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Nclex Review Final > Cram sheet > Flashcards

Cram sheet Flashcards

1
Q

Norm for Sodium

A

135-145 mEq/L

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2
Q

Norm for Potassium

A

3.5-5.5 mEq/L

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3
Q

Norm for Calcium

A

8.5-10.9 mg/L

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4
Q

Norm for Chloride

A

95-105 mEq/L

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5
Q

Norm for Magnesium

A

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

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6
Q

Norm for Phosphorus

A

2.5-4.5 mg/dL

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7
Q

Norm for RBC

A

4.5-5.0 million

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8
Q

Norm for WBC

A

5,000-10,000

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9
Q

Norm for Ptt

A

200,000-400,000

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10
Q

Norm for Hgb Women

A

12-16

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11
Q

Norm for Hgb for Men

A

14-18

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12
Q

Norm for HCO3

A

24-26 mEq/L

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13
Q

Norm for CO2

A

35-45 mEq/L

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14
Q

Norm for Pa02

A

80%-100%

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15
Q

Norm for Sa02

A

95%+

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16
Q

Norm for Glucose

A

70-110 mg/dL

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17
Q

Norm for Specific Gravity

A

1.010 - 1.030

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18
Q

Norm for BUN

A

7-22 mg/dL

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19
Q

Norm for Serum Creatinine

A

0.6 - 1.35 mg/dL

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20
Q

Norm for Cholesterol

A

130-200 mg/dL

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21
Q

Therapeutic Drug level for Digoxin

A

0.5-2.0 ng/mL

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22
Q

Therapeutic Drug level for Lithium

A

0.8-1.5 mEq/L

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23
Q

Therapeutic Drug level for Dilantin

A

10-20 mcg/dL

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24
Q

Therapeutic Drug level for Theophylline

A

10-20 mcg/dL

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25
Q

Norm for Fetal heart rate

A

120-160 BPM

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26
Q

Norm for amniotic fluid

A

500-1200 ml

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27
Q

Norm for Contraction frequency and duration

A

2-5 minutes / less than 90 seconds

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28
Q

Antidote for Coumadin is

A

Vitamin K

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29
Q

Antidote for Heparin is

A

Protamine Sulfate

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30
Q

Renal diet

A

High calorie, High carbs, low protein, low potassium

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31
Q

Gout diet

A

Low purine

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32
Q

Heart diet

A

Low fat

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33
Q

Difference in diet between addison and cushings

A

ADD salt, no salt

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34
Q

What are the 5 p’s for fractures and compartment fracture

A 
Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia 
Polar (Cold)
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35
Q

Drugs that end in Pril such as Benazepril, Lisinopril are what types or drugs

A

Angiotensin-converting agents

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36
Q

Drugs that end in olol such as Atenolol, metoprolol are what types of drugs

A

Beta adrenergic blockers

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37
Q

Drugs that end in “mycin” such as Gentamicin, Neomycin are what types of drugs

A

Anti-infective drugs

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38
Q

Drugs that end in pam such as Diazepam, Lorazepam are what types of drugs

A

Benzodiazepine drugs

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39
Q

drugs that end in razine such as Promethazine, Chlorpromazine are what types of drugs

A

Phenothiazine drugs

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40
Q

Drugs that end in “one” such as Prednisone, Hydrocortisone are what types of drugs

A

Glucocorticoid drugs

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41
Q

Drugs that end in “vir” such as Acyclovir, abacavir, are what types of drugs

A

Antivirals

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42
Q

Drugs that end in statin such as lovastatin, Atorcastatin are what type of drugs

A

Cholesterol-lowering drugs

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43
Q

Drugs that end in sartan such as Valsartan and losartan are what types of drugs

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker drugs

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44
Q

Drugs that end in tidine such as Famotidine and Cimetidine are what types of drugs

A

Histamine 2 antagonist drugs

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45
Q

Drugs that end in prazole such as Pantaprazole and Esomeprazole are what types of drugs

A

Proton pump inhibitors

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46
Q

Angiotensin-converting agents are used for

A

reducing blood pressure increases heart rate

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47
Q

Beta adrenergic blockers are used for

A

treat angina, control abnormal heart rhythms, reduce b/p

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48
Q

Benzodiazepine drugs are used for

A

central nervous system depressants. They inhibit spread of discharge that causes seizures in epileptics, can be used as a sedative

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49
Q

Phenothiazine drugs are used for

A

can be used as an antipsychotic, or anti-emetic

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50
Q

Glucocorticoid drugs are used for

A

ant-inflammatory

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51
Q

Angiotensin receptor blocker drugs are used for

A

treat hypertension

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52
Q

Histamine 2 antagonist drugs are used for

A

Used to treat GERD

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53
Q

Proton pump inhibitors are used for

A

inhibits gastric acid secretion and has a long duration of action. They are used for treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease and other excessive gastrointestinal acid secretory disorders.

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54
Q

Patients with hyperparathyroidism has increased

A

serum calcium levels

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55
Q

Carbon monoxide levels greater than 15% consist of

A

just considered carbon monoxide toxicity

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56
Q

Carbon monoxide levels between 20% and 30% consist of

A

Headaches, nausea, vomiting, confusion

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57
Q

Carbon monoxide levels 31% - 40% consist of

A

Dizziness, tachycardia, vision problems, hypotension

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58
Q

Carbon monoxide levels 41%-50% consist of

A

loss of consciousness

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59
Q

Carbon monoxide levels greater than 50% consist of

A

Seizures, coma, death

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60
Q

Does insulin decrease or increase with pregnancy, growth, medications

A

increase

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61
Q

Stress, illness, and infection increase or decrease insulin needs

A

increase

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62
Q

White brown, dry, leathery, painless is what kind of burn

A

Full thickness 3rd degree

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63
Q

Red dry painful is what kind of burn

A

Superficial 1st degree

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64
Q

Red clear blisters moist painful blanches is what kind of burn

A

superficial partial thickness 2nd degree

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65
Q

red and white, bloody blisters, moist, less blanching is what kind of burn

A

Deep partial thickness 3rd degree

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66
Q

black eschar dry painless no blanching is what kind of burn

A

4th degree

67
Q

Neutrophils account for how much of white blood cells

A

55-70% then lymphocytes

68
Q

Right sided CVA consists off

A

impulsive and lack judgement

69
Q

Left sided CVA consists off

A

impaired speech and language

70
Q

Miotics drugs are used for

A

constrict the pupil

71
Q

Mydriatics are used for

A

dilate the pupil

72
Q

A normal PKU is

A

less than 2 mg/dl

73
Q

an elevated creatinine is indicative of

A

kidney malfunction

74
Q

A patient with a really high blood glucose level is at risk for

A

metabolic acidosis/ diabetic ketoacidosis

75
Q

Homans sign is indicative of

A

Deep vein thrombosis

76
Q

hip fractures meant that the leg will be

A

adducted, externally rotated, shorter

77
Q

When mixing NPH and regular insulin which should you draw up first

78
Q

What gauge needle is appropriate for subQ injections

79
Q

Avg weight gained during pregnancy

80
Q

Antidote for Magnesium sulfate

A

Calcium gluconate

81
Q

involuntary muscle movements and rolling of tongue is considered to be

A

tardive dyskinesia

82
Q

What the most effective way to monitor tx for celiac disease

A

monitor stools

83
Q

What is impetigo

A

vacular lesions that ooze and form crust on face and extrimites

84
Q

Car seats should be used until

A

4yo or 40lbs

85
Q

chlamydia is best treated with

86
Q

false labor contractions are felt in ____ and are relieved by

A

abdomen, walking

87
Q

adverse effect of phototherapy

A

watery stools

88
Q

soft relaxed non tender uterus can be

A

placenta previa

89
Q

Give rhogam within 72 hours if

A

negative mom with pos baby

90
Q

Ace inhibitors do what

A

stop K secretion

91
Q

Side effects of prednisone include

A

wt gain hypertension and insomnia

92
Q

NSAIDS should be

A

given with food

93
Q

Positive PPD is described as

A

induration and swelling 5-15mm

94
Q

What are the 6 rights

A 
Client
Medication
Dose
Time
Route
Documentation
95
Q

How do you check cyanosis on african americans

A

mucous membranes

96
Q

how is bucks tractions applied

A

attached to skin / soft tissues

97
Q

what is the valsava manavuer

A

exhale slowly bear down

98
Q

what to give for ventricular fibrillation

A

epinephrine

99
Q

after vaccination patient should wait how many days before becoming pregnant

100
Q

Psoriasis grows if exposed to

A

hormones, infection, sunlight

101
Q

what bacteria causes cellulitis

A

strepococus pyogenes

102
Q

What type of breathing is seen in asthma

103
Q

Vitamin K helps

A

blood coagulation

104
Q

We must not give Lorazepam more than

A

2mg per min

105
Q

ringing in the ears is called

106
Q

anti-psycotic meds commonly cause

A

tardive dyskinesia

107
Q

cystic fibrosis can cause

A

obstruction in exocrine glands

108
Q

2 signs of urethritis

A

dysuria, penile discharge

109
Q

for a patient wearing a face mask what is important to do

A

hob elevated

110
Q

Simvastin what is a side effect

111
Q

If pain continues even after pain meds, what does it mean

A

arterial compromise, vascular compromise

112
Q

If patient has air embolus from non primed syringed what should you do

A

place of left side trendelenburg

113
Q

chest to head ratio in term infant

A

chest should be 2 inches less

114
Q

4 things to base hydration on

A

capilarry refill time, dry tongue, heart rate, LOC

115
Q

Test used to confirm mononucleosis

A

Epsteein barr virus

116
Q

Heparin for insulin is also

A

anti-coagulant

117
Q

decerabate is

A

plantar flexion of feet, hyperpronation of forearm, 4 extermeties rigid

118
Q

Amniocar is a

A

anti arythmic

119
Q

Celecoxib is used for

A

Analgesics; Opioid Analgesics

Management of acute, chronic arthritis pain and primary dysmenorrheal pain relief within 60 minutes

120
Q

Meperidine (Demerol)

A

Analgesics; Opioid Analgesics

Management of moderate to severe pain, pre-op sedation and OB analgesia

121
Q

Cetirizine HCL (Zyrtec)

A

Allergy and Asthma Medications
Antihistamines

Relief of seasonal allergic rhinitis symptoms, Relief of perennial allergic rhinitis caused by molds, animal dander and other allergens

122
Q

Fexofenadine (Allegra)

A

Allergy and Asthma Medications
Antihistamines

Management of rhinitis, allergy symptoms, chronic idiopathic uticaria

123
Q

Hydroxyzine (Anx, Atarax, Vistril)

A

Allergy and Asthma Medications
Antihistamines

Treatment of pruritus, pre-op anxiety, post-op nausea and vomiting, to potentiate opiod analgesics and sedation.

124
Q

Coumadin and Finasteride cant be used for

A

Pregnant women

125
Q

Sulfasalazine main side effect is

A

urine turns orange yellow

126
Q

Levodopa main side effect is

A

urine turns red brown black

127
Q

Humulin (injection), Urokinase, and Epogen (Injection) must be

A

stored in frig

128
Q

Lugol’s Solution is

A

Used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.

Treatment of a simple non-toxic goiter.

129
Q

phenazopyridine (Pyridium), is used for

A

Relieves discomfort caused by urinary tract infection.

Urine turns orange.

130
Q

Hypertonic solution _____ fluid out cells as hypotonic solution ______ fluid out of cells

A

pulls, hypo-puts

131
Q

Where can we get folic acid in food

A

green vegetables and liver

132
Q

Higher fluid volume lower the

A

hematocrit

133
Q

When using kayexelate we should monitor

A

calcium and magnesium

134
Q

lower the ph the more ______

135
Q

Kussmauls respirations are

A

abnormally deep, regular, increased rate

136
Q

Only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb of an autoimmune diseased woman

137
Q

Normal billirubin

A

less than 1 mg/dL

138
Q

A side effect of ampicillin (for UTI)

A

rash and prutitis

139
Q

Kidney problems, where to feel

A

Costovertebral angle

140
Q

For a patient in need of suctioning what will you see

A

high peak inspiratory pressure

141
Q

Heparin can cause what kind of stool

A

tarry stools

142
Q

Nitroglycerin should be given how

A

from a glass bottle, excel or pab container

143
Q

why do we hyperventilate and hyperoxegenate before suctioning

A

to prevent cardiac arryhtmias

144
Q

What is the most common side effect of nitroglycerin and what should we give for it

A

headache, tylenol

145
Q

People with asthma should not take

146
Q

To decrease ICP what is the quickest thing to do

A

hyperventilate patient

147
Q

Propylthiourcail is used to treat _____ and its most common side effect is

A

hyperthyroidism, agranulocytosis

148
Q

Overdose of metformin will cause

A

renal failure

149
Q

Patients with hyperparathyroidism should

A

force fluids, hyperparathyroidsim cause hypercalcemia

150
Q

fosphenytoin can cause

151
Q

What test should be used to check for gi bleed FIRST

A

hemoglobin and hematocrit

152
Q

Patients with cushings disease should (diet)

A

foods high in potassium, calcium

153
Q

regular insulin should be given how much time before meals

154
Q

Meds should be given before or after dialysis

A

right after

155
Q

cancer in prostate gland usually mestattizes to the

156
Q

Fracture when bone is exposed to air is

A

Compound fracture

157
Q

fracture when bone touches another bone

A

impacted fracture

158
Q

fracture when bone is completely seperated

A

complete fracture

159
Q

What assessment finding is common in Chronic Renal Failure

160
Q

Norm for aPTT

A

30-40 seconds

161
Q

Via nasal cannula you shouldnt exceed

162
Q

Going down a staircase with crutches what should go first

A

both crutches

163
Q

What is a common side effect of oral contraceptives

A

hypertension

164
Q

An excessive fluid intake with a patient with cardiac disease may cause

A

heart failure

Nclex Review Final (2 decks)

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