

this contract builds incentives into the fee structure.

a) cost-plus incentive fee
b) cost-plus award fee
c) cost-plus fixed fee

A

cost-plus incentive fee (CPIF)

50
Q

this contract pays costs plus a fee adjusted for performance

a) cost-plus incentive fee
b) cost-plus award fee
c) cost-plus fixed fee

A

cost-plus award fee (CPAF)

51
Q

in this contract a vendor receives a fee equal to a percentage of all costs.
a) unit-price percentage of cost
b) cost-plus percentage of cost
c) time and materials cost

A

cost-plus percentage of cost (CPPC)

52
Q

in this contract the buyer agrees to pay a fixed price per work unit delivered.

a) unit price contract
b) firm fixed-price contract
c) cost-plus contract

A

unit price contract

53
Q

in this contract The buyer pays materials and labor costs up to the maximum price listed in the contract.

a) time and materials contranct
b) cost-plus contract
c) unit price contract

A

time and materials (T&M) contract

54
Q

the operating agreements for how the vendor and project team will work together to deliver a project.

a) cost-buyer etiquette
b) rules of engagement
c) vendor-company relations

A

rules of engagement

Project + (7 decks)

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