Cram Deck Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Boyle’s Law

A

At a constant temperature, the pressure exerted by a gas is inversely proportionally to the volume the gas is in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 2 forces hold the thoracic wall and the lungs together?

A

Intrapleural fluid cohesiveness + Negative intrapleural pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What gives lungs their elastic behaviour?

A

Elastic connective tissue + alveolar surface tension (attraction between water molecules at liquid air interface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LaPlace’s Law

A

The smaller the aveoli, the higher their tendency to collapse
P= 2T/r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is respiratory distress syndrome in newborns?

A

Developing fatal lungs are unable to synthesise surfactant until very late in pregnancy -> premature babies may not have enough pulmonary surfactant -> restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Forces keeping the alveoli open vs promoting alveolar collapse

A

Open: transmural pressure gradient, pulmonary surfactant, alveolar interdependence
collapse: elasticity of connective tissue, alveolar surface tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

accessory muscles of inspiration

A

sternocleidomastoid, scalenus, pectoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

active expiratory muscles

A

abdominal muscles, internal/innermost intercostal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain dynamic airway compression

A

rising pleural pressure during ACTIVE expiration compresses alveoli and airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is pulmonary compliance decreased by?

A

E.g. pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary oedema, lung collapse, pneumonia, absence of surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is pulmonary compliance increased by?

A

Emphysema, old age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the work of breathing increased by?

A

low pulmonary compliance, high airway resistance, low elastic recoil, need for increased ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Difference between pulmonary and alveolar ventilation?

A

Alveolar ventilation is pulmonary ventilation (tidal volume x RR) minus the anatomical dead space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Gas transfer is dependent on…?

A

Ventilation + Perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

Alveoli that are ventilated but not sufficiently perfused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dalton’s Law

A

The sum of partial pressures makes up the total pressure exerted by a gas.
P= P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5+…+Pn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio (CO2 produced/O2 consumed) for someone eating a normal diet?

A

0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Out of O2 and CO2, which has the higher diffusion coefficient, which one the higher pressure gradient

A

Diffusion coefficient: CO2

Pressure gradient: O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fick’s Law of Diffusion

A

Thin membranes are easier to diffuse through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the factors that influence gas transfer across the alveolar membrane?

A

Partial pressure gradient
Diffusion coefficient
Surface area of membrane - exercise increases this
Thickness of membrane - increases with pulmonary oedema, fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Henry’s Law

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many oxygen molecules can 1 haemoglobin molecule carry?

What are the groups called in adults and feotuses?

A

4.
Adult: 2 alpha, 2 beta
Foetus: 2 alpha, 2 gamma -> increased affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Oxygen delivery depends on…?

A

Arterial oxygen content

Cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Arterial oxygen content depends on…?

A

Hb concentration

Saturation of Hb with O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bohr effect. what causes it?

A

Shifts oxygen curve to the right - decreases affinity and promotes oxygen release at the tissues.
increased pCO2, increased H+ conc, increased temperature, increased 2,3-BPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is myoglobin different to haemoglobin?

A

Sits in skeletal and cardiac muscle cells, much higher affinity for oxygen, stores O2 for anaerobic conditions
Presence of this in the blood indicates muscle damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is CO2 transported in the blood and what are its percentages?

A

Dissolved - 10%
Bicarbonate - 60%
Carbamino compounds - 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What enzyme catalyses the formation of carbonic acid, and in turn the formation of bicarbonate and H+?
And where does it happen?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

In red blood cells

29
Q

Haldane effect.

What causes it?

A

Oxygen shifts CO2 dissociation curve to the right - decreases affinity between Hb and CO2, replaces its, which increases oxygen uptake and CO2 removal.

30
Q

What is the major rhythm generator of respiration and what does it excite?

A
  • Dorsal respiratory neurones are excited by the Pre-Bötzinger complex in the medulla oblongata
  • When excitation subsides -> passive expiration
  • If dorsal neurones fire excessively, they activate adjacent ventral neurones which promote active expiration
  • pneumotaxic centre terminates inspiration
  • dorsal neurone firing can be increased by apneustic centre (IN THE PONS) -> prolonged inspiration
31
Q

What stimuli influences the rest centre

A

Higher brain centre, stretch receptors in the airways, juxtapulmonary receptors, joint receptors, baroreceptors, chemoreceptors

32
Q

Hering-Breuer-reflex

A

guard against hyperinflation, by pulmonary stretch receptors

33
Q

What do peripheral chemoreceptors sense?

Where are they?

A

O2, CO2, H+ conc

Carotid+aortic

34
Q

What do central chemoreceptors sense and where do they sit?

A

H+ conc in the cerebrospinal fluid, the more H+ the more CO2 due to bicarbonate reaction

35
Q

What is hypoxic drive?

A

Lack of oxygen stimulates chemoreceptors which increase respiration
->only significant if it falls below 8 kPa

36
Q

What causes hyperventilation at high altitudes?

A

Low PaO2 -> hypoxia -> stimulation of chemoreceptors

37
Q

Chronic adaptations at high altitudes

A
Increase in: 
-RBC production
-2,3 BPG produced within RBC
-number of capillaries
-number of mitochondria
Decrease in:
-pH
38
Q

What part of the respiratory tract does the SNS innervate?

A

None, it acts on the adrenal gland to promote adrenaline release

39
Q

What is the Gq protein associated with?

A

Calcium release

40
Q

Gs

A

cAMP production

41
Q

Gi

A

inhibits cAMP production

42
Q

What does the phosphorylation of MLC through MLCK do?

A

Promotes the formation of myosin cross bridge -> contraction

43
Q

What does the dephosphorylation of MLC through Myosin phosphatase do?

A

myosin cross bridge release -> relaxation

44
Q

What two things does adrenaline do to airway smooth muscle?

A
  1. phosphorylation of myosin phosphatase -> induces relaxation
  2. phosphorylation of MLC - inhibits contraction
45
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction Is asthma?

A

Type I - early

Type IV - late

46
Q

What does PKA do in the airway smooth muscles?

A

Phosphorylation of MLCK and myosin phosphatase -> inhibition of contraction, stimulation of relaxation

47
Q

What are the most common side effects?

A
Dysphonia (hoarse and weak voice)
Oropharyngeal candidas (thrush)
48
Q

What immune cells are involved in COPD

A

neutrophils, CD8+ T cells, macrophages

49
Q

Why are LAMAs (e.g. tiotropium) superior to SAMAs (e.g. ipratropium) in bronchodilation?

A

Ipratropium is non-selective -> acts on M1, M2, M3 receptors -> decreases M2’s inhibitory effect
Tiotropium is selective for M3 effector cells

50
Q

What do rhinitis and rhinorrhea do?

A
  • Increased mucosal flow
  • Increased blood vessel permeability

these cause swollen nasal mucosa -> difficulty breathing in

51
Q

What is the moa of sodium cromoglicate?

A

Mast cell stabiliser - stops them from granulating (releasing inflammatory mediators)

52
Q

What are the Gi tract’s layers from inside to outside and where are the nerve plexuses located?

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

Submucous (Meissner’s) plexus - submucosa
Myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus - muscularis externa

53
Q

What is the electrical rhythm of the stomach, small intestine, and colon?

A

Stomach - 3/min
Small intestine - 8-12/min
Colon - 8-16/min

54
Q

What are the secretagogues that induce acid secretion from the parietal cells?

A
  • ACh - can act both directly on ECL-cells as well as parietal cells
  • Gastrin - can act both directly on ECL-cells as well as parietal cells
  • Histamine - released from ECL-cells, acts on parietal cells
55
Q

What is the migrating motor complex, and when does it happen?

A

Strong peristaltic movement cleaning out all the left-over shit, in between meals.

56
Q

What does SGLT1 do?

A

Uses 2Na+ gradient to pump in a glucose ,molecule against its conc gradient.

57
Q

Why is haustration important?

A

Non-propulsive segmentation allows time for fluid and electrolyte reabsorption

58
Q

Cullen’s sign

A

bruising around the umbilicus

59
Q

grey turner’s sign

A

bruising along the flanks

60
Q

Courvoisier’s law

A

Jaundice + enlarged/palpable mass = highly suspicious of pancreatic malignancy

61
Q

horner’s syndrome

A

miosis + ptosis + anhidrosis

62
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

too much cortisol

63
Q

Brugada syndrome

A

Inherited Na+ channel-patchy in the myocardium

64
Q

tetralogy of fallot

A
  1. pulmonary stenosis
  2. RVH
  3. ventricular septal defect
  4. overriding aorta

->combination of congenital abnormalities

65
Q

ALT

A
  • Serum transaminase, transfer amino groups for mitochondrial energy production, predominantly glucose
  • very sensitive
  • look for 10-fold increase
  • extremely high in cholelithiasis, >1-2000 U/L
66
Q

AST

A
  • Serum transaminase, transfer amino groups for mitochondrial energy production, predominantly glucose
  • usually becomes deranged with ALT
  • extra enzyme to show hepatocellular pathology
67
Q

ALP

A
  • catalyse the hydrolysis of esters on the epithelial cells of billiary ducts
  • cholestasis raises ALP levels as it enhances synthesis and release
  • look for 3-fold increase
68
Q

GGT

A
  • Enzyme involved in gluthionine metabolism in the liver
  • GGT is inducible (drugs, alcohol, other diseases can increase it)
  • can help determine whether raised ALP is of bone or liver origin
69
Q

Bilirubin

A
  • Breakdown product of heme
  • conjugated in the liver
  • bilirubin in the urine means that there is a post-hepatic obstruction (bile ducts)