Crash course 4 Flashcards

1
Q
A 31 year old primiparous woman has a forceps delivery and perineal trauma involving the perineal muscles and external anal sphincter muscle? What is the correct classification for the perineal trauma described?
A. Midline episiotomy
B. 1st degree perineal tear
C. 4th degree perineal tear
D. 3rd degree perineal tear
E. 2nd degree perineal tear
A

D. A 3rd degree tear involves the external anal sphincter and may also involve the internal anal sphincter. A 4th degree tear goes through to the anal mucosa.

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2
Q
Which of the following is NOT indicated in the care of a woman having a vaginal delivery after caesarean section (VBAC)?
A. Continuous fetal monitoring
B. Intravenous cannula
C. Blood sent for group and save
D. Epidural anaesthesia
E. Amniotomy
A

E. Any intervention in labour, including amniotomy, has been shown to increase the risk of scar rupture. Answers a-c are all indicated, whilst d is optional depending on the woman’s choice.

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3
Q
A 19 year old woman attends the Labour Ward at 28 weeks gestation with increasingly regular tightenings every 10 mins. On cervical assessment, there is cervical effacement and dilatation of 1 cm. Which is your 1st line of management?
A. Urin a lysis
B. Administration of steroids
C. Liaising with the paediatric team
D. To co lysis
E. Caesarean section
A

B. Although a-d are all part of the management plan, steroids should be given first since the woman already appears to be in labour.

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4
Q
In obstetric palpation, which factor is the most important for assessing progress in labour?
A. Symphysis-fundal height
B. Fetal presentation
C. Engagement
D. Fetal position
E. Liquor volume
A

C. Assessment of whether the widest diameter of the presenting part has entered the pelvic brim is essential in monitoring the progress of labour to vaginal delivery.

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5
Q
In vaginal examination, which factor is the most important for assessing progress in labour?
A. Presence of caput
B. Presence of moulding
C. Fetal position
D. Cervical dilatation
E. Station
A

E. All answers a-e are important in assessing progress in labour, but station is the most important – even at full dilatation, vaginal delivery is not possible if the presenting part does not descend past the ischial spines.

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6
Q

A 20 year old patient who is 36 weeks pregnant attends clinic with a blood pressure of 156/ 102. She has 2 + of protein in her urine. What investigations are required?
A. ECG, Chest X-ray and V/ Q scan
B. Liver function tests, full blood count, urea &
electrolytes, urine protein:creatine ratio and
clotting
C. Thyroid functions tests
D. Serum cortisol
E. Renal ultrasound

A

B. The history and examination findings suggest that this patient may have pre-eclampsia. This must be urgently investigated further with liver function tests, a platelet count, clotting studies and urine protein quantification.

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7
Q
Which of the following medications is considered as 1st line for treatment of hypertension in pregnancy in non-asthmatic patients?
A. En a la p r il
B. Nifedipine
C. Methyldopa
D. Labetalol
E. Hydralazine
A

D. Labetalol is recommended by NICE guidelines as 1st line treatment for hypertension in pregnant non-asthmatic patients.

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8
Q
Which medication should be administered as soon as possible in a patient thought to be having an eclamptic seizure?
A. Diazepam
B. Methyldopa
C. Labetalol
D. Hydralazine
E. Magnesium Sulphate
A

E. An international multicentre study (MAGPIE trial) recommended that magnesium sulphate should be used in the immediate management of an eclamptic seizure.

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a known risk factor for venous thromboembolism in pregnancy?
A. Thrombophilia (Factor V Leiden, Protein C
deficiency, antiphospholipid syndrome)
B. Age>35
C. BMI>30
D. Parity>3
E. Age

A

E. Older age, rather than younger age, is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism in pregnancy.

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10
Q

Anaemia in pregnancy should be identified and treated where necessary. What levels of haemoglobin are acceptable at booking and at 28 weeks?
A. >11.0g/dlatbookingand>10.5g/dlat
28 weeks
B. >11.0 g/dlat booking and >9.5 g/dlat 28 weeks C. >10.0g/dlatbookingand>10.5g/dlat
28 weeks
D. > 9.0 g/ dl at booking and > 11.g/ dl at 28 weeks E. >7.0 g/dlat booking and >10.5 g/dlat 28 weeks

A

A. These indices are generally agreed as appropriate normal values for these gestations.

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11
Q

What three steps have been shown to reduce the vertical transmission of HIV from mother to fetus?
A. Antibiotics, elective caesarean section and
breastfeeding
B. Hand washing, vaginal delivery and steroids
C. Avoidance of breastfeeding, anti-retroviral
medication (HAART), elective caesarean section
D. Avoidance of intercourse, avoidance of
breastfeeding and antibiotics
E. Steroids, elective caesarean section and antibiotics

A

C. These 3 factors have been proven to reduce HIV vertical transmission, although with an undetectable viral load, there is increasing evidence that vaginal delivery has a similar risk to caesarean section.

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12
Q
A 32 year old patient who has had type 1 diabetes since her teens comes to see you because she plans to stop the oral contraceptive pill. What advice is the most important?
A. Start taking folic acid 0.4 mg daily
B. Start aspirin 75 mg daily
C. Book an oral glucose tolerance test
D. Start taking folic acid 5 mg daily
E. Plan for midwifery-led care
A

D. Folic acid 5 mg is recommended from pre- conception until 12 weeks gestation in order to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects. Overall, fetal anomalies are increased in patients with diabetes.

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the antenatal care of patients with epilepsy?
A. Aim to control seizures with monotherapy
B. Take folic acid 5 mg daily from preconception until
12 weeks gestation
C. Prescribe vitamin K 10 mg daily from
preconception until 12 weeks gestation
D. Encourage breastfeeding
E. Arrange a detailed fetal ultrasound scan to exclude
cardiac defects

A

C. Vitamin K should be prescribed in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy, usually from 36 weeks gestation and should be advised for the neonate.

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14
Q
A 26 year old primiparous woman presents to the Labour Ward at 33 weeks gestation with a 2 day history of feeling increasingly unwell with nausea and vomiting. On admission, she has mildly raised blood pressure. She has blood investigations which show a raised ALT, a very high uric acid level and low blood glucose. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fulminating pre-eclampsia
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Obstetric cholestasis
D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
E. Cholelithiasis
A

B. The history and the investigations, with the very high uric acid and hypoglycaemia, are in keeping with a diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The history fits with a diagnosis of puerperal psychosis. Treatment should involve admission to a mother and baby unit and antipsychotic medication.

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15
Q
About 2 weeks postnatally, a 36 year old multiparous woman starts to worry that her partner is spying on her as she cares for her baby. She begins to think she can hear someone telling she is doing tasks incorrectly. Her partner calls the health visitor who suspects that the most likely diagnosis is:
A. Baby blues
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Postnatal depression
E. Puerperal psychosis
A

E. The history fits with a diagnosis of puerperal psychosis. Treatment should involve admission to a mother and baby unit and antipsychotic medication.

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16
Q

Treatment of PPH must start with:
A. Identifying the cause of bleeding
B. Multidisciplinary team approach
C. Basic resuscitation ABC
D. Contacting haematology and anaesthetic specialists
E. Making an accurate estimation of the blood loss

A

C. Although all the options are required to manage postpartum haemorrhage, the first, most important step is to ensure that the woman’s airway (A), breathing (B) and circulation(C) are intact and maintained. Make sure you are well acquainted the ABC of basic resuscitation - the essential first response in every emergency situation.

17
Q

The definition of secondary post partum haemorrhage (PPH) is as follows
A. > 500mls PV bleeding 24 hours after delivery, within 6 weeks
B. > 1000 mls PV bleeding post delivery
C. > 2000 mls PV bleeding post delivery
D. > 500 mls PV bleeding within 24 hours of delivery
E.

A

A. Maintain a high index of clinical suspicion for secondary PPH if a woman presents several weeks postpartum with heavy PV bleeding. Causes include retained products of conception, endometritis and molar pregnancy or choriocarcinoma.

18
Q
A 29 year old primiparous, known to have fibroids, has just delivered a baby weighing 4.1 kg, after being induced and having a long 1st stage of labour. As the placenta delivers, she suddenly feels faint and passes 700 ml of blood and clot vaginally. What is the most likely cause of the postpartum haemorrhage?
A. Genital tract trauma
B. Retained placental cotyledon
C. Cervical ectropion
D. Placenta accreta
E. Uterine atony
A

E. The history is in keeping with uterine atony with the risk factors including a fiboid uterus, prolonged labour and a large baby. This primary postpartum haemorrhage needs urgent treatment to improve
the uterine contractility.

19
Q
A 33 year old who delivered 3 days previously by normal vaginal delivery has called her community midwife as she feels increasingly unwell with lower abdominal pain and a fever. Her 7 year old son is off school with a sore throat. The most likely possible cause of sepsis in this patient is:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Mastitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Endometritis
E. Group A streptococcus
A

E. The key to diagnosis in this patient is the history of her unwell son – the patient should have a throat swab sent to exclude Group A streptococcus infection and appropriate antibiotics.

20
Q

A 19 year old girl attends A&E with abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. She gives a urine sample which reveals she is pregnant. Her last period was around 7 weeks ago. She is surprised by the news and then collapses. What is the most likely cause of her collapse?
A. Appendicitis
B. Urinary Tract infection C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Vasovagal Syncope
E. Gastroenteritis

A

C. The history, in conjunction with the positive pregnancy test, are strongly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. The patient must be resuscitated and taken to theatre urgently as this may have ruptured requiring urgent salpingectomy.

21
Q
A 34 year old solicitor who is 35 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is at her office when she begins to feel unwell, she complains of abdominal pain and then collapses. On arrival at the hospital her BP in 76/ 44 and her pulse is 132. Her uterus is ‘woody hard’. What is the most likely cause of collapse?
A. Se p sis
B. Placental Abruption
C. Uterine Rupture
D. Vasovagal Syncope
E. Acute myocardial Infarction
A

B. The history and examination indicate a likely placental abruption. The examination suggest severe internal bleeding - the patient needs resuscitation and urgent transfer to theatre for caesarean section.

22
Q

You are alone assessing a 40 year old lady who has just arrived from Uganda at 36 weeks and is feeling unwell. You palpate her abdomen and find she measures small for dates and she has a blood pressure of 182/ 122. She then appears to have a seizure and is unconscious. What is the most appropriate next line of action?
A. Start CPR
B. Put patient in recovery position and wait till she
wakes up
C. Call for help, position patient with a left lateral tilt
and protect airway until help arrives
D. Organise an ECG once she wakes up
E. Take an arterial blood gas

A

C. The patient is likely to be having an eclamptic seizure. She needs urgent stabilisation when help arrives.

23
Q
In the last CMACE report 2006-2008, what was found to be the leading cause of direct maternal death?
A. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
B. Thrombosis & thromboembolism
C. Se p sis
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
E. Ec t o p ic
A

C. The leading cause of direct maternal death in 2006-08 was sepsis, in contrast to previous reports which showed thromboembolic disease.

24
Q
In the last CMACE report 2006-2008, what was found to be the leading cause of indirect maternal death?
A. Ec t o p ic
B. Haemorrhage
C. Anaesthesia
D. Cardiac Disease
E. Murder
A

D. Cardiac disease, a combination of congenital and acquired, was the leading cause of indirect maternal death.

25
Q
Which of the following has been highlighted as a serious, rapidly fatal infection in pregnancy which all clinicians should be aware of?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
C. Proteus Mirabilis
D. Escherichia Coli
E. Varicella Zoster
A

B. The CMACEreport 2006-08 highlighted maternal deaths in the pueperium from Group A Streptococcus, and clinicians should be viligant especially with a history of illness such as a sore throat in the patient’s other children.