Cram sheet Flashcards

1
Q

What is the origin of the term psychology?

A

Derived from physiology and philosophy

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2
Q

What does structuralism focus on?

A

Determining the underlying structures of the mind through introspection

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3
Q

What is the main focus of functionalism?

A

Analyzing the purpose of behavior

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4
Q

What key concept is associated with evolutionary psychology?

A

Genes

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5
Q

What are the main ideas of humanistic psychology?

A

Free will, choice, ideal, actualization

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6
Q

What does biological psychology emphasize?

A

Brain and neurotransmitters

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7
Q

What is the focus of cognitive psychology?

A

Perceptions and thoughts

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8
Q

What does behavioral psychology study?

A

Learned behaviors and reinforcement

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9
Q

What is the emphasis of psychoanalytic/dynamic psychology?

A

Unconscious processes and childhood experiences

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10
Q

What does sociocultural psychology examine?

A

The influence of society on behavior

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11
Q

What does biopsychosocial psychology combine?

A

Elements of biological, psychological, and social factors

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12
Q

Who was the first female president of the APA?

A

Mary Calkins

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13
Q

What is Charles Darwin known for in psychology?

A

Natural selection and evolution

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14
Q

What did Dorothea Dix reform?

A

Mental institutions in the U.S.

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15
Q

Who is considered the father of American psychology?

A

William James

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16
Q

Who is known as the father of modern psychology?

A

Wilhelm Wundt

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17
Q

What is the role of the independent variable in an experiment?

A

Manipulated by the researcher

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the control group in an experiment?

A

Serves as a baseline for comparison

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19
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

Behavioral changes due to the belief of receiving treatment

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20
Q

What is a double-blind experiment?

A

Neither participants nor experimenters know the conditions

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21
Q

What is the dependent variable in research?

A

The variable that is measured and depends on the independent variable

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22
Q

Define operational definition.

A

A clear, precise, quantifiable definition of variables

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23
Q

What is a confound in research?

A

An error or flaw in the study

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24
Q

What does random assignment do?

A

Assigns participants randomly to groups to minimize bias

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25
What is validity in research?
The accuracy of results
26
What is reliability in research?
The consistency of results over time
27
What is an advantage of naturalistic observation?
Real-world validity
28
What is the main disadvantage of correlation studies?
No cause and effect can be established
29
What does a positive correlation indicate?
Variables vary in the same direction
30
What does a negative correlation indicate?
Variables vary in opposite directions
31
What is a case study?
An in-depth study of one individual
32
What are measures of central tendency?
Mean, median, mode
33
What is the difference between mean, median, and mode?
* Mean: Average * Median: Middle number * Mode: Most frequently occurring
34
What does inferential statistics establish?
Significance of results
35
What is the first ethical guideline in APA ethics?
Confidentiality
36
What is the basic cell of the nervous system?
Neuron
37
What do dendrites do?
Receive incoming signals
38
What is the function of the myelin sheath?
Speeds up signal transmission down the axon
39
What is action potential?
Movement of ions that sends an electrical charge down the axon
40
What is the refractory period?
Time when a neuron cannot fire again until it resets
41
What are sensory neurons?
Neurons that receive signals from the environment
42
What is the central nervous system composed of?
Brain and spinal cord
43
What does the autonomic nervous system control?
Involuntary functions like heart rate and breathing
44
What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?
Arouses the body for fight or flight
45
What neurotransmitter is considered major inhibitory?
GABA
46
What neurotransmitter is associated with reward and movement?
Dopamine
47
What is the function of serotonin?
Regulates moods and emotions
48
What does the limbic system control?
Emotions and memory
49
What is the role of the thalamus?
Relay center for sensory information
50
What does the hypothalamus regulate?
Reward/pleasure center and eating behaviors
51
What is the corpus callosum?
Bundle of nerves connecting the two brain hemispheres
52
What is brain plasticity?
The brain's ability to heal and adapt
53
What do twin studies help to understand?
Nature vs. nurture influences on behavior
54
What is the role of the pituitary gland?
Releases growth hormones and is controlled by the hypothalamus
55
What is the absolute threshold?
Detection of a signal 50% of the time
56
What is the difference threshold?
Minimum difference needed to detect a change
57
What is sensory adaptation?
Diminished sensitivity due to constant stimulation
58
What is the cocktail party effect?
Noticing your name being mentioned even when not paying attention
59
What is the pathway of vision?
Light → cornea → pupil/iris → lens → retina → rods/cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
60
What are rods and cones responsible for?
* Rods: Black/white, dim light * Cones: Color, bright light
61
What is the trichromatic theory of color vision?
Three cones for receiving color (blue, red, green)
62
What does the opponent process theory explain?
Processing of complementary colors
63
What is the phi phenomenon?
Adjacent lights blinking on/off appear to create movement
64
What are monocular cues?
* Interposition * Relative Size * Relative Clarity * Texture Gradient * Relative Height * Linear Perspective
65
What are binocular cues for depth perception?
* Retinal Disparity * Convergence
66
What is top-down processing?
Processing from whole to smaller parts
67
What is bottom-up processing?
Processing from smaller parts to whole
68
What is the pathway of sound?
Sound → pinna → auditory canal → eardrum → ossicles → oval window → cochlea → auditory nerve → temporal lobes
69
What is place theory in hearing?
Location where hair cells bend determines sound for high pitches
70
What is frequency theory in hearing?
Rate of action potentials sent determines sound for low pitches
71
What are the five taste receptors?
* Bitter * Salty * Sweet * Sour * Umami
72
What is the gestalt principle of figure/ground?
Organizing information into figures that stand apart from the background
73
What is metacognition?
Thinking about thinking
74
What are the stages of sleep characterized by?
Different brain wave patterns: Beta, Alpha, Delta
75
What is the circadian rhythm?
24-hour biological clock controlling body temperature and awareness
76
What is insomnia?
Inability to fall asleep
77
What is narcolepsy?
Sudden sleep attacks
78
What is Freud's theory of dream content?
* Latent Content: Hidden meaning * Manifest Content: Obvious storyline
79
What is hypnosis capable of?
Reducing pain and helping relaxation
80
What are depressants?
Substances that decrease sympathetic NS activation
81
What are stimulants?
Substances that increase sympathetic NS activation
82
What are hallucinogens?
Substances that cause hallucinations
83
What is the effect of psychoactive drugs on dopamine?
Triggers dopamine release in the brain
84
Name three types of depressants.
* Alcohol * Barbiturates * Tranquilizers
85
What is the primary effect of stimulants?
Increase sympathetic NS activation
86
What are hallucinogens?
* LSD * Marijuana
87
Define tolerance in the context of drug use.
Needing more of a drug to achieve the same effects
88
What is dependence?
Become addicted to the drug – must have it to avoid withdrawal symptoms
89
What are withdrawal symptoms?
Psychological and physiological symptoms associated with sudden stoppage
90
Who is associated with classical conditioning?
Pavlov
91
Define Unconditioned Stimulus (US).
Brings about response w/o needing to be learned (food)
92
What is an Unconditioned Response (UR)?
Response that naturally occurs w/o training (salivate)
93
What is a Neutral Stimulus (NS)?
Stimulus that normally doesn’t evoke a response (bell)
94
Define Conditioned Stimulus (CS).
Once neutral stimulus that now brings about a response (bell)
95
What is a Conditioned Response (CR)?
Response that, after conditioning, follows a CS (salivate)
96
Explain contiguity in classical conditioning.
Timing of the pairing, NS/CS must be presented immediately BEFORE the US
97
What is acquisition in classical conditioning?
Process of learning the response pairing
98
Define extinction in classical conditioning.
Previously conditioned response dies out over time
99
What is spontaneous recovery?
After a period of time, the CR comes back out of nowhere
100
What is generalization in classical conditioning?
CR to like stimuli (similar sounding bell)
101
Define discrimination in classical conditioning.
CR to ONLY the CS
102
What does the Contingency Model by Rescorla & Wagner state?
Classical conditioning involves cognitive processes
103
What is Conditioned Taste Aversion?
Innate predispositions can allow classical conditioning to occur in one trial (food poisoning)
104
Who conducted the Little Albert experiment?
John Watson
105
What is the Law of Effect (Thorndike)?
Behaviors followed by pos. outcomes are strengthened, neg. outcomes weaken a behavior
106
Define positive reinforcement.
Add something nice to increase a behavior
107
What is negative reinforcement?
Take away something bad/annoying to increase a behavior
108
Define positive punishment.
Add something bad to decrease a behavior
109
What does negative punishment entail?
Take away something good to decrease a behavior
110
What are primary reinforcers?
Innately satisfying (food and water)
111
Define secondary reinforcers.
Everything else (stickers, high-fives)
112
What is a token reinforcer?
Type of secondary that can be exchanged for other stuff
113
What is generalization in operant conditioning?
Respond to similar stimulus for reward
114
Define discrimination in operant conditioning.
Stimulus signals when behavior will or will not be reinforced
115
What is the Premack Principle?
High probability activities reinforce low probability activities
116
What is the overjustification effect?
Reinforcing intrinsically motivating behaviors causes you to stop doing them
117
Define shaping in operant conditioning.
Use successive approximations to train behavior
118
What does chaining refer to in operant conditioning?
Tie together several behaviors
119
What is a continuous reinforcement schedule?
Receive reward for every response
120
Define fixed ratio schedule.
Reward every X number of responses
121
What is a fixed interval schedule?
Reward every X amount of time passed
122
Define variable ratio schedule.
Rewarded after a random number of responses
123
What is a variable interval schedule?
Rewarded after a random amount of time has passed
124
Which reinforcement schedules are most resistant to extinction?
Variable schedules
125
Who is associated with social (observational) learning?
Bandura
126
What is latent learning?
Learning is hidden until useful
127
Define cognitive maps.
Mental representation of an area
128
What is insight learning?
Learning through simple intuition
129
What is learned helplessness?
Giving up due to lack of positive outcomes
130
What is automatic encoding?
Requires no effort
131
Define effortful encoding.
Requires attention
132
What are the three levels of processing?
* Shallow * Intermediate * Deep
133
What is imagery in memory?
Attaching images to information
134
Define self-referent encoding.
We better remember what we’re interested in
135
What does dual encoding refer to?
Combining different types of encoding aids in memory
136
What is chunking?
Break info into smaller units to aid in memory
137
Define mnemonics.
Shortcuts to help us remember info easier
138
What is context dependent memory?
Where you learn the info you best remember the info
139
Define state dependent memory.
The physical state during learning should match testing
140
What is the Information Processing Model?
Sensory memory, short term memory, long term memory model
141
What is sensory memory?
Stores all incoming stimuli that you receive
142
What is iconic memory?
Visual memory, lasts 0.3 seconds
143
Define echoic memory.
Auditory memory, lasts 2-3 seconds
144
What is short term memory (STM)?
Info passes from sensory memory to STM – lasts 30 secs
145
What is the working memory model?
Splits STM into visual spatial memory and phonological loop
146
Define long term memory.
Lasts a lifetime
147
What are the two types of explicit memory?
* Episodic * Semantic
148
What are the two types of implicit memory?
* Classical conditioning * Procedural
149
What is long-term potentiation?
Neural basis of memory – connections are strengthened over time
150
What is the Serial Position Effect?
Tendency to remember the beginning and the end of a list best
151
Define recall.
Remember what you’ve been told w/o cues
152
What is recognition?
Remember what you’ve been told w/ cues
153
What are flashbulb memories?
Particularly vivid memories for highly important events
154
What are repressed memories?
Unconsciously buried memories – are unreliable
155
What is encoding failure?
Forget info b/c you never encoded it in the first place
156
Define encoding specificity principle.
The more closely retrieval cues match the way we learned the info, the better we remember
157
What is the forgetting curve?
Recall decreases rapidly at first, then reaches a plateau
158
What is proactive interference?
Old info blocks new
159
Define retroactive interference.
New info blocks old
160
What is the misinformation effect?
Distortion of memory by suggestion or misinformation
161
What is anterograde amnesia?
Forgetting new info
162
Define retrograde amnesia.
Forgetting old info
163
What causes Alzheimer’s disease?
Destruction of acetylcholine in hippocampus
164
What are phonemes?
Smallest unit of sound
165
Define morpheme.
Smallest unit that carries meaning
166
What is grammar?
Rules in a language that enable us to communicate
167
What is semantics?
Set of rules by which we derive meaning
168
Define syntax.
Rules for combining words into sentences
169
What is the babbling stage?
Infants babble 1st stage of speech
170
What is the one-word stage?
Infants use single words to communicate
171
Define two-word stage.
Infants use two words to communicate
172
What is imitation in language development?
Kids repeat what they hear
173
What is overregularization?
Grammar mistake where children overuse certain morphemes
174
Who proposed the theory of inborn universal grammar?
Noam Chomsky
175
What is the critical period in language development?
Time where something must be learned or else it cannot happen
176
What is linguistic determinism?
Language influences the way we think
177
Define concepts in thinking.
Mental categories used to group objects, events, characteristics
178
What are prototypes?
Ideal examples of a concept
179
Define algorithms.
Step by step strategies that guarantee a solution
180
What are heuristics?
Short cut strategy
181
What is functional fixedness?
Inability to think outside of the box
182
What is belief bias?
Preexisting beliefs distort logical reasoning
183
Define belief perseverance.
Clinging to beliefs in the face of contrary evidence
184
What is inductive reasoning?
Data driven decisions, general → specific
185
Define deductive reasoning.
Driven by logic, specific → general
186
What is divergent thinking?
Ability to think about many different things at once
187
What does the instinct theory of motivation state?
Complex behaviors have fixed patterns and are not learned
188
Define drive reduction theory.
Physiological need creates aroused tension that motivates you to satisfy the need
189
What is optimum arousal theory?
Humans aim to seek optimum levels of arousal
190
Who proposed the hierarchy of needs?
Maslow
191
What is intrinsic motivation?
Inner motivation – you do it because you like it
192
Define extrinsic motivation.
Motivation to obtain a reward
193
What signals hunger?
* Stomach contractions * Glucose levels * Orexin release
194
What is the function of the lateral hypothalamus?
When stimulated makes you hungry
195
What does the ventromedial hypothalamus do?
When stimulated makes you feel full
196
What is leptin?
Signals the brain to reduce appetite
197
What are the risks associated with obesity?
* Heart attack * Hypertension * Diabetes
198
Define anorexia.
Weight loss of at least 15% ideal weight, distorted body image
199
What is bulimia?
Binge-purge eating pattern
200
What stimulates sexual behavior?
Hypothalamus
201
What role does the pituitary gland play in sexuality?
Monitors, initiates, and restricts hormones
202
What are the phases of the sexual response pattern?
* Excitement phase * Plateau * Orgasm * Refractory period
203
Who was Alfred Kinsey?
First researcher to conduct studies in sex
204
What are some biological roots of homosexuality?
* Differences in the brain * Identical twins more likely to both be gay
205
What does the James-Lange theory of emotion state?
Stimulus → physiological arousal → emotion
206
Define Cannon-Bard theory.
Stimulus → physiological arousal & emotion simultaneously
207
What is the Schachter Two-Factor theory?
Stimulus → arousal → interpret external cues → label emotion
208
What are the six universal emotions?
* Happiness * Anger * Sadness * Surprise * Disgust * Fear
209
What is the facial feedback hypothesis?
Facial expressions influence emotion
210
What are the three phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
* Alarm * Resistance * Exhaustion
211
What are non-verbal cues?
Gestures, Duchenne smile (real vs. fake smile) ## Footnote Non-verbal cues are significant in communication and can convey emotions without words.
212
What is the Facial Feedback Hypothesis?
Being forced to smile will make you happier; facial expressions influence emotion ## Footnote This hypothesis suggests that facial movements can affect emotional experiences.
213
What are the three phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
* Alarm: body reacts to stress * Resistance: body copes with stress * Exhaustion: body can no longer cope ## Footnote GAS was developed by Hans Selye to describe the physiological response to stress.
214
What characterizes a Type A Personality?
Rigid, stressful, perfectionist; at risk for heart disease ## Footnote Type A individuals often exhibit high levels of competitiveness and urgency.
215
What characterizes a Type B Personality?
Laid back, non-stressed ## Footnote Type B individuals are generally more relaxed and less driven by stress.
216
What does Industrial/Organizational Psychology focus on?
Employee recruitment, placement, training, satisfaction, productivity ## Footnote This field applies psychological principles to workplace environments.
217
What is Ergonomics/Human Factors?
Intersection of engineering and psychology; focuses on safety and efficiency of human-machine interactions ## Footnote Ergonomics aims to optimize the interaction between people and systems.
218
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
Productivity increases when workers feel important ## Footnote This effect highlights the impact of social factors on worker performance.
219
What is Theory X management?
Manager controls employees, enforces rules; suitable for lower-level jobs ## Footnote Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy and require supervision.
220
What is Theory Y management?
Manager gives employees responsibility, seeks input; suitable for high-level jobs ## Footnote Theory Y assumes that employees are motivated and seek responsibility.
221
What are the three types of Employee Commitment?
* Affective: emotional attachment * Continuance: stay due to costs of leaving * Normative: stay due to obligation ## Footnote Affective commitment is considered the most beneficial for organizations.
222
What are the three stages of Prenatal Development?
* Zygote: 0-14 days, cells dividing * Embryo: until about 9 weeks, vital organs forming * Fetus: 9 weeks to birth, overall development ## Footnote Each stage plays a critical role in the development of a human being.
223
What are Teratogens?
External agents that can cause abnormal prenatal development (e.g., alcohol, drugs) ## Footnote Exposure to teratogens can lead to serious developmental issues.
224
What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
Caused by large amounts of alcohol during pregnancy; leads to deformities, mental retardation, death ## Footnote FAS is a severe consequence of prenatal alcohol exposure.
225
What is Maturation in physical development?
Natural course of development that occurs regardless of external factors (e.g., walking) ## Footnote Maturation is a biological process that unfolds with time.
226
What are some innate Reflexes in infants?
* Rooting * Sucking * Swallowing * Grasping * Stepping ## Footnote Reflexes are automatic responses that are present at birth.
227
What is Habituation?
Decreased attention to a stimulus after repeated exposure ## Footnote This phenomenon is used to study infants' learning processes.
228
What is Jean Piaget's concept of Schemas?
Concepts or frameworks that organize information ## Footnote Schemas help individuals understand and interpret the world.
229
What is Assimilation in cognitive development?
Incorporating new information into existing schemas ## Footnote This process helps maintain cognitive stability.
230
What is Accommodation in cognitive development?
Adjusting existing schemas to incorporate new information ## Footnote Accommodation is essential for cognitive growth.
231
What characterizes the Sensorimotor Stage of development?
Birth to 2 years; focused on exploring the world; lack object permanence ## Footnote Children in this stage learn about their environment through sensory experiences.
232
What characterizes the Pre-operational Stage of development?
Ages 2-7; use pretend play, developing language; lack conservation and reversibility ## Footnote This stage involves significant growth in symbolic thought.
233
What characterizes the Concrete Operational Stage of development?
Ages 7-11; use operational thinking, classification, logical thinking in concrete contexts ## Footnote Children can perform operations on concrete objects but struggle with abstract concepts.
234
What characterizes the Formal Operational Stage of development?
Ages 11-15; use abstract and idealist thoughts, hypothetical-deductive reasoning ## Footnote This stage marks the development of advanced cognitive abilities.
235
What is Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development?
The gap between what a child can do independently and with support ## Footnote Scaffolding is necessary to bridge this gap.
236
What is Temperament in socioemotional development?
Patterns of emotional reactions in infants; precursor to personality ## Footnote Temperament influences how children interact with the world.
237
What is Imprinting?
When baby geese recognize the first thing they see after hatching as their mom; occurs during a critical period ## Footnote This phenomenon demonstrates the importance of early experiences.
238
What did Harry Harlow discover about attachment?
Contact comfort is more important than feeding; isolation affects socialization ## Footnote Harlow's studies with monkeys highlighted the importance of emotional bonds.
239
What are the four attachment styles identified by Mary Ainsworth?
* Secure attachment * Avoidant attachment * Ambivalent attachment * Disorganized attachment ## Footnote These styles reflect how infants relate to their caregivers.
240
What are the three parenting styles identified by Baumrind?
* Authoritarian: strict rules * Permissive: few rules * Authoritative: balanced approach ## Footnote Parenting styles significantly influence children's development.
241
What are the three levels of Kohlberg's moral development?
* Preconventional morality: avoid punishment * Conventional morality: maintain order * Postconventional morality: follow personal ethics ## Footnote These levels illustrate the progression of moral reasoning.
242
What is Erikson's stage of Trust vs. Mistrust?
Birth to 18 months; if needs are dependably met, infants develop basic trust ## Footnote This stage sets the foundation for future relationships.
243
What are Primary Sex Characteristics?
Necessary structures for reproduction (ovaries, testicles, vagina, penis) ## Footnote These characteristics develop during puberty.
244
What are Secondary Sex Characteristics?
Non-reproductive characteristics that develop during puberty (breasts, hips, body hair) ## Footnote These traits distinguish male and female bodies but are not directly involved in reproduction.
245
What is the Cellular Clock Theory?
Cells have a maximum number of divisions before they can no longer divide ## Footnote This theory explains aging at the cellular level.
246
What characterizes a Cross-Sectional Study?
Studies people of different ages at the same time; quick and inexpensive ## Footnote This method can highlight generational differences.
247
What characterizes a Longitudinal Study?
Studies the same people over time; detailed but expensive and time-consuming ## Footnote This design allows researchers to observe changes over time.
248
What are the stages of grief according to the Kübler-Ross model?
* Denial * Anger * Bargaining * Depression * Acceptance ## Footnote These stages represent common emotional responses to loss.
249
What is Problem-Focused Coping?
Solving or doing something to alter the course of stress (planning, acceptance) ## Footnote This approach addresses the source of stress directly.
250
What is Emotion-Focused Coping?
Reducing emotional distress (denial, disengagement) ## Footnote This method focuses on managing feelings rather than the stressor itself.
251
What are Sigmund Freud's three levels of consciousness?
* Conscious: immediate awareness * Preconscious: available to awareness * Unconscious: unavailable to awareness ## Footnote Freud's model of the mind illustrates different levels of awareness.
252
What is the Id according to Freud?
Our hidden true animalistic wants and desires; operates on the pleasure principle ## Footnote The Id is entirely unconscious and seeks instant gratification.
253
What is the Superego according to Freud?
Our moral conscience; represents societal rules and ideals ## Footnote The Superego develops through interactions with caregivers and society.
254
What is the Ego according to Freud?
Operates on the reality principle; mediates between the Id and Superego ## Footnote The Ego is responsible for rational thought and decision-making.
255
What is Repression in defense mechanisms?
Pushing memories into the unconscious mind ## Footnote This mechanism helps individuals cope with traumatic experiences.
256
What is Projection in defense mechanisms?
Attributing personal shortcomings and faults to others ## Footnote This mechanism often deflects responsibility from oneself.
257
What is Denial in defense mechanisms?
Refusing to acknowledge reality ## Footnote Denial can be a coping strategy for dealing with distressing information.
258
What is Displacement in defense mechanisms?
Shifting feelings from an unacceptable object to a more acceptable one ## Footnote This can occur when a person cannot express emotions towards the original source.
259
What is Reaction Formation in defense mechanisms?
Transforming unacceptable motives into their opposite ## Footnote This mechanism can lead to behaviors that are contrary to one's true feelings.
260
What is Regression in defense mechanisms?
Returning to an earlier developmental period in response to stress ## Footnote This can manifest in childlike behaviors during stressful times.
261
What is Rationalization in defense mechanisms?
Replacing a less acceptable reasoning with a more acceptable one ## Footnote This helps individuals justify their actions or feelings.
262
What is Sublimation in defense mechanisms?
Replacing unacceptable impulses with socially acceptable ones ## Footnote This can lead to positive outcomes, such as artistic expression.
263
What are Freud's Psychosexual Stages?
* Oral stage (0-18 months) * Anal stage (18-36 months) * Phallic stage (3-6 years) * Latency stage (6 years to puberty) * Genital stage (adulthood) ## Footnote These stages influence personality development and can lead to fixations.
264
What is the Oedipal Complex?
Young boys identify with their fathers out of fear of retribution (castration anxiety) ## Footnote This complex is part of Freud's phallic stage of development.
265
What is the Electra Complex?
Young girls identify with their mothers due to penis envy ## Footnote This complex reflects the girl's feelings of competition with the mother.
266
What is Fixation in Freud's theory?
Becoming 'stuck' in an earlier psychosexual stage, influencing personality ## Footnote Fixations can result in certain behaviors associated with that stage.
267
What is the focus of Neo-Freudians like Carl Jung?
Collective unconscious; shared inherited memories across civilizations ## Footnote Jung's theory explains common myths and archetypes in different cultures.
268
What is the focus of Karen Horney's theory?
Personality develops in the context of social relationships, not sexual urges ## Footnote Horney emphasized security and interpersonal relationships as motivators.
269
What are traits in the Trait Perspective?
Enduring personality characteristics that describe individuals ## Footnote Traits are stable and can predict behavior in various situations.
270
What is the Big Five personality traits model?
* Openness * Conscientiousness * Extraversion * Agreeableness * Neuroticism ## Footnote This model provides a comprehensive framework for understanding personality.
271
What is a limitation of Trait Theory?
Ignores the role of the situation in behavior ## Footnote Situational factors can significantly influence how traits are expressed.
272
What is the MMPI used for?
Helpful for mental health assessment and job placement ## Footnote The MMPI is a widely used psychological test assessing personality traits.
273
What is the Humanistic Perspective focused on?
Personal growth and free will ## Footnote This approach emphasizes the individual's capacity for change.
274
What did Carl Rogers emphasize in his theory?
Self-concept; the idea of who we are ## Footnote Rogers distinguished between the actual self and ideal self.
275
What are Individualistic Cultures?
Cultures that prioritize individual goals over group goals ## Footnote In these cultures, identity is defined in terms of personal attributes.
276
What are Collectivistic Cultures?
Cultures that prioritize group goals over individual goals ## Footnote Identity in these cultures is often tied to group membership.
277
What is Reciprocal Determinism?
Interaction of behavior, cognition, and environment that shapes personality ## Footnote This concept was introduced by Albert Bandura to explain personality development.
278
What is Self-efficacy?
Belief in one's ability to succeed ## Footnote High self-efficacy can lead to greater motivation and resilience.
279
What is an Internal Locus of Control?
Belief that one controls their own fate ## Footnote Individuals with this mindset are more likely to take responsibility for their actions.
280
What is an External Locus of Control?
Belief that chance or outside forces control one's fate ## Footnote This perspective can lead to feelings of helplessness.
281
What is self-efficacy?
Belief that one can succeed ## Footnote Self-efficacy influences motivation and behavior.
282
What is the internal locus of control?
Belief that you control your own fate
283
What is the external locus of control?
Belief that chance or outside forces control your fate
284
What is a criticism of social-cognitive theories?
Too specific, cannot generalize
285
What is a strength of social-cognitive theories?
Highlights situations and cognitive explanations of personality
286
How can social-cognitive theories be tested?
Through observations and interviews
287
Who was the first to suggest intelligence was inherited?
GALTON
288
What are the two clusters of mental abilities proposed by CATTELL?
* Crystalized intelligence * Fluid intelligence
289
What does Spearman's G factor refer to?
A general intelligence (g) that underlies all mental abilities
290
How many types of intelligences did GARDNER propose?
8
291
List three types of intelligences from GARDNER's multiple intelligences theory.
* Linguistic * Logical-mathematical * Musical
292
What are the three components of STERNBERG's TRIARCHIC THEORY?
* Analytical * Practical * Creative
293
Who developed the first intelligence test?
BINET
294
What does the Stanford-Binet IQ Test measure?
Chronological age compared to mental age
295
What is the average IQ score according to the Stanford-Binet test?
100
296
What is the Flynn effect?
IQ has steadily risen over the past 80 years
297
What IQ range is considered high intelligence?
Above 135
298
What is the IQ range for mental retardation?
Below 70
299
What is PKU?
A condition where the liver fails to produce an enzyme needed to break down chemicals, leading to brain damage
300
What is Down syndrome?
An extra copy of the 21st chromosome
301
What is the relationship between genetics and IQ?
MZ twins have similar IQs; adopted kids more similar to biological parents
302
What is an aptitude test?
Predicts your abilities to learn a new skill
303
What is an achievement test?
Tests what you know
304
What is standardization in test creation?
Administering a test to a representative sample to establish a basis for comparison
305
What does reliability in testing refer to?
The test produces consistent results over time
306
What is content validity?
The test measures what it is intended to measure
307
What is the definition of abnormal behavior?
Must be deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional
308
What does the medical model emphasize?
Treatment of disorders with a biological origin
309
What is the DSM?
Manual listing all currently accepted psychological disorders
310
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Person is generally anxious all the time for no reason
311
What characterizes Panic Disorder?
Prone to frequent panic attacks
312
What are obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Persistent unwanted thoughts
313
What are compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Senseless rituals
314
What is PTSD?
Characterized by flashbacks and anxiety following a traumatic event
315
What is a common cause of anxiety disorders according to the behaviorist perspective?
Fear conditioning leads to anxiety
316
What are somatoform disorders?
Psychological disorders with no apparent physical cause
317
What is Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Fracturing into several distinct personalities
318
What is Major Depressive Disorder?
Extreme sadness and despair with no known cause
319
What is Dysthymia?
Milder form of depression lasting for years
320
What is Bipolar Disorder characterized by?
Bouts of severe depression and manic episodes
321
What is Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)?
Form of depression that occurs typically in winter
322
What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
* Hallucinations * Delusions * Disorganized thinking
323
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
* Flat affect * Impaired decision making
324
What is the dopamine hypothesis?
Too much dopamine in the brain leads to schizophrenia
325
What are personality disorders marked by?
Disruptive, inflexible, enduring behavior patterns
326
What is the psychodynamic approach to therapy?
Focuses on unconscious processes and childhood experiences
327
What is client-centered therapy?
Developed by Carl Rogers, focuses on patient growth
328
What is rational-emotive therapy?
Analyzes self-defeating behaviors to change thought patterns
329
What is cognitive therapy?
Challenges illogical thoughts leading to psychological problems
330
What is systematic desensitization?
Associating a pleasant state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli
331
What is operant conditioning used for in therapy?
Behavior modification through rewards
332
What is family therapy?
Treats the family as a system affecting individual behaviors
333
What are drug therapies also known as?
Psychopharmacology
334
What is the purpose of anti-psychotics?
Decrease dopamine to treat schizophrenia
335
What is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used for?
To treat depression when nothing else works
336
What is attribution theory?
Explains others' behaviors by crediting the situation or disposition
337
What is the fundamental attribution error?
Underestimating situational factors while overestimating personal disposition
338
What is the central route to persuasion?
Changing attitudes through logical arguments
339
What is the foot-in-the-door phenomenon?
Complying with a small request leads to compliance with a larger request
340
What is the door-in-the-face phenomenon?
Turning down a large request increases chances of accepting a smaller one
341
What did the Stanford Prison Experiment demonstrate?
Individuals take on roles and can go too far
342
What is cognitive dissonance?
Conflict between opposing thoughts causing discomfort
343
What is conformity?
Changing behavior to align with a group
344
What is social loafing?
Exerting less effort in a group than individually
345
What is deindividuation?
Loss of self-awareness in group situations
346
What is group polarization?
Similar thoughts become more extreme in a group
347
What is groupthink?
Desire for harmony leads to poor decision making
348
What is ingroup bias?
Tendency to favor our own group
349
What is scapegoat theory?
Prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame
350
What is ethnocentrism?
Seeing one's own group as more important than others
351
What are genetic influences on aggression?
Runs in families and can be bred in animals
352
What environmental factors can influence aggression?
* Pollution * Crowding * Heat * Humidity
353
What is ethnocentrism?
Tendency to see your own group as more important than others ## Footnote Ethnocentrism can lead to bias and discrimination against other groups.
354
Define the just-world phenomenon.
Tendency for people to believe that the world is just, leading them to think people get what they deserve ## Footnote This can result in victim-blaming, particularly towards marginalized groups.
355
What are the genetic influences on aggression?
Aggression runs in families and can be bred in animals ## Footnote Genetic predispositions can affect behavior and temperament.
356
How do serotonin and testosterone levels relate to aggression?
Lower serotonin and higher testosterone are associated with increased aggression ## Footnote Hormonal influences can affect mood and behavior.
357
What does the social learning theory (Bandura) state about aggression?
Observing violence in others makes us more violent for a time ## Footnote This theory emphasizes the role of imitation and modeling in behavior.
358
List environmental influences on aggression.
* Pollution * Crowding * Heat * Humidity ## Footnote These factors can exacerbate feelings of frustration and anger.
359
What is the frustration-aggression hypothesis?
Frustration creates anger, which leads to aggression ## Footnote This theory links emotional states to aggressive behavior.
360
What is the mere exposure effect?
Repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them ## Footnote This phenomenon explains why familiarity can breed affection.
361
How does physical attractiveness influence perception?
Pretty people are thought to be more credible and less likely to do bad things ## Footnote This is often referred to as the 'halo effect' in psychology.
362
What is the role of similarity in attraction?
We prefer people similar to us ## Footnote Similarity can enhance relationships and social bonds.
363
Define altruism.
Unselfish regard for the welfare of others ## Footnote Altruism can motivate individuals to help others without expecting anything in return.
364
What is the bystander effect?
The more people around, the less likely we are to help someone in need ## Footnote This phenomenon highlights how diffusion of responsibility can affect helping behavior.
365
Explain the social exchange theory.
Social behavior (helping) is an exchange process aimed at maximizing benefits and minimizing costs ## Footnote This theory suggests that people weigh the potential rewards and risks of helping.
366
What is the reciprocity norm?
We give so we can get ## Footnote This norm encourages mutual exchange in social relationships.
367
Define a social trap.
Conflicting parties pursue their own best interests, resulting in destructive outcomes ## Footnote The prisoner's dilemma is a classic example of a social trap.
368
What is an approach-approach conflict?
A win-win situation where you have to choose between two desirable options ## Footnote Example: Choosing between two favorite restaurants.
369
What does approach-avoidance conflict mean?
A win-lose situation where the outcome has both positive and negative aspects ## Footnote Example: The decision to marry may come with both benefits and drawbacks.
370
Define avoidance-avoidance conflict.
A lose-lose situation where both outcomes are undesirable ## Footnote Example: Choosing between cleaning your room or doing homework.
371
What is a multiple approach-avoidance conflict?
Two or more win-lose situations where you must choose which to pursue ## Footnote Example: Choosing between colleges with different pros and cons.
372
What is the self-concept bias?
What we consider important in ourselves is what we consider important in others ## Footnote This bias can affect interpersonal perceptions and judgments.
373
Define the false-consensus effect.
We overestimate the degree to which everyone else thinks or acts like we do ## Footnote This can lead to misunderstandings in social situations.
374
What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?
A belief that leads to its own fulfillment ## Footnote Example: Expecting students to succeed can enhance their performance.
375
What is the self-serving bias?
Readiness to perceive ourselves favorably ## Footnote This bias can distort self-assessment and accountability.
376
Define the spotlight effect.
Tendency of an individual to overestimate the extent to which others are paying attention to them ## Footnote This can lead to social anxiety and self-consciousness.
377
What is a recommended strategy for multiple-choice tests?
Bubble as you go to avoid running out of time ## Footnote This helps ensure all questions are answered.
378
True or False: You lose points for guessing on multiple-choice tests.
False ## Footnote It's advisable to answer every question even if unsure.
379
What should you do if you run out of time on a test?
Pick either B, C, or D and bubble straight down ## Footnote This is a strategy to maximize the number of answers submitted.
380
Fill in the blank: If you don’t recognize an answer choice, it probably _______.
IS NOT THE ANSWER ## Footnote This can help eliminate incorrect options in tests.
381
What is a key strategy for essay writing?
ANSWER THE STUPID QUESTION! ## Footnote Focus on directly addressing the prompt without unnecessary fluff.
382
What should you avoid when writing essays?
Bullet points, transitions, and topic/thesis statements ## Footnote These elements can detract from the clarity and focus of your argument.
383
What is important to do in essay writing?
Be specific and apply the answer to the prompt ## Footnote Providing detailed evidence strengthens your argument.
384
What is the origin of the term psychology?
Derived from physiology and philosophy
385
What does structuralism focus on?
Determining the underlying structures of the mind through introspection
386
What is the main focus of functionalism?
Analyzing the purpose of behavior
387
What key concept is associated with evolutionary psychology?
Genes
388
What are the main ideas of humanistic psychology?
Free will, choice, ideal, actualization
389
What does biological psychology emphasize?
Brain and neurotransmitters
390
What is the focus of cognitive psychology?
Perceptions and thoughts
391
What does behavioral psychology study?
Learned behaviors and reinforcement
392
What is the emphasis of psychoanalytic/dynamic psychology?
Unconscious processes and childhood experiences
393
What does sociocultural psychology examine?
The influence of society on behavior
394
What does biopsychosocial psychology combine?
Elements of biological, psychological, and social factors
395
Who was the first female president of the APA?
Mary Calkins
396
What is Charles Darwin known for in psychology?
Natural selection and evolution
397
What did Dorothea Dix reform?
Mental institutions in the U.S.
398
Who is considered the father of American psychology?
William James
399
Who is known as the father of modern psychology?
Wilhelm Wundt
400
What is the role of the independent variable in an experiment?
Manipulated by the researcher
401
What is the purpose of the control group in an experiment?
Serves as a baseline for comparison
402
What is the placebo effect?
Behavioral changes due to the belief of receiving treatment
403
What is a double-blind experiment?
Neither participants nor experimenters know the conditions
404
What is the dependent variable in research?
The variable that is measured and depends on the independent variable
405
Define operational definition.
A clear, precise, quantifiable definition of variables
406
What is a confound in research?
An error or flaw in the study
407
What does random assignment do?
Assigns participants randomly to groups to minimize bias
408
What is validity in research?
The accuracy of results
409
What is reliability in research?
The consistency of results over time
410
What is an advantage of naturalistic observation?
Real-world validity
411
What is the main disadvantage of correlation studies?
No cause and effect can be established
412
What does a positive correlation indicate?
Variables vary in the same direction
413
What does a negative correlation indicate?
Variables vary in opposite directions
414
What is a case study?
An in-depth study of one individual
415
What are measures of central tendency?
Mean, median, mode
416
What is the difference between mean, median, and mode?
* Mean: Average * Median: Middle number * Mode: Most frequently occurring
417
What does inferential statistics establish?
Significance of results
418
What is the first ethical guideline in APA ethics?
Confidentiality
419
What is the basic cell of the nervous system?
Neuron
420
What do dendrites do?
Receive incoming signals
421
What is the function of the myelin sheath?
Speeds up signal transmission down the axon
422
What is action potential?
Movement of ions that sends an electrical charge down the axon
423
What is the refractory period?
Time when a neuron cannot fire again until it resets
424
What are sensory neurons?
Neurons that receive signals from the environment
425
What is the central nervous system composed of?
Brain and spinal cord
426
What does the autonomic nervous system control?
Involuntary functions like heart rate and breathing
427
What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system?
Arouses the body for fight or flight
428
What neurotransmitter is considered major inhibitory?
GABA
429
What neurotransmitter is associated with reward and movement?
Dopamine
430
What is the function of serotonin?
Regulates moods and emotions
431
What does the limbic system control?
Emotions and memory
432
What is the role of the thalamus?
Relay center for sensory information
433
What does the hypothalamus regulate?
Reward/pleasure center and eating behaviors
434
What is the corpus callosum?
Bundle of nerves connecting the two brain hemispheres
435
What is brain plasticity?
The brain's ability to heal and adapt
436
What do twin studies help to understand?
Nature vs. nurture influences on behavior
437
What is the role of the pituitary gland?
Releases growth hormones and is controlled by the hypothalamus
438
What is the absolute threshold?
Detection of a signal 50% of the time
439
What is the difference threshold?
Minimum difference needed to detect a change
440
What is sensory adaptation?
Diminished sensitivity due to constant stimulation
441
What is the cocktail party effect?
Noticing your name being mentioned even when not paying attention
442
What is the pathway of vision?
Light → cornea → pupil/iris → lens → retina → rods/cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells → optic nerve → occipital lobe
443
What are rods and cones responsible for?
* Rods: Black/white, dim light * Cones: Color, bright light
444
What is the trichromatic theory of color vision?
Three cones for receiving color (blue, red, green)
445
What does the opponent process theory explain?
Processing of complementary colors
446
What is the phi phenomenon?
Adjacent lights blinking on/off appear to create movement
447
What are monocular cues?
* Interposition * Relative Size * Relative Clarity * Texture Gradient * Relative Height * Linear Perspective
448
What are binocular cues for depth perception?
* Retinal Disparity * Convergence
449
What is top-down processing?
Processing from whole to smaller parts
450
What is bottom-up processing?
Processing from smaller parts to whole
451
What is the pathway of sound?
Sound → pinna → auditory canal → eardrum → ossicles → oval window → cochlea → auditory nerve → temporal lobes
452
What is place theory in hearing?
Location where hair cells bend determines sound for high pitches
453
What is frequency theory in hearing?
Rate of action potentials sent determines sound for low pitches
454
What are the five taste receptors?
* Bitter * Salty * Sweet * Sour * Umami
455
What is the gestalt principle of figure/ground?
Organizing information into figures that stand apart from the background
456
What is metacognition?
Thinking about thinking
457
What are the stages of sleep characterized by?
Different brain wave patterns: Beta, Alpha, Delta
458
What is the circadian rhythm?
24-hour biological clock controlling body temperature and awareness
459
What is insomnia?
Inability to fall asleep
460
What is narcolepsy?
Sudden sleep attacks
461
What is Freud's theory of dream content?
* Latent Content: Hidden meaning * Manifest Content: Obvious storyline
462
What is hypnosis capable of?
Reducing pain and helping relaxation
463
What are depressants?
Substances that decrease sympathetic NS activation
464
What are stimulants?
Substances that increase sympathetic NS activation
465
What are hallucinogens?
Substances that cause hallucinations
466
What is the effect of psychoactive drugs on dopamine?
Triggers dopamine release in the brain
467
Name three types of depressants.
* Alcohol * Barbiturates * Tranquilizers
468
What is the primary effect of stimulants?
Increase sympathetic NS activation
469
What are hallucinogens?
* LSD * Marijuana
470
Define tolerance in the context of drug use.
Needing more of a drug to achieve the same effects
471
What is dependence?
Become addicted to the drug – must have it to avoid withdrawal symptoms
472
What are withdrawal symptoms?
Psychological and physiological symptoms associated with sudden stoppage
473
Who is associated with classical conditioning?
Pavlov
474
Define Unconditioned Stimulus (US).
Brings about response w/o needing to be learned (food)
475
What is an Unconditioned Response (UR)?
Response that naturally occurs w/o training (salivate)
476
What is a Neutral Stimulus (NS)?
Stimulus that normally doesn’t evoke a response (bell)
477
Define Conditioned Stimulus (CS).
Once neutral stimulus that now brings about a response (bell)
478
What is a Conditioned Response (CR)?
Response that, after conditioning, follows a CS (salivate)
479
Explain contiguity in classical conditioning.
Timing of the pairing, NS/CS must be presented immediately BEFORE the US
480
What is acquisition in classical conditioning?
Process of learning the response pairing
481
Define extinction in classical conditioning.
Previously conditioned response dies out over time
482
What is spontaneous recovery?
After a period of time, the CR comes back out of nowhere
483
What is generalization in classical conditioning?
CR to like stimuli (similar sounding bell)
484
Define discrimination in classical conditioning.
CR to ONLY the CS
485
What does the Contingency Model by Rescorla & Wagner state?
Classical conditioning involves cognitive processes
486
What is Conditioned Taste Aversion?
Innate predispositions can allow classical conditioning to occur in one trial (food poisoning)
487
Who conducted the Little Albert experiment?
John Watson
488
What is the Law of Effect (Thorndike)?
Behaviors followed by pos. outcomes are strengthened, neg. outcomes weaken a behavior
489
Define positive reinforcement.
Add something nice to increase a behavior
490
What is negative reinforcement?
Take away something bad/annoying to increase a behavior
491
Define positive punishment.
Add something bad to decrease a behavior
492
What does negative punishment entail?
Take away something good to decrease a behavior
493
What are primary reinforcers?
Innately satisfying (food and water)
494
Define secondary reinforcers.
Everything else (stickers, high-fives)
495
What is a token reinforcer?
Type of secondary that can be exchanged for other stuff
496
What is generalization in operant conditioning?
Respond to similar stimulus for reward
497
Define discrimination in operant conditioning.
Stimulus signals when behavior will or will not be reinforced
498
What is the Premack Principle?
High probability activities reinforce low probability activities
499
What is the overjustification effect?
Reinforcing intrinsically motivating behaviors causes you to stop doing them
500
Define shaping in operant conditioning.
Use successive approximations to train behavior
501
What does chaining refer to in operant conditioning?
Tie together several behaviors
502
What is a continuous reinforcement schedule?
Receive reward for every response
503
Define fixed ratio schedule.
Reward every X number of responses
504
What is a fixed interval schedule?
Reward every X amount of time passed
505
Define variable ratio schedule.
Rewarded after a random number of responses
506
What is a variable interval schedule?
Rewarded after a random amount of time has passed
507
Which reinforcement schedules are most resistant to extinction?
Variable schedules
508
Who is associated with social (observational) learning?
Bandura
509
What is latent learning?
Learning is hidden until useful
510
Define cognitive maps.
Mental representation of an area
511
What is insight learning?
Learning through simple intuition
512
What is learned helplessness?
Giving up due to lack of positive outcomes
513
What is automatic encoding?
Requires no effort
514
Define effortful encoding.
Requires attention
515
What are the three levels of processing?
* Shallow * Intermediate * Deep
516
What is imagery in memory?
Attaching images to information
517
Define self-referent encoding.
We better remember what we’re interested in
518
What does dual encoding refer to?
Combining different types of encoding aids in memory
519
What is chunking?
Break info into smaller units to aid in memory
520
Define mnemonics.
Shortcuts to help us remember info easier
521
What is context dependent memory?
Where you learn the info you best remember the info
522
Define state dependent memory.
The physical state during learning should match testing
523
What is the Information Processing Model?
Sensory memory, short term memory, long term memory model
524
What is sensory memory?
Stores all incoming stimuli that you receive
525
What is iconic memory?
Visual memory, lasts 0.3 seconds
526
Define echoic memory.
Auditory memory, lasts 2-3 seconds
527
What is short term memory (STM)?
Info passes from sensory memory to STM – lasts 30 secs
528
What is the working memory model?
Splits STM into visual spatial memory and phonological loop
529
Define long term memory.
Lasts a lifetime
530
What are the two types of explicit memory?
* Episodic * Semantic
531
What are the two types of implicit memory?
* Classical conditioning * Procedural
532
What is long-term potentiation?
Neural basis of memory – connections are strengthened over time
533
What is the Serial Position Effect?
Tendency to remember the beginning and the end of a list best
534
Define recall.
Remember what you’ve been told w/o cues
535
What is recognition?
Remember what you’ve been told w/ cues
536
What are flashbulb memories?
Particularly vivid memories for highly important events
537
What are repressed memories?
Unconsciously buried memories – are unreliable
538
What is encoding failure?
Forget info b/c you never encoded it in the first place
539
Define encoding specificity principle.
The more closely retrieval cues match the way we learned the info, the better we remember
540
What is the forgetting curve?
Recall decreases rapidly at first, then reaches a plateau
541
What is proactive interference?
Old info blocks new
542
Define retroactive interference.
New info blocks old
543
What is the misinformation effect?
Distortion of memory by suggestion or misinformation
544
What is anterograde amnesia?
Forgetting new info
545
Define retrograde amnesia.
Forgetting old info
546
What causes Alzheimer’s disease?
Destruction of acetylcholine in hippocampus
547
What are phonemes?
Smallest unit of sound
548
Define morpheme.
Smallest unit that carries meaning
549
What is grammar?
Rules in a language that enable us to communicate
550
What is semantics?
Set of rules by which we derive meaning
551
Define syntax.
Rules for combining words into sentences
552
What is the babbling stage?
Infants babble 1st stage of speech
553
What is the one-word stage?
Infants use single words to communicate
554
Define two-word stage.
Infants use two words to communicate
555
What is imitation in language development?
Kids repeat what they hear
556
What is overregularization?
Grammar mistake where children overuse certain morphemes
557
Who proposed the theory of inborn universal grammar?
Noam Chomsky
558
What is the critical period in language development?
Time where something must be learned or else it cannot happen
559
What is linguistic determinism?
Language influences the way we think
560
Define concepts in thinking.
Mental categories used to group objects, events, characteristics
561
What are prototypes?
Ideal examples of a concept
562
Define algorithms.
Step by step strategies that guarantee a solution
563
What are heuristics?
Short cut strategy
564
What is functional fixedness?
Inability to think outside of the box
565
What is belief bias?
Preexisting beliefs distort logical reasoning
566
Define belief perseverance.
Clinging to beliefs in the face of contrary evidence
567
What is inductive reasoning?
Data driven decisions, general → specific
568
Define deductive reasoning.
Driven by logic, specific → general
569
What is divergent thinking?
Ability to think about many different things at once
570
What does the instinct theory of motivation state?
Complex behaviors have fixed patterns and are not learned
571
Define drive reduction theory.
Physiological need creates aroused tension that motivates you to satisfy the need
572
What is optimum arousal theory?
Humans aim to seek optimum levels of arousal
573
Who proposed the hierarchy of needs?
Maslow
574
What is intrinsic motivation?
Inner motivation – you do it because you like it
575
Define extrinsic motivation.
Motivation to obtain a reward
576
What signals hunger?
* Stomach contractions * Glucose levels * Orexin release
577
What is the function of the lateral hypothalamus?
When stimulated makes you hungry
578
What does the ventromedial hypothalamus do?
When stimulated makes you feel full
579
What is leptin?
Signals the brain to reduce appetite
580
What are the risks associated with obesity?
* Heart attack * Hypertension * Diabetes
581
Define anorexia.
Weight loss of at least 15% ideal weight, distorted body image
582
What is bulimia?
Binge-purge eating pattern
583
What stimulates sexual behavior?
Hypothalamus
584
What role does the pituitary gland play in sexuality?
Monitors, initiates, and restricts hormones
585
What are the phases of the sexual response pattern?
* Excitement phase * Plateau * Orgasm * Refractory period
586
Who was Alfred Kinsey?
First researcher to conduct studies in sex
587
What are some biological roots of homosexuality?
* Differences in the brain * Identical twins more likely to both be gay
588
What does the James-Lange theory of emotion state?
Stimulus → physiological arousal → emotion
589
Define Cannon-Bard theory.
Stimulus → physiological arousal & emotion simultaneously
590
What is the Schachter Two-Factor theory?
Stimulus → arousal → interpret external cues → label emotion
591
What are the six universal emotions?
* Happiness * Anger * Sadness * Surprise * Disgust * Fear
592
What is the facial feedback hypothesis?
Facial expressions influence emotion
593
What are the three phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
* Alarm * Resistance * Exhaustion
594
What are non-verbal cues?
Gestures, Duchenne smile (real vs. fake smile) ## Footnote Non-verbal cues are significant in communication and can convey emotions without words.
595
What is the Facial Feedback Hypothesis?
Being forced to smile will make you happier; facial expressions influence emotion ## Footnote This hypothesis suggests that facial movements can affect emotional experiences.
596
What are the three phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
* Alarm: body reacts to stress * Resistance: body copes with stress * Exhaustion: body can no longer cope ## Footnote GAS was developed by Hans Selye to describe the physiological response to stress.
597
What characterizes a Type A Personality?
Rigid, stressful, perfectionist; at risk for heart disease ## Footnote Type A individuals often exhibit high levels of competitiveness and urgency.
598
What characterizes a Type B Personality?
Laid back, non-stressed ## Footnote Type B individuals are generally more relaxed and less driven by stress.
599
What does Industrial/Organizational Psychology focus on?
Employee recruitment, placement, training, satisfaction, productivity ## Footnote This field applies psychological principles to workplace environments.
600
What is Ergonomics/Human Factors?
Intersection of engineering and psychology; focuses on safety and efficiency of human-machine interactions ## Footnote Ergonomics aims to optimize the interaction between people and systems.
601
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
Productivity increases when workers feel important ## Footnote This effect highlights the impact of social factors on worker performance.
602
What is Theory X management?
Manager controls employees, enforces rules; suitable for lower-level jobs ## Footnote Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy and require supervision.
603
What is Theory Y management?
Manager gives employees responsibility, seeks input; suitable for high-level jobs ## Footnote Theory Y assumes that employees are motivated and seek responsibility.
604
What are the three types of Employee Commitment?
* Affective: emotional attachment * Continuance: stay due to costs of leaving * Normative: stay due to obligation ## Footnote Affective commitment is considered the most beneficial for organizations.
605
What are the three stages of Prenatal Development?
* Zygote: 0-14 days, cells dividing * Embryo: until about 9 weeks, vital organs forming * Fetus: 9 weeks to birth, overall development ## Footnote Each stage plays a critical role in the development of a human being.
606
What are Teratogens?
External agents that can cause abnormal prenatal development (e.g., alcohol, drugs) ## Footnote Exposure to teratogens can lead to serious developmental issues.
607
What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
Caused by large amounts of alcohol during pregnancy; leads to deformities, mental retardation, death ## Footnote FAS is a severe consequence of prenatal alcohol exposure.
608
What is Maturation in physical development?
Natural course of development that occurs regardless of external factors (e.g., walking) ## Footnote Maturation is a biological process that unfolds with time.
609
What are some innate Reflexes in infants?
* Rooting * Sucking * Swallowing * Grasping * Stepping ## Footnote Reflexes are automatic responses that are present at birth.
610
What is Habituation?
Decreased attention to a stimulus after repeated exposure ## Footnote This phenomenon is used to study infants' learning processes.
611
What is Jean Piaget's concept of Schemas?
Concepts or frameworks that organize information ## Footnote Schemas help individuals understand and interpret the world.
612
What is Assimilation in cognitive development?
Incorporating new information into existing schemas ## Footnote This process helps maintain cognitive stability.
613
What is Accommodation in cognitive development?
Adjusting existing schemas to incorporate new information ## Footnote Accommodation is essential for cognitive growth.
614
What characterizes the Sensorimotor Stage of development?
Birth to 2 years; focused on exploring the world; lack object permanence ## Footnote Children in this stage learn about their environment through sensory experiences.
615
What characterizes the Pre-operational Stage of development?
Ages 2-7; use pretend play, developing language; lack conservation and reversibility ## Footnote This stage involves significant growth in symbolic thought.
616
What characterizes the Concrete Operational Stage of development?
Ages 7-11; use operational thinking, classification, logical thinking in concrete contexts ## Footnote Children can perform operations on concrete objects but struggle with abstract concepts.
617
What characterizes the Formal Operational Stage of development?
Ages 11-15; use abstract and idealist thoughts, hypothetical-deductive reasoning ## Footnote This stage marks the development of advanced cognitive abilities.
618
What is Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development?
The gap between what a child can do independently and with support ## Footnote Scaffolding is necessary to bridge this gap.
619
What is Temperament in socioemotional development?
Patterns of emotional reactions in infants; precursor to personality ## Footnote Temperament influences how children interact with the world.
620
What is Imprinting?
When baby geese recognize the first thing they see after hatching as their mom; occurs during a critical period ## Footnote This phenomenon demonstrates the importance of early experiences.
621
What did Harry Harlow discover about attachment?
Contact comfort is more important than feeding; isolation affects socialization ## Footnote Harlow's studies with monkeys highlighted the importance of emotional bonds.
622
What are the four attachment styles identified by Mary Ainsworth?
* Secure attachment * Avoidant attachment * Ambivalent attachment * Disorganized attachment ## Footnote These styles reflect how infants relate to their caregivers.
623
What are the three parenting styles identified by Baumrind?
* Authoritarian: strict rules * Permissive: few rules * Authoritative: balanced approach ## Footnote Parenting styles significantly influence children's development.
624
What are the three levels of Kohlberg's moral development?
* Preconventional morality: avoid punishment * Conventional morality: maintain order * Postconventional morality: follow personal ethics ## Footnote These levels illustrate the progression of moral reasoning.
625
What is Erikson's stage of Trust vs. Mistrust?
Birth to 18 months; if needs are dependably met, infants develop basic trust ## Footnote This stage sets the foundation for future relationships.
626
What are Primary Sex Characteristics?
Necessary structures for reproduction (ovaries, testicles, vagina, penis) ## Footnote These characteristics develop during puberty.
627
What are Secondary Sex Characteristics?
Non-reproductive characteristics that develop during puberty (breasts, hips, body hair) ## Footnote These traits distinguish male and female bodies but are not directly involved in reproduction.
628
What is the Cellular Clock Theory?
Cells have a maximum number of divisions before they can no longer divide ## Footnote This theory explains aging at the cellular level.
629
What characterizes a Cross-Sectional Study?
Studies people of different ages at the same time; quick and inexpensive ## Footnote This method can highlight generational differences.
630
What characterizes a Longitudinal Study?
Studies the same people over time; detailed but expensive and time-consuming ## Footnote This design allows researchers to observe changes over time.
631
What are the stages of grief according to the Kübler-Ross model?
* Denial * Anger * Bargaining * Depression * Acceptance ## Footnote These stages represent common emotional responses to loss.
632
What is Problem-Focused Coping?
Solving or doing something to alter the course of stress (planning, acceptance) ## Footnote This approach addresses the source of stress directly.
633
What is Emotion-Focused Coping?
Reducing emotional distress (denial, disengagement) ## Footnote This method focuses on managing feelings rather than the stressor itself.
634
What are Sigmund Freud's three levels of consciousness?
* Conscious: immediate awareness * Preconscious: available to awareness * Unconscious: unavailable to awareness ## Footnote Freud's model of the mind illustrates different levels of awareness.
635
What is the Id according to Freud?
Our hidden true animalistic wants and desires; operates on the pleasure principle ## Footnote The Id is entirely unconscious and seeks instant gratification.
636
What is the Superego according to Freud?
Our moral conscience; represents societal rules and ideals ## Footnote The Superego develops through interactions with caregivers and society.
637
What is the Ego according to Freud?
Operates on the reality principle; mediates between the Id and Superego ## Footnote The Ego is responsible for rational thought and decision-making.
638
What is Repression in defense mechanisms?
Pushing memories into the unconscious mind ## Footnote This mechanism helps individuals cope with traumatic experiences.
639
What is Projection in defense mechanisms?
Attributing personal shortcomings and faults to others ## Footnote This mechanism often deflects responsibility from oneself.
640
What is Denial in defense mechanisms?
Refusing to acknowledge reality ## Footnote Denial can be a coping strategy for dealing with distressing information.
641
What is Displacement in defense mechanisms?
Shifting feelings from an unacceptable object to a more acceptable one ## Footnote This can occur when a person cannot express emotions towards the original source.
642
What is Reaction Formation in defense mechanisms?
Transforming unacceptable motives into their opposite ## Footnote This mechanism can lead to behaviors that are contrary to one's true feelings.
643
What is Regression in defense mechanisms?
Returning to an earlier developmental period in response to stress ## Footnote This can manifest in childlike behaviors during stressful times.
644
What is Rationalization in defense mechanisms?
Replacing a less acceptable reasoning with a more acceptable one ## Footnote This helps individuals justify their actions or feelings.
645
What is Sublimation in defense mechanisms?
Replacing unacceptable impulses with socially acceptable ones ## Footnote This can lead to positive outcomes, such as artistic expression.
646
What are Freud's Psychosexual Stages?
* Oral stage (0-18 months) * Anal stage (18-36 months) * Phallic stage (3-6 years) * Latency stage (6 years to puberty) * Genital stage (adulthood) ## Footnote These stages influence personality development and can lead to fixations.
647
What is the Oedipal Complex?
Young boys identify with their fathers out of fear of retribution (castration anxiety) ## Footnote This complex is part of Freud's phallic stage of development.
648
What is the Electra Complex?
Young girls identify with their mothers due to penis envy ## Footnote This complex reflects the girl's feelings of competition with the mother.
649
What is Fixation in Freud's theory?
Becoming 'stuck' in an earlier psychosexual stage, influencing personality ## Footnote Fixations can result in certain behaviors associated with that stage.
650
What is the focus of Neo-Freudians like Carl Jung?
Collective unconscious; shared inherited memories across civilizations ## Footnote Jung's theory explains common myths and archetypes in different cultures.
651
What is the focus of Karen Horney's theory?
Personality develops in the context of social relationships, not sexual urges ## Footnote Horney emphasized security and interpersonal relationships as motivators.
652
What are traits in the Trait Perspective?
Enduring personality characteristics that describe individuals ## Footnote Traits are stable and can predict behavior in various situations.
653
What is the Big Five personality traits model?
* Openness * Conscientiousness * Extraversion * Agreeableness * Neuroticism ## Footnote This model provides a comprehensive framework for understanding personality.
654
What is a limitation of Trait Theory?
Ignores the role of the situation in behavior ## Footnote Situational factors can significantly influence how traits are expressed.
655
What is the MMPI used for?
Helpful for mental health assessment and job placement ## Footnote The MMPI is a widely used psychological test assessing personality traits.
656
What is the Humanistic Perspective focused on?
Personal growth and free will ## Footnote This approach emphasizes the individual's capacity for change.
657
What did Carl Rogers emphasize in his theory?
Self-concept; the idea of who we are ## Footnote Rogers distinguished between the actual self and ideal self.
658
What are Individualistic Cultures?
Cultures that prioritize individual goals over group goals ## Footnote In these cultures, identity is defined in terms of personal attributes.
659
What are Collectivistic Cultures?
Cultures that prioritize group goals over individual goals ## Footnote Identity in these cultures is often tied to group membership.
660
What is Reciprocal Determinism?
Interaction of behavior, cognition, and environment that shapes personality ## Footnote This concept was introduced by Albert Bandura to explain personality development.
661
What is Self-efficacy?
Belief in one's ability to succeed ## Footnote High self-efficacy can lead to greater motivation and resilience.
662
What is an Internal Locus of Control?
Belief that one controls their own fate ## Footnote Individuals with this mindset are more likely to take responsibility for their actions.
663
What is an External Locus of Control?
Belief that chance or outside forces control one's fate ## Footnote This perspective can lead to feelings of helplessness.
664
What is self-efficacy?
Belief that one can succeed ## Footnote Self-efficacy influences motivation and behavior.
665
What is the internal locus of control?
Belief that you control your own fate
666
What is the external locus of control?
Belief that chance or outside forces control your fate
667
What is a criticism of social-cognitive theories?
Too specific, cannot generalize
668
What is a strength of social-cognitive theories?
Highlights situations and cognitive explanations of personality
669
How can social-cognitive theories be tested?
Through observations and interviews
670
Who was the first to suggest intelligence was inherited?
GALTON
671
What are the two clusters of mental abilities proposed by CATTELL?
* Crystalized intelligence * Fluid intelligence
672
What does Spearman's G factor refer to?
A general intelligence (g) that underlies all mental abilities
673
How many types of intelligences did GARDNER propose?
8
674
List three types of intelligences from GARDNER's multiple intelligences theory.
* Linguistic * Logical-mathematical * Musical
675
What are the three components of STERNBERG's TRIARCHIC THEORY?
* Analytical * Practical * Creative
676
Who developed the first intelligence test?
BINET
677
What does the Stanford-Binet IQ Test measure?
Chronological age compared to mental age
678
What is the average IQ score according to the Stanford-Binet test?
100
679
What is the Flynn effect?
IQ has steadily risen over the past 80 years
680
What IQ range is considered high intelligence?
Above 135
681
What is the IQ range for mental retardation?
Below 70
682
What is PKU?
A condition where the liver fails to produce an enzyme needed to break down chemicals, leading to brain damage
683
What is Down syndrome?
An extra copy of the 21st chromosome
684
What is the relationship between genetics and IQ?
MZ twins have similar IQs; adopted kids more similar to biological parents
685
What is an aptitude test?
Predicts your abilities to learn a new skill
686
What is an achievement test?
Tests what you know
687
What is standardization in test creation?
Administering a test to a representative sample to establish a basis for comparison
688
What does reliability in testing refer to?
The test produces consistent results over time
689
What is content validity?
The test measures what it is intended to measure
690
What is the definition of abnormal behavior?
Must be deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional
691
What does the medical model emphasize?
Treatment of disorders with a biological origin
692
What is the DSM?
Manual listing all currently accepted psychological disorders
693
What is Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Person is generally anxious all the time for no reason
694
What characterizes Panic Disorder?
Prone to frequent panic attacks
695
What are obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Persistent unwanted thoughts
696
What are compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Senseless rituals
697
What is PTSD?
Characterized by flashbacks and anxiety following a traumatic event
698
What is a common cause of anxiety disorders according to the behaviorist perspective?
Fear conditioning leads to anxiety
699
What are somatoform disorders?
Psychological disorders with no apparent physical cause
700
What is Dissociative Identity Disorder?
Fracturing into several distinct personalities
701
What is Major Depressive Disorder?
Extreme sadness and despair with no known cause
702
What is Dysthymia?
Milder form of depression lasting for years
703
What is Bipolar Disorder characterized by?
Bouts of severe depression and manic episodes
704
What is Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)?
Form of depression that occurs typically in winter
705
What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
* Hallucinations * Delusions * Disorganized thinking
706
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
* Flat affect * Impaired decision making
707
What is the dopamine hypothesis?
Too much dopamine in the brain leads to schizophrenia
708
What are personality disorders marked by?
Disruptive, inflexible, enduring behavior patterns
709
What is the psychodynamic approach to therapy?
Focuses on unconscious processes and childhood experiences
710
What is client-centered therapy?
Developed by Carl Rogers, focuses on patient growth
711
What is rational-emotive therapy?
Analyzes self-defeating behaviors to change thought patterns
712
What is cognitive therapy?
Challenges illogical thoughts leading to psychological problems
713
What is systematic desensitization?
Associating a pleasant state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli
714
What is operant conditioning used for in therapy?
Behavior modification through rewards
715
What is family therapy?
Treats the family as a system affecting individual behaviors
716
What are drug therapies also known as?
Psychopharmacology
717
What is the purpose of anti-psychotics?
Decrease dopamine to treat schizophrenia
718
What is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used for?
To treat depression when nothing else works
719
What is attribution theory?
Explains others' behaviors by crediting the situation or disposition
720
What is the fundamental attribution error?
Underestimating situational factors while overestimating personal disposition
721
What is the central route to persuasion?
Changing attitudes through logical arguments
722
What is the foot-in-the-door phenomenon?
Complying with a small request leads to compliance with a larger request
723
What is the door-in-the-face phenomenon?
Turning down a large request increases chances of accepting a smaller one
724
What did the Stanford Prison Experiment demonstrate?
Individuals take on roles and can go too far
725
What is cognitive dissonance?
Conflict between opposing thoughts causing discomfort
726
What is conformity?
Changing behavior to align with a group
727
What is social loafing?
Exerting less effort in a group than individually
728
What is deindividuation?
Loss of self-awareness in group situations
729
What is group polarization?
Similar thoughts become more extreme in a group
730
What is groupthink?
Desire for harmony leads to poor decision making
731
What is ingroup bias?
Tendency to favor our own group
732
What is scapegoat theory?
Prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame
733
What is ethnocentrism?
Seeing one's own group as more important than others
734
What are genetic influences on aggression?
Runs in families and can be bred in animals
735
What environmental factors can influence aggression?
* Pollution * Crowding * Heat * Humidity
736
What is ethnocentrism?
Tendency to see your own group as more important than others ## Footnote Ethnocentrism can lead to bias and discrimination against other groups.
737
Define the just-world phenomenon.
Tendency for people to believe that the world is just, leading them to think people get what they deserve ## Footnote This can result in victim-blaming, particularly towards marginalized groups.
738
What are the genetic influences on aggression?
Aggression runs in families and can be bred in animals ## Footnote Genetic predispositions can affect behavior and temperament.
739
How do serotonin and testosterone levels relate to aggression?
Lower serotonin and higher testosterone are associated with increased aggression ## Footnote Hormonal influences can affect mood and behavior.
740
What does the social learning theory (Bandura) state about aggression?
Observing violence in others makes us more violent for a time ## Footnote This theory emphasizes the role of imitation and modeling in behavior.
741
List environmental influences on aggression.
* Pollution * Crowding * Heat * Humidity ## Footnote These factors can exacerbate feelings of frustration and anger.
742
What is the frustration-aggression hypothesis?
Frustration creates anger, which leads to aggression ## Footnote This theory links emotional states to aggressive behavior.
743
What is the mere exposure effect?
Repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them ## Footnote This phenomenon explains why familiarity can breed affection.
744
How does physical attractiveness influence perception?
Pretty people are thought to be more credible and less likely to do bad things ## Footnote This is often referred to as the 'halo effect' in psychology.
745
What is the role of similarity in attraction?
We prefer people similar to us ## Footnote Similarity can enhance relationships and social bonds.
746
Define altruism.
Unselfish regard for the welfare of others ## Footnote Altruism can motivate individuals to help others without expecting anything in return.
747
What is the bystander effect?
The more people around, the less likely we are to help someone in need ## Footnote This phenomenon highlights how diffusion of responsibility can affect helping behavior.
748
Explain the social exchange theory.
Social behavior (helping) is an exchange process aimed at maximizing benefits and minimizing costs ## Footnote This theory suggests that people weigh the potential rewards and risks of helping.
749
What is the reciprocity norm?
We give so we can get ## Footnote This norm encourages mutual exchange in social relationships.
750
Define a social trap.
Conflicting parties pursue their own best interests, resulting in destructive outcomes ## Footnote The prisoner's dilemma is a classic example of a social trap.
751
What is an approach-approach conflict?
A win-win situation where you have to choose between two desirable options ## Footnote Example: Choosing between two favorite restaurants.
752
What does approach-avoidance conflict mean?
A win-lose situation where the outcome has both positive and negative aspects ## Footnote Example: The decision to marry may come with both benefits and drawbacks.
753
Define avoidance-avoidance conflict.
A lose-lose situation where both outcomes are undesirable ## Footnote Example: Choosing between cleaning your room or doing homework.
754
What is a multiple approach-avoidance conflict?
Two or more win-lose situations where you must choose which to pursue ## Footnote Example: Choosing between colleges with different pros and cons.
755
What is the self-concept bias?
What we consider important in ourselves is what we consider important in others ## Footnote This bias can affect interpersonal perceptions and judgments.
756
Define the false-consensus effect.
We overestimate the degree to which everyone else thinks or acts like we do ## Footnote This can lead to misunderstandings in social situations.
757
What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?
A belief that leads to its own fulfillment ## Footnote Example: Expecting students to succeed can enhance their performance.
758
What is the self-serving bias?
Readiness to perceive ourselves favorably ## Footnote This bias can distort self-assessment and accountability.
759
Define the spotlight effect.
Tendency of an individual to overestimate the extent to which others are paying attention to them ## Footnote This can lead to social anxiety and self-consciousness.
760
What is a recommended strategy for multiple-choice tests?
Bubble as you go to avoid running out of time ## Footnote This helps ensure all questions are answered.
761
True or False: You lose points for guessing on multiple-choice tests.
False ## Footnote It's advisable to answer every question even if unsure.
762
What should you do if you run out of time on a test?
Pick either B, C, or D and bubble straight down ## Footnote This is a strategy to maximize the number of answers submitted.
763
Fill in the blank: If you don’t recognize an answer choice, it probably _______.
IS NOT THE ANSWER ## Footnote This can help eliminate incorrect options in tests.
764
What is a key strategy for essay writing?
ANSWER THE STUPID QUESTION! ## Footnote Focus on directly addressing the prompt without unnecessary fluff.
765
What should you avoid when writing essays?
Bullet points, transitions, and topic/thesis statements ## Footnote These elements can detract from the clarity and focus of your argument.
766
What is important to do in essay writing?
Be specific and apply the answer to the prompt ## Footnote Providing detailed evidence strengthens your argument.