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1C5 MQF TEST > CRC SURVEILLANCE > Flashcards

CRC SURVEILLANCE Flashcards

0
Q

Which option switch (OS) would be used to overwrite an existing database with a new database?

A

START BUILD

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1
Q

To load any database the first of five mandatory entries is the ________.

A

System Center

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE for the system Center?

A

It cannot be changed once data is entered

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3
Q

Which database can be the operational database?

A

Database A, B, or C

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4
Q

Each OM contains _______ System Server Unit(s) (SSU).

A

two

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5
Q

Where is the SSU hard drive slot located in the peripheral bay?

A

Top

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6
Q

Which VFS is used to copy a database from the SSU?

A

INIT SYSTEM VFS

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7
Q

Which VFS is used to load a database?

A

LOAD DB VFS

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8
Q

Which OS is used to change the current database default directory?

A

OVERRIDE DEFAULT OS

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9
Q

All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT:

  • Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required
  • Monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies
  • Coordinating and planning then initial build of database
  • Performing Voice Tell when necessary
A

PERFORMING VOICE TELL WHEN NECESSARY

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10
Q

Which of the following antennas is mounted on top PSR antenna, transponders on an aircraft and receives coded replies?

A

The IFF/SIF Antenna

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11
Q

All of the following are responsibilities of the EPT EXCEPT:

  • Monitoring the data link coordination net (DCN) to coordinate requirements with other data link participants
  • Recommending EMCON measures and levels
  • Works closely with radar maintenance to ensure optimum levels of radar performance
  • Takes appropriate actions to negate the effects of Electronic Attack (EA)
A

EXCEPTION: Monitoring the data link coordination net (DCN) to coordinate requirements with other data link participants

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12
Q

Which of the following responses BEST describes the voice communications equipment group?

A

Control communication messages within the OM and between the OM’s, radar vans, and external agencies

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13
Q

Among the following choices, which one BEST defines the internal radio equipment group?

A

Control voice and digital information in ground-to-air and ground-to-ground modes

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14
Q

Which of the following statements BEST defines the digital communications equipment group?

A

Provides communications between the OM and external agencies via Link 1, 11,11B, 4A, 16, TFMS and ATDL-1

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15
Q

Which of the following converts electrical power for use by the OM equipment?

A

Power distribution system

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16
Q

Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools?

A

Pallet assembly

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17
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)?

A

A six-channel device that copies voice signals form four VCASs simultaneously

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18
Q

Which of the following provides through-connections for all communications entering or leaving the OM via the comm, demarcation panel?

A

Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP)

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19
Q

Which of the following is a wide band, tactical, half duplex encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems?

A

KY-58

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20
Q

Which of the following converts digital input signals into optical output signals that are transmitted over fiber-optic cables to a maximum of four other OMs?

A

Digital data bus/voice control bus electrical optical converter (DDV/VCB EOC)

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21
Q

The maximum number of OM’s that can be connected is _________.

A

Five

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22
Q

In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT:

  • Simulation capability
  • Reduced tracking capacity
  • One Link 11
  • Two Link 11B’s
A

EXCEPTION: Simulation capability

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23
Q

In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, the track symbology’s are displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities?

  • Friendlies
  • Engagement
  • Hostiles
  • Assigned Weapons
A

NOT in TOP 3: Friendlies

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24
Q

What is the maximum number of operator console workstations (OCUWS) that can be connected in a full capacity OM configuration?

A

Twenty

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25
Q

How long must operations forms be maintained on file?

A

At least 60 days

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26
Q

The purpose of the AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide, is to:

A

Brief missions, record mission results and serves as a record of unit control activities

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27
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed?

A

Mission Crew Commander (MCC)

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28
Q

When an error is made in the operations Logbook, you may do all the following EXCEPT:

  • Erase the incorrect entry
  • initial the correction
  • draw a line through the incorrect entry
  • rewrite the entry below the initial entry
A

EXCEPTION: Erase the incorrect entry

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29
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing the completed AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide, and attaching it to AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log?

A

Mission Crew Commander (MCC)

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30
Q

The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to:

A

Summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis

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31
Q

To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled ______.

A

MASTER OFF

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32
Q

Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict of a track that is held mutually by two units?

A

1

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33
Q

The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to ________.

A

Clear the heading and speed and velocity vector of a hooked track

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34
Q

Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track?

A

D

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35
Q

Which character modifier denotes a track is being rate-aided (manually updated by operator action)?

A

A

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36
Q

Which character modifier denotes a non-real-time track?

A

M

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37
Q

What does the AUTO TRACK FFS allow you to do?

A

Change a rate-aided track to an auto track

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38
Q

Which switch allows you to manually initiate Mode 3 interrogation on a hooked air track?

A

INTRG MODES VFS

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39
Q

Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of ____ hours before show time.

A

8 hours

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40
Q

A Mode 3 code 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies?

A

General Emergency

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41
Q

Which character modifier denotes a military emergency?

A

E

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42
Q

Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency?

A

7500

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43
Q

Which of the following is NOT an emergency track modifier?

  • N
  • R
  • C
  • E
A

N

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44
Q

Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities?

A

R

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45
Q

Which Mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency?

A

7600

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46
Q

Which Variable Function Switch (VFS) is used to enter, delete, modify, or display EMCON status for radars and IFF?

A

ENTER EMCON

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47
Q

The RESTOR STROBE VFS allows the operator to __________.

A

Display all strobes associated with a site at your OCUWS

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48
Q

What happens when the system generates a Missile alert?

A

The SET EMCOM FFS blinks at all OCUWS’s

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49
Q

NOTE- Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond.

A

20 seconds

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50
Q

What switch allows an operator to enter a manual strobe?

A

ENTER STROBE VFS

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51
Q

What is the purpose of the ECCM PLAN VFS?

A

To enter, delete, modify, or display pro-planned ECCM parameters for radar of IFF

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52
Q

Which of the following choices BEST defines the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment?

A

EQUIP STATUS VFS

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53
Q

The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to ______?

A

display the CU performance statistics of the computer units

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54
Q

The KG-40A is used to encrypt and decrypt ___________ data.

A

TADIL-A

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55
Q

As part of the internal radio equipment, each OM contains a total of ____ HF radios.

A

2

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56
Q

The two record options on the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU) are Voice Op and __________.

A

Continuous

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57
Q

What is the proper procedure for marking and storing a complete tape?

A

It should be marked with tape number, period covered and stored for 48 hours.

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58
Q

What is the proper procedure for conducting an ACTIVITY SEARCH?

A

Select the desired channel, press FFWD or FREV depending on the direction you wish to search for the first activity above the present threshold

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59
Q

Which of the following MUST be selected in order to activate a TIME SEARCH on the R/RU?

A

Select TIME SEARCH, in the time control section, select SEARCH and enter the DATE and TIME.

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60
Q

What area of the OCUWS DSU display switches for radar and video selections?

A

Display Access Subunit

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61
Q

What OCUWS display access subunit switch do you use to remove bearing and range cursors from display on the DSU?

A

DSPL CURSOR

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62
Q

What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture?

A

Display Subunit (DSU)

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63
Q

What is the function of the VEL VECTOR VFS?

A

Changes the length of velocity vector on all tracks

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64
Q

The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios, and ____ direct access line(s).

A

4, 8, 4

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65
Q

The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are ________, _________, and ________,

A

internal, external, both

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66
Q

The Voice Communications Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ intercom lines

A

20

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67
Q

If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a _________ border will appear around the channel window.

A

White

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68
Q

To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select _________ on the menu bar.

A

OFF

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69
Q

The battle management section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following?

A

Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives

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70
Q

The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for Which of the following?

A

Detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC’s area of responsibility (AOR)

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71
Q

Which of the following CRC duty positions manages the surveillance section?

A

Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)

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72
Q

Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)?

A

Air Surveillance Technician (AST)

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73
Q

Which CRC duty position ensures operations is aware of site configurations and pertinent information (Alert Condition status, MOPP levels, etc.)?

A

Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)

74
Q

Which CRC duty position is responsible for detecting, initiating, identifying, and maintaining all tracks within an assigned area of responsibility (AOR)?

A

Surveillance Technician (ST)

75
Q

Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocation weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities?

A

Senior Director (SD)

76
Q

Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what?

A

Incoming orders

77
Q

Safety corridors, Restricted areas and Gun-Target lines can be found of which overlay?

A

Overlay 1, Flight Safety

78
Q

Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process?

A

Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation

79
Q

When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform?

A

The system automatically ID’s the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO

80
Q

In which of the following tests does the system determine if the track is heading towards a vital area?

A

Sanctuary test

81
Q

True of False? In high threat mode, Mode 4 testing automatically occurs.

A

True

82
Q

Which of the following is NOT a variable for the ID Corridor Test?

A

Speed

83
Q

Which test is used by the system to determine a track may be an ARM-carrying aircraft?

A

Profile test

84
Q

How are the automatic identification test results of an air track displayed?

A

Hook the track and then press the AUTO ID RECM VFS

85
Q

What switch action allows an operator to establish a hostile SAM site?

A

LAND POINT VFS

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT an option available under the AUTOID RECM VFS?

A

To enter the parameters of a maneuver test

87
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the maneuver test?

A

It is scored by the operator, using AUTOID RECM VFS

88
Q

Under what conditions should voice tell procedures be used?

A

When data link communications are unavailable

89
Q

A single Radar Interface Units (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars.

A

Three

90
Q

Where is the emergency exit in the OM located?

A

Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3

91
Q

The _________ provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain fault status of any voice channel in a five OM configuration.

A

Control & Maintenance Panel (C&MP)

92
Q

The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to all of the following EXCEPT:

  • One TADIL B
  • Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF, and/or three remote
  • One TADIL a (HF or UHF)
  • One remote radar/Data Link (VHF-1 or external)
A

EXCEPTION: one TADIL B

93
Q

The _________ provides connectors to connect external communications equipment to the OM.

A

Communications Demarcation Panel

94
Q

True or False: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OM’s online.

A

False

95
Q

The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz.

A

1, 30

96
Q

What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio?

A

250

97
Q

Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established?

A

A dedicated VHF radio circuit

98
Q

All of the following are TRUE concerning Censor Areas EXPECT:

  • They apply only to the radar/IFF that is displayed at the OCU at the time of entry
  • Existing tracks are dropped upon entry into the area
  • Acquisition of new tracks is inhibited
  • Existing tracks are unaffected by the area
A

False: Existing tracks are dropped upon entry into the area

99
Q

Each of the following is TRUE concerning Sector Inhibit EXCEPT:

  • Applies to all radars/IFF assigned to the CRC
  • It can inhibit tracks, plots, or both
  • All reports of the selected type are discarded by the MIG
  • Existing tracks/plots that enter the area will be dropped
A

False: Applies to all radars/IFF assigned to the CRC

100
Q

Which of the following modes choices is not available with the SELECT M/CODE VFS?

A

Mode 4

101
Q

Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code?

A

21

102
Q

All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT:

  • Computer capability lost
  • Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually
  • Data links inoperative or unavailable
  • Basic control functions operational
A

EXCEPTION: Computer capability lost

103
Q

What CRC battle management position acts as the primary interface with the AOC?

A

Mission Crew Commander (MCC)

104
Q

The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is _________.

A

Fourteen

105
Q

Which of the following elements is the senior command and control element of the TACS?

A

AOC

106
Q

A ________ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.

A

SPADES

107
Q

PAINT is a brevity term meaning _________.

A

an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria

108
Q

Link 16 uses the _________ radio frequencies.

A

Ultra High Frequency (UHF)

109
Q

Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time?

A

One

110
Q

Which FFS contains the OS’s that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas?

A

Plot Setup

111
Q

Which of the following is a netted, encrypted link that operates in half duplex mode?

A

Link 11

112
Q

Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time?

A

Word-of-Day (WOD)

113
Q

Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency?

A

Net number

114
Q

The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are:

A

Common frequencies
Time synchronization and
Common hopping pattern and rate

115
Q

Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference?

A

Conferencing

116
Q

Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as _________.

A

Time of Day (TOD)

117
Q

Which method of communication can be used for both internal and external communications?

A

Secure and non-secure telephone

118
Q

Initial detection, tracking, identification of airborne tracks, and recognition, and reporting of electronic attack BEST identifies which CRC function?

A

Surveillance

119
Q

Under the SELECT M/CODE VFS, what is the legal range of entry for the Mode 1 and Mode 3 codes?

A

Mode 1: 0-7 for first digit, 0-3 second digit,

Mode 3: 0000-7777

120
Q

What is the correct sequence for updating a tracks position using the REPOSN FFS?

A

Hook the track, activate the REPOSN FFS, position the Positional Entry Device (PED) marker over the desired location, double click the left mouse button

121
Q

Which of the following responses BEST describes when the Positional Changeover Briefing should be conducted?

A

Whenever there is a change in personnel manning a position

122
Q

During the Positional Changeover Briefing all of the following items are briefed EXCEPT the ________.

  • Current data base coordinates
  • Current positional manning
  • Current equipment status and configuration
  • Communications Security (COMSEC) and classified documents
A

EXCEPTION: Current data base coordinates

123
Q

Which section of the positional changeover briefing would contain information that one of the OCUWS is not functioning?

A

Equipment Status/Configuration

124
Q

Which section of the positional changeover briefing would cover the information about who has the authority to identify an aircraft as hostile?

A

ID Procedures

125
Q

Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit?

A

a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults

126
Q

Which of the following equipment is protected with EMI shielding?

A

Electrical equipment shelter

127
Q

Which of the following transfers digital and voice communication between OMs?

A

Digital data bus/voice control bus electrical optical converter (DDB/VCB EOC)?

128
Q

Which FFS allows the operator to transmit a pointer between positions in the OM system using the intercom?

A

COMM MARK FFS

129
Q

Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?

A

ENGAGE

130
Q

Which of the following types of Sensor Registrations is used to align incoming ATDL-1 data?

A

Support Unit (SU)

131
Q

All of the following statements are TRUE concerning the function of Sensor Registration EXCEPT:

  • Sensor Registration selects one of six locations to establish the Data Registration Reference Unit (DRRU) for radar alignment.
  • Sensor Registration is performed so that if your unit has multiple radars, the will report aircraft at the same location
  • Sensor Registration is performed so that your unit and other data link units will report aircraft at the same location
  • Sensor Registration is used to designate a Master Radar used ofr registation
A

EXCEPTION: Sensor Registration selects one of six locations to establish the Data Registration Reference Unit (DRRU) for radar alignment.

132
Q

The four switch actions used to register link data are ________.

A

JU Sensor, Geodetic, Remote, and SU

133
Q

The standard CRC configuration contains a total of _____ forward deployed radar(s) (DR).

A

Two

134
Q

All of the following are battle management functions EXCEPT:

  • Reconstitution
  • Surveillance
  • Weapons Control
  • Tactical Data Link Management
A

EXCEPTION: Reconstitution

135
Q

Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE?

  • It records a permanent, three-dimensional pictures and log of the airspace status
  • It operates independently of weather and jamming environments
  • It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding
  • It transmits, receives and presents data
A

FALSE: It records a permanent, three-dimensional pictures and log of the airspace status

136
Q

Which of the following BEST defines the side lobe reference (SLR) antenna?

A

An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed

137
Q

All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT:

  • a STU-III telephone
  • an external telephone line
  • AN/ARC-164 UHF radio
  • a six-channel troposcatter radio
A

EXCEPTION: a STU-III telephone

138
Q

A Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system can accept up to fourteen of these links simultaneously with a multi-OM configuration.

A

ATDL-1

139
Q

Inside the OM, where is the emergency shutoff switch located?

A

In the middle of the Power Distribution Control Unit (PDCU)

140
Q

The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to ___________.

A

Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area

141
Q

An emergency point can be entered into the system by Positional Entry Device (PED) or by using which of the following?

A

Location in actual coordinates

142
Q

Which of the following is NOT an EMCON tactic?

NOT a tactic: Jamming

  • Blanking
  • Decoy
  • Blinking
A

NOT a tactic: Jamming

143
Q

The responsibility for conducting the Positional Changeover Briefing belongs to _________.

A

Each individual on position that is being relieved by another

144
Q

In the HDRO, valid displays for ALT SRCE include all of the following EXCEPT:

  • M-C (Mode C)
  • RDR (Radar)
  • MAN (Manual, operator entered)
  • EST (Default)
A

EXCEPTION: M-C (Mode C)

145
Q

An Altitude Source that is aged over 30 seconds will display the following:

A

A

146
Q

If an Altitude Source is aged less than 30 seconds, which of the following modifiers will be displayed?

A

N

147
Q

If a DSU is in two-color mode, what is the color of a hostile missile?

A

Yellow

148
Q

TRUE or FALSE: On the DSU, radar plots are represented by an orange vertical line.

A

TRUE

149
Q

TRUE or FALSE: On the DSU, IFF plots are represented by an orange horizontal line.

A

TRUE

150
Q

The symbol modifier “H” represents which of the following?

A

Heads Up

151
Q

Symbols are blinked to alert the operator to all of the following EXCEPT:

  • New Unknown Tracks
  • Lost track
  • Emergency
  • Hostile Track
A

EXCEPTION: New Unknown Tracks

152
Q

A track designated as Return to Base (RTB) will have which of the following track modifiers?

A

A slash through the track

153
Q

A symbol modifier of “3” designates _____.

A

A track is responding with a special, non-emergency Mode 3 IFF code

154
Q

A track designated as Do Not Intercept (DNI) will have which of the following track modifiers?

A

An “X” through the track

155
Q

The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO?

A

Track information area

156
Q

When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the tracks movement.

A

15

157
Q

How many tracks per OCUWS may be selected for track trace?

A

16

158
Q

The key operational advantage Link 16 (TADIL-J) has over Link 11 (TADIL-A) and Link 11B (TADIL-B) is ________.

A

Increased data rate capability

159
Q

Which of the following choices BEST describes who is responsible for maintaining link discipline and the participating units transmit sequence for Link 11 (TADIL-A)?

A

Net Control Station

160
Q

In a Link 11 (TADIL-A) net interface only one participating unit can be transmitting at a single time while the remaining participating units (PUs) are receiving. This is known as a _________ system.

A

Half duplex

161
Q

An OM can exchange Link-11 (TADIL-A) data over a common circuit with a min. of ___ participation units (PUs) and a max. of ___ PUs

A

2, 15

162
Q

Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept their target?

A

CEASE FIRE

163
Q

Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible?

A

HOLD FIRE

164
Q

Which of the following tests evaluates an aircraft’s ID based on flight parameters of time, heading, altitude, and boundary width?

A

Corridor Test

165
Q

Which of the following tests is an airspace defined by altitude blocks, times, and speeds?

A

Sanctuary Test

166
Q

The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a max. range of ___ nautical miles and a max. altitude of ____ feet.

A

240 NM/ 95,500 FT

167
Q

What is the correct sequence for establishing an altitude layer for selective display of air tracks?

A

Select ALT LAYER VFS, enter min. and max. altitudes in thousands of feet, select ALT(MIN/MAX) OS, select ENTER

168
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: When hooking a track by IFF HOOK FFS, the track to be hooked does not have to be on the current DSU range scale display?

A

TRUE

169
Q

The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector?

A

357.2 degress, in 2.8 degree steps

170
Q

Which antenna receives radio frequency energy that is compared with the RF energy received by the PSR antenna the is used to prevent a false return for being displayed?

A

The Side Lobe Reference (SLR) antenna

171
Q

What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefing?

A

To capture lessons learned and improve system performance

172
Q

Crew rest will normally begin ____ after the debrief.

A

1.5 hrs

173
Q

Jam strobes received from the radar and IFF are displayed in color to designate frequency. Jam strobes in the 1 to 2 gigahertz (GHz) frequency range are displayed in ________.

A

Yellow

174
Q

All of the following are included in the legend displayed adjacent to the jam strobe EXCEPT:

  • Type of jamming
  • The origin of the strobe
  • Radar number
  • Jam strobe tack number
A

EXCEPTION: Type of jamming

175
Q

The LINK STATUS VFS under the PM & TEST FFS array allows an operator to view the ________.

A

Operational status, link quality and hardware of the digital data links

176
Q

Which of the following authenticators is used exclusively for practicing authentication procedures?

A

KTC- L500G

177
Q

In the multi-color mode, what is the color of the assumed friend track?

A

Light Green

178
Q

Authenticators are used to ______________.

A

Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications

179
Q

All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT:

A

EXCEPTION: Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency.

180
Q

From the following options, select the one the BEST applies to the use of authenticators.

A

MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures

181
Q

Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following?

A

AFI 33-211

182
Q

In challenge-and-reply authentication, how long does the calling station have to authenticate?

A

15 seconds

183
Q

If the minutes of the actual transmission time are an odd number, what value should be used to find the code of the transmission authentication table?

A

The actual transmission time minus one number

1C5 MQF TEST (1 decks)

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