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Cram Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum number of computers recommended for inclusion in a
peer-to-peer network?

❍ A. 2
❍ B. 5
❍ C. 10
❍ D. 25

A

C. The maximum number of computers recommended in a peer-to-peer network
is 10

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2
Q

When a WAN is confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus
or city, it is known as a

❍ A. LAN
❍ B. MAN
❍ C. VAN
❍ D. VPN

A

B. A WAN can be referred to as a MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) when it is
confined to a certain geographic area, such as a university campus or city.

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3
Q

You have been asked to install a network to give the network users the greatest
amount of fault tolerance. Which of the following network topologies would you
choose?

❍ A. Star
❍ B. Ring
❍ C. Mesh
❍ D. Bus

A

C. A mesh network uses a point-to-point connection to every device on the network.
This creates multiple points for the data to transmit around the network
and therefore creates a high degree of redundancy. The star, ring, and bus
topologies do not offer fault tolerance.

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4
Q

Which of the following topologies enables network expansion with the least
amount of disruption for the current network users?

❍ A. Bus
❍ B. Ring
❍ C. LAN
❍ D. Star

A

D. On a star network, each network device uses a separate cable to make a
point-to-point connection to a centralized device such as a hub or switch. With
such a configuration, you can add a new device to the network by attaching the
new device to the hub or switch with its own cable. This process does not disrupt
the users who are currently on the network. Answers A and B are incorrect
because the addition of new network devices on a ring or bus network can
cause a disruption in the network and cause network services to be unavailable
during the installation of a new device. A LAN (local area network) is created
using any topology and is not a topology in and of itself.

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5
Q

You have been asked to connect two office locations. It has been specified that
you use a wireless link. Which of the following strategies would you use to connect

the two offices?
❍ A. Point-to-point
❍ B. Wireless mesh
❍ C. PtMP
❍ D. Star bus hybrid
A

A. In a point-to-point (PtP) wireless configuration, the communication link travels
from one node directly to one other node. Wireless point-to-point systems are
often used in wireless backbone systems such as microwave relay communications
or as a replacement for a single wired communication cable. You can use
the point-to-point link to connect two locations to share data and resources. The
other choices are not appropriate options for creating the wanted connection.

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6
Q

Which network topology offers the greatest level of redundancy but also has the
highest implementation cost?

❍ A. Wireless mesh
❍ B. Wired mesh
❍ C. Hybrid star
❍ D. Bus network

A

B. The wired mesh topology requires each computer on the network to be individually
connected to every other device. This configuration provides maximum
reliability and redundancy for the network. However, of those listed, it is the most
costly to implement because of the multiple wiring requirements.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements are associated with a bus LAN network?
(Choose all correct answers.)

❍ A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
❍ B. All devices connect to a central device.
❍ C. It uses a single backbone to connect all network devices.
❍ D. It uses a dual-ring configuration

A

A, C. In a bus network, a single break in the network cable can disrupt all the
devices on that segment of the network—a significant shortcoming. A bus network
also uses a single cable as a backbone to which all networking devices
attach. A star network requires networked devices to connect to a centralized
device such as a hub or MSAU. It does not use a dual-ring configuration.
Therefore, answer B is incorrect.

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8
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a VPN?

❍ A. It is any protocol that enables remote clients to log in to a server over
a network such as the Internet.
❍ B. It provides a system whereby only screen display and keyboard and
mouse input travel across the link.
❍ C. It is a secure communication channel across a public network such
as the Internet.
❍ D. It is a protocol used to encrypt user IDs and passwords.

A

C. A VPN provides a secure communication path between devices over a public
network such as the Internet.

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9
Q

Which of the following are required to establish a VPN connection? (Choose all
correct answers.)

❍ A. VPN server
❍ B. VPN client
❍ C. VPN protocols
❍ D. VPN MAC identification

A

A, B, C. Many elements are involved in establishing a VPN connection. This
includes the VPN client to initiate the session, the VPN server to answer the
client requests, and the VPN protocols to secure and establish the connection.

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10
Q

Which of the following are valid ways to assign computers to a VLAN? (Choose
the three best answers.)

❍ A. Protocol assignment
❍ B. Port-based assignment
❍ C. NetBIOS computer name
❍ D. MAC address

A

A, B, D. VLANs can be created by using protocol assignments, by defining the
ports on a device as belonging to a VLAN, or by using MAC addresses. VLANs
cannot be created by using the NetBIOS computer name.

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11
Q

At which OSI layer does an AP operate?

❍ A. Network
❍ B. Physical
❍ C. Data link
❍ D. Session

A

C. A wireless access point (AP) operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
An example of a network layer device is a router. An example of a physical layer
device is a hub. Session layer components normally are software, not hardware.

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12
Q

Which of the following are sublayers of the data link layer? (Choose two.)

❍ A. MAC
❍ B. LCL
❍ C. Session
❍ D. LLC

A

A, D. The data link layer is broken into two distinct sublayers: Media Access
Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC). LCL is not a valid term. Session is
another of the OSI model layers.

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13
Q

At which two OSI layers can a switch operate? (Choose two.)

❍ A. Layer 1
❍ B. Layer 2
❍ C. Layer 3
❍ D. Layer 4

A

B, C. A switch uses the MAC addresses of connected devices to make its forwarding
decisions. Therefore, it is called a data link, or Layer 2, network device.
It can also operate at layer 3 or be a multilayer switch. Devices or components
that operate at Layer 1 typically are media-based, such as cables or connectors.
Layer 4 components typically are software-based, not hardware-based.

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14
Q

Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for establishing connections
between two devices?

❍ A. Network
❍ B. Transport
❍ C. Session
❍ D. Data link

A

B. The transport layer is responsible for establishing a connection between networked
devices. The network layer is most commonly associated with route discovery
and datagram delivery. Protocols at the session layer synchronize the
data exchange between applications on separate devices. Protocols at the data
link layer perform error detection and handling for the transmitted signals and
define the method by which the medium is accessed

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15
Q

TCP is an example of what kind of transport protocol?

❍ A. Connection-oriented
❍ B. Connection-reliant
❍ C. Connection-dependent
❍ D. Connectionless

A

A. TCP is an example of a connection-oriented transport protocol. UDP is an
example of a connectionless protocol. Connection-reliant and connectiondependent
are not terms commonly associated with protocols.

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16
Q

Which of the following are considered transport protocols? (Choose the two best
answers.)

❍ A. TCP
❍ B. IP
❍ C. UDP
❍ D. THC

A

A, C. Both TCP and UDP are transport protocols. IP is a network protocol, and
THC is not a valid protocol.

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17
Q

What is the function of ARP?

❍ A. It resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses.
❍ B. It resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
❍ C. It resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.
❍ D. It resolves hostnames to IP addresses.

A

C. ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses. Answer A describes the function
of RARP, Answer B describes the process of WINS, and Answer D describes
the process of DNS resolution.

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18
Q

What is the function of NTP?

❍ A. It provides a mechanism for the sharing of authentication information.
❍ B. It is used to access shared folders on a Linux system.
❍ C. It is used to communicate utilization information to a central manager.
❍ D. It is used to communicate time synchronization information between
systems.

A

D. NTP is used to communicate time synchronization information between
devices. NFS (Network File System) is a protocol typically associated with
accessing shared folders on a Linux system. Utilization information is communicated
to a central management system most commonly by using the SNMP
protocol

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19
Q

Which of the following protocols offers guaranteed delivery?

❍ A. FTP
❍ B. IPX
❍ C. IP
❍ D. TCP

A

D. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that guarantees delivery of data. FTP is
a protocol used to transfer large blocks of data. IPX stands for Internetwork
Packet Exchange. IP is a network layer protocol responsible for tasks such as
addressing and route discovery.

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20
Q

During a discussion with your ISP’s technical support representative, he mentions
that you might have been using the wrong FQDN. Which TCP/IP-based
network service is he referring to?

❍ A. DHCP
❍ B. WINS
❍ C. SNMP
❍ D. DNS

A

D. DNS is a system that resolves hostnames to IP addresses. The term FQDN is
used to describe the entire hostname. None of the other services use FQDNs.

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21
Q

Which DNS record stores additional hostnames, or aliases, for hosts in the
domain?

❍ A. ALSO
❍ B. ALIAS
❍ C. CNAME
❍ D. PTR

A

C. The CNAME record stores additional hostnames, or aliases, for hosts in the
domain

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22
Q

What are SNMP databases called?

❍ A. HOSTS
❍ B. MIBs
❍ C. WINS
❍ D. Agents

A

B. SNMP uses databases of information called MIBs to define what parameters
are accessible, which of the parameters are read-only, and which can be set.

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23
Q

What are logical groupings of SNMP systems known as?

❍ A. Communities
❍ B. Pairs
❍ C. Mirrors
❍ D. Nodes

A

A. SNMP communities are logical groupings of systems. When a system is configured
as part of a community, it communicates only with other devices that
have the same community name.

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24
Q

What are two features supported in SNMPv3 and not previous versions?

❍ A. Authentication
❍ B. Dynamic mapping
❍ C. Platform independence
❍ D. Encryption

A
  1. A and D. SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption
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25
Q

same IP address. What feature of DHCP enables you to accomplish this?

❍ A. Stipulation
❍ B. Rider
❍ C. Reservation
❍ D. Provision

A

C. Reservations are specific addresses reserved for clients.

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common packet sent during the normal DHCP
process?

❍ A. DHCPACK
❍ B. DHCPPROVE
❍ C. DHCPDISCOVER
❍ D. DHCPOFFER

A

B. DHCPPROVE is not a common packet. The other choices presented (DHCPACK,
DHCPDISCOVER, and DHCPOFFER) are part of the normal process.

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27
Q

What is the IPv6 equivalent of 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)

❍ A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
❍ B. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:24
❍ C. ::1
❍ D. ::24

A

A and C. The IPv4 address 127.0.0.1 is reserved as the loopback address, and
IPv6 has the same reservation. IPv6 addresses 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 and 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
are reserved as the loopback addresses. The address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 can be
shown using the :: notation with the 0s removed, resulting in ::1.

28
Q

Which of the following is a Class B address?

❍ A. 129.16.12.200
❍ B. 126.15.16.122
❍ C. 211.244.212.5
❍ D. 193.17.101.27

A

A. Class B addresses fall into the range 128 to 191. Answer A is the only
address listed that falls into that range. Answer B is a Class A address, and
answers C and D are Class C IP addresses.

29
Q

You are the administrator for a network with two Windows Server systems and
65 Windows 7 systems. At 10 a.m., three users call to report that they are experiencing
network connectivity problems. Upon investigation, you determine that
the DHCP server has failed. How can you tell that the DHCP server failure is the
cause of the connectivity problems experienced by the three users?

❍ A. When you check their systems, they have an IP address of 0.0.0.0.
❍ B. When you check their systems, they have an IP address in the
192.168.x.x address range.
❍ C. When you check their systems, they have a default gateway value of
255.255.255.255.
❍ D. When you check their systems, they have an IP address from the
169.254.x.x range.

A

D. When a Windows 7 system that is configured to obtain an IP address via
DHCP fails to obtain an address, it uses APIPA to assign itself an address from
the 169.254.x.x address range. An address of 0.0.0.0 normally results from a
system that does not support APIPA. APIPA does not use the 192.168.x.x
address range. The IP address 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address. A
DHCP failure would not lead to a system assigning itself this address.

30
Q

Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Choose three.)

❍ A. Broadcast
❍ B. Multicast
❍ C. Unicast
❍ D. Anycast

A

B, C, and D. A key difference between IPv4 and IPv6 is in the address types.
IPv6 addressing has three main types of addresses: unicast, multicast, and anycast.
IPv4 uses broadcast addressing, but IPv6 doesn’t.

31
Q

Which of the following IP addresses is not from a private address range?

❍ A. 192.168.200.117
❍ B. 172.16.3.204
❍ C. 127.45.112.16
❍ D. 10.27.100.143

A

C. The 127.x.x.x network range is reserved for the loopback function. It is not
one of the recognized private address ranges. The private address ranges as
defined in RFC 1918 are 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x, and 192.168.x.x.

32
Q

You have been assigned to set up a new network with TCP/IP. For the external
interfaces, you decide to obtain registered IP addresses from your ISP, but for
the internal network, you choose to configure systems by using one of the private
address ranges. Of the following address ranges, which one would you not
consider?

❍ A. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
❍ B. 131.16.0.0 to 131.16.255.255
❍ C. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
❍ D. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

A

B. The 131.16 range is from the Class B range and is not one of the recognized
private IP address ranges. All the other address ranges are valid private IP
address ranges.

33
Q

You ask your ISP to assign a public IP address for the external interface of your
Windows 2008 server, which is running a proxy server application. In the email
message you get that contains the information, the ISP tells you that you have
been assigned the IP address 203.15.226.12/24. When you fill out the subnet
mask field on the IP configuration dialog box on your system, what subnet mask
should you use?

❍ A. 255.255.255.255
❍ B. 255.255.255.0
❍ C. 255.255.240.0
❍ D. 255.255.255.240

A

B. In CIDR terminology, the number of bits to be included in the subnet mask is
expressed as a slash value. If the slash value is 24, the first three octets form the
subnet mask, so the value is 255.255.255.0.

34
Q

As the network administrator, you decide to block port 80. Which of the following
services will be unavailable for network users?

❍ A. DNS
❍ B. POP3
❍ C. FTP
❍ D. HTTP

A

D. The HTTP service uses port 80, so blocking port 80 prevents users from using
the HTTP service. Answer A is incorrect because DNS uses port 53. Answer B is
incorrect because POP3 uses port 110. Answer C is incorrect because FTP uses
port 21

35
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly used port for FTP in modern
implementations?

❍ A. 20
❍ B. 21
❍ C. 23
❍ D. 27

A

B. The most commonly used port for FTP in modern implementations is 21.

36
Q
  1. Your colleague decides to close all unused ports on the corporate firewall to further
    secure the network from intruders. The open ports are 25, 80, 110, and 53.
    Your colleague knows that ports 25 and 110 are required for email and that port
    80 is used for nonsecure web browsing, so he decides to close port 53 because
    he doesn’t think it is necessary. Which network service is now unavailable?

❍ A. Secure HTTP
❍ B. FTP
❍ C. Telnet
❍ D. DN

A

D. The DNS service uses port 53. If this port is accidentally blocked, the
DNS service will be unavailable. Answer A is incorrect because secure HTTP
uses port 443. Answer B is incorrect because FTP uses port 21. Answer C is
incorrect because Telnet uses port 23.

37
Q
  1. You are working on a Linux system, and you suspect that there might be a problem
    with the TCP/IP configuration. Which of the following commands would you
    use to view the system’s network card configuration?

❍ A. config
❍ B. ipconfig
❍ C. winipcfg
❍ D. ifconfig

A

D. On a Linux system, the ifconfig command shows the network card configuration.
Answer A is incorrect because the config command shows the
network configuration on a NetWare server. Answer B is incorrect because
the ipconfig command shows the network configuration information on a
Windows system. Answer C is incorrect because the winipcfg command
shows the network configuration information on a certain Windows system,
such as Windows 95/98.

38
Q
  1. You have configured network clients to obtain IP addresses using APIPA. Which
    of the following IP ranges would be assigned to client systems?

❍ A. 10.10.0.0 to 10.254.254.0
❍ B. 169.168.0.0 to 169.168.255.255
❍ C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.254.254
❍ D. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254

A

D. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved addresses
169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 for Automatic Private IP Addressing. APIPA
uses a Class B address with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. None of the other
IP address ranges listed are associated with APIPA address ranges.

39
Q
  1. Your manager asks you to implement a fault-tolerant disk solution on your server.
    You have two 3TB hard disks and two controllers, so you decide to implement
    RAID 1. After the installation, your manager asks you how much storage space is
    now available for storing data. What do you tell her?

❍ A. 3TB
❍ B. 4TB
❍ C. 6TB
❍ D. 12TB

A

A. In a RAID 1 scenario in which two controllers are used (disk duplexing),
one disk carries an exact copy of the other. Therefore, the total volume of one
disk (3TB in this case) is lost to redundancy.

40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes PRI ISDN?

❍ A. PRI ISDN uses 128 B channels and two D channels.
❍ B. PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels and one D channel.
❍ C. PRI ISDN uses two B channels and one D channel.
❍ D. PRI ISDN uses 23 D channels and one B channel.

A

B. Primary Rate ISDN (PRI) uses 23 B channels to carry data and one D
channel to carry signaling information. Answer C is incorrect because it
describes Basic Rate ISDN (BRI). Answers A and D are invalid.

41
Q
  1. Which of the following media types is used with the 802.3 1000BaseSX standard?

❍ A. Coaxial
❍ B. UTP
❍ C. Single-mode fiber-optic
❍ D. Multimode fiber-optic

A

D. The Gigabit Ethernet standard 1000BaseSX specifies multimode fiberoptic
cable. 1000BaseSX can be used up to 550 meters. Answers B and C are
incorrect because the 1000BaseSX gigabit Ethernet standard does not specify
the use of single-mode fiber-optic cable or UTP cabling. Answer A is incorrect
because no Gigabit Ethernet standards use coaxial cabling.

42
Q
  1. What is the name of the bridging method used to segregate Ethernet networks?

❍ A. Source-route
❍ B. Invisible
❍ C. Cut-through
❍ D. Transparent

A

D. The bridging method used on Ethernet networks is called transparent
because the other network devices are unaware of the existence of the bridge.
Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because source-route bridges are used on
Token Ring networks, invisible is not a type of bridge, and cut-through is a
switching method, not a type of bridge.

43
Q
  1. Which of the following IEEE specifications does CSMA/CD relate to?

❍ A. 802.11b
❍ B. 802.2
❍ C. 802.5
❍ D. 802.3

A

D. CSMA/CD relates to the IEEE specification 802.3. The 802.11b standard
(answer A) describes wireless LAN networking. The 802.2 standard (answer
B) defines the media access methods for various networking standards. The
802.5 standard (answer C) defines token ring networking

44
Q
  1. At which layer of the OSI model does a NIC operate?

❍ A. Physical
❍ B. Network
❍ C. Data link
❍ D. Transport

A

C. Although it provides the physical connection to the network, a NIC is considered
a data link device. Answers A, B, and D are wrong because a NIC is
not said to operate at any of these layers.

45
Q
  1. You are installing a wireless network solution that uses a feature known as MIMO. Which wireless networking standard are you using?

❍ A. 802.11a
❍ B. 802.11b
❍ C. 802.11g
❍ D. 802.11n

A

D. Multiple input and multiple output (MIMO) is the use of multiple antennas
at both the transmitter and receiver to improve communication performance.
MIMO is used by the 802.11n standard and takes advantage of multiplexing
to increase the range and speed of wireless networking. Multiplexing
is a technique that combines multiple signals for transmission over a single
line or medium. MIMO enables the transmission of multiple data streams
traveling on different antennas in the same channel at the same time. A
receiver reconstructs the streams, which have multiple antennas. The wireless
standards in answers A, B, and C do not use the MIMO technology.

46
Q

You are implementing a 1000BaseT network. Which logical topology does the
network use?

❍ A. Ring
❍ B. Star
❍ C. Mesh
❍ D. Bus

A

D. The 1000BaseT standard defines an Ethernet network using twisted-pair
cable, which would be configured in a physical star configuration. However,
even in a star configuration, an Ethernet network still uses a logical bus
topology.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following devices are specifically designed to deal with attenuation?
    (Choose two.)

❍ A. Switch
❍ B. Passive hub
❍ C. DHCP server
❍ D. Repeater

A

A, D. Data signals weaken as they travel down a particular medium. This is
known as attenuation. To increase the distance a signal can travel, you can
regenerate the data signal to give it more strength. A hardware repeater
regenerates the data signal as it passes, allowing it to travel farther. Repeaters
typically are no longer standalones device; rather, they are included with the
function of a switch. Answers B and C are incorrect because a passive hub and
DHCP server are not designed to deal with attenuation.

48
Q
  1. You have installed a web-based database system on your PC so that you can
    enter troubleshooting information and retrieve it from any location on the network.
    Your system’s IP address is 192.168.1.164. You are not overly concerned
    about security, but as a basic measure, you allocate the web server application a
    port number of 9191 rather than the default port of 80. Assuming that you are
    working from another system on the network, what would you type into the
    address bar of a web browser to access the database?

❍ A. http://192.168.1.164.9191
❍ B. http://192.168.1.164/9191
❍ C. http://192.168.1.164//9191
❍ D. http://192.168.1.164:9191

A

D. To specify a TCP/IP port other than the default of 80, simply append the
port number to the end of the address, using a colon (:) to separate the two.

49
Q
  1. Which of the following protocols maps Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses
    on a TCP/IP network?

❍ A. ARPA
❍ B. ARP
❍ C. AARP
❍ D. RARP

A

D. A Layer 2 address is a MAC address. A Layer 3 address is a software-configured
protocol address. Because a normal resolution is considered to be a Layer 3-to-Layer 2 resolution, the resolution the other way is considered a
reverse resolution. On a TCP/IP network, such a resolution is performed by Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). Answer A is incorrect because ARPA is not an address resolution protocol. Answer B is incorrect because
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses. Answer C is incorrect because AppleTalk Address Resolution
Protocol was used, on older AppleTalk networks, to resolve AppleTalk addresses to MAC addresses.

50
Q
  1. You have been asked to implement a server clustering strategy. Which of the following
    are reasons to use server clustering? (Choose two.)

❍ A. To increase data transmission security over the LAN
❍ B. To increase data transmission security over the WAN
❍ C. To increase server service fault tolerance
❍ D. To reduce network downtime

A

C, D. Server clustering is a strategy using a grouping of servers to provide
fault tolerance and failover service solutions for a network. In a clustered configuration,
servers constantly communicate with each other. If one fails, the
other knows, and it takes over the functions of that server, including the services
that the failed server delivered. This provides fault tolerance for network
services. Because the network can function in the event of a failed server, network
downtime is reduced. Answers A and B are incorrect because server clustering
is not used to create or increase data transmission security.

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) technology?

❍ A. VHDSL
❍ B. RADSL
❍ C. ADSL
❍ D. XTDSL

A

D. XTDSL is not a recognized form of DSL. Answer A (VHDSL) and
Answer B (RADSL) are recognized versions of DSL. Answer C (ADSL) is a
recognized, and arguably the most popular, version of DSL.

52
Q
  1. You come into work on Monday to find that the DHCP server failed over the
    weekend. Before you can fix it, DHCP enabled client systems boot up and can
    communicate with each other. However, they cannot directly access the Internet
    or a remote network segment. Given that the DHCP server has failed, how can
    the systems communicate?

❍ A. The DHCP service was recovered automatically using the Windows
XP automatic restoration utility.
❍ B. The DHCP addressing information was obtained from the client
cache.
❍ C. The client systems are assigned an IP address using APIPA.
❍ D. The client systems are using static IP addressing.

A

C. If a Windows client system cannot locate and obtain an IP address from a
DHCP server, it is automatically assigned an address using APIPA. After the
address is assigned, all client stations with an APIPA address can communicate
with each other. However, APIPA addresses are meant for internal communication
and cannot be used to access remote networks. Answer A is incorrect
because there is no such thing. Answer B is incorrect because the IP address is
obtained from the DHCP server, not from the client cache. Answer D is
incorrect because the client was not configured to use static IP addressing.

53
Q
  1. Which of the following are reasons to implement a proxy server? (Choose two.)

❍ A. To centrally control Internet access
❍ B. To protect the internal network from intruders
❍ C. To provide NAT services
❍ D. To provide automatic IP addressing on the network

A

A, C. A proxy server acts as a centralized point for Internet access, thus making
it easy to control a user’s Internet use. Also, the proxy server provides network
address translation services as requests are sent to the Internet using the
address of the proxy server’s external interface, not the system that sent it.
Answer B describes the function of a firewall. Although some proxy servers
also offer firewall functionality, they are separate operations. Answer D
describes the function of DHCP.

54
Q
  1. You are tasked with specifying a way to connect two buildings across a parking
    lot. The distance between the two buildings is 78 meters. An underground wiring
    duct exists between the two buildings; although, there are concerns about using
    it because it also houses high-voltage electrical cables. The budget for the project
    is tight, but your manager still wants you to specify the most suitable solution.
    Which of the following cable types would you recommend?

❍ A. Fiber-optic
❍ B. UTP
❍ C. Thin coax
❍ D. STP

A

A. Fiber-optic cable provides the most resistance to EMI and therefore is
often used in environments that have a risk of interference. Although it is
inexpensive, UTP cable (answer B) and thin coax (answer C) have low resistance
to EMI; therefore, they should not be run near high-voltage electric
cables. STP (answer D) has a good level of resistance to EMI, but it is still not
as resistant as fiber-optic. Not factoring in the cost, fiber-optic is the most
suitable solution.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid Class C address that could be assigned to a
    workstation on the network?

❍ A. 200.200.200.200
❍ B. 200.200.200.255
❍ C. 143.67.151.17
❍ D. 203.16.42.0

A

A. Although it looks odd, this is a valid Class C address that could be assigned
to a system on the network. Answer B is the broadcast address of the network
200.200.200.0. Answer C is a valid Class B address. Answer D is the network
address for the network 203.16.42

56
Q
  1. At which layer of the OSI model is flow control performed?

❍ A. Network
❍ B. Transport
❍ C. Session
❍ D. Data link

A

B. Flow control occurs at the transport layer of the OSI model. Answers A, C,
and D are incorrect because flow control does not occur at the network, session,
or data link layers.

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of IMAP?

❍ A. IMAP leaves messages on the mail server so that they can be viewed
and accessed from various locations.
❍ B. IMAP is used to send as well as receive email.
❍ C. IMAP can be used only to send mail.
❍ D. IMAP uses port 110.

A

A. Unlike POP3, IMAP does not directly download and then remove messages
from the mail server. Instead, IMAP leaves the email on the server so
that messages can be retrieved from various locations. Answers B and C are
wrong because IMAP is used only to retrieve email. Answer D is incorrect
because IMAP uses port 143. POP uses port 110.

58
Q
  1. Which of the address types sends data to all systems on a subnet or network
    instead of single hosts?

❍ A. Multicast
❍ B. Unicast
❍ C. Broadcast
❍ D. Anycast

A

C. IPv4 broadcast addresses are IP addresses that can target all systems on a
subnet or network instead of single hosts. In other words, a broadcast message
goes to everyone on the network or to a specific network segment. Answer A,
multicast, sends data to an entire identified group of network users. Answer B,
unicast, sends data to a specific system. Answer D is incorrect because anycast
is not a valid networking term.

59
Q
  1. Your ISP account manager suggests that it might be appropriate for you to
    install a DNS server internally. Which of the following functions does the DNS
    server perform?

❍ A. It performs network address translation services.
❍ B. It streamlines the resolution of NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
❍ C. It allows some hostname-to-IP address resolutions to occur internally.
❍ D. It allows users to retrieve Internet web pages more quickly.

A 
C. DNS enables hostname resolutions to internally occur. In most cases, companies
use a DNS server provided by the ISP. In some cases, however, it might
be appropriate to have a DNS server on the internal network. Answer A is
incorrect because NAT is normally a function of firewall or proxy servers.
Answer B describes the purpose of a WINS server. Answer D describes the
function of a proxy server.
60
Q
  1. Which of the following IPv6 addressing types is associated with IPv4 automatic 169.254.0.0 addressing?

❍ A. Link-local
❍ B. Site-local
❍ C. Global address
❍ D. Unicast

A

A. A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on all interfaces. This
automatic configuration is equivalent to the 169.254.0.0 automatically
assigned IPv4 addressing. The prefix used for a link-local address is fe80::.
Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because this address falls only within the
range of link-local addresses.

61
Q
  1. Which of the following utilities would you use to view the TCP connections that have been established between two systems?

❍ A. netstat
❍ B. nbtstat
❍ C. tracert
❍ D. ipconfig

A

A. The netstat utility enables you to view the TCP/IP connections between two
systems. The nbtstat utility (answer B) is used to see the status of NetBIOS over
TCP/IP connections. The tracert utility (answer C) is used to track the path
that a packet of data takes between two hosts. The ipconfig utility (answer D) is
used to view the IP addressing configuration information on a system

62
Q
  1. Which of the following authentication systems uses tickets as part of its authentication
    process?

❍ A. HTTPS
❍ B. POP3
❍ C. Kerberos
❍ D. SSL

A

C. The Kerberos authentication system uses tickets as part of the authentication
process. HTTPS (answer A) is an implementation of SSL. It does not use
tickets. POP3 (answer B) is an email retrieval protocol. SSL (answer D) does
not use tickets

63
Q
  1. Which of the following terms describes how long it takes routers to update changes in the network topology?

❍ A. Poison reverse
❍ B. Split horizon with poison reverse
❍ C. Convergence
❍ D. BGP

A

C. Convergence is the term used to describe how long it takes routers to
update changes to the network. Routing loops can occur on networks with
slow convergence. Routing loops occur when the routing tables on the routers
are slow to update, and a redundant communication cycle is created between
routers. Answers A and B are strategies to prevent routing loops. Answer D is
incorrect because BGP is a distance-vector protocol.

64
Q
  1. Which term describes the process of using parts of the node address range of
    an IP address as the network ID?

❍ A. Subnetting
❍ B. Supernetting
❍ C. Subnet masking
❍ D. Super routing

A

A. The term subnetting refers to the process of using parts of the node
address range for network addressing purposes. Supernetting (answer B) refers
to the process to borrow parts of the network address portion of an assigned
address to be used for node addressing. Subnet masking (answer C) describes
the process to apply a subnet mask to an address. Answer D is not a valid
term.

65
Q
  1. What network device forwards packets only to an intended port?

❍ A. Hub
❍ B. Switch
❍ C. PPPoE
❍ D. PPP

A

B. A switch is more efficient than a hub because it forwards data only to
intended ports. Answer A is incorrect because a hub directs data packets to all
devices connected to the hub. Answers C and D are wrong because these are
not network devices.

66
Q
  1. A user on your network can send data packets within the local subnet but cannot send packets beyond the local subnet. Which of the following is likely the problem?

❍ A. Invalid permissions
❍ B. Incorrect gateway information
❍ C. No DNS server is installed
❍ D. No WINS server is installed

A

B. If the gateway information is not correctly set, the data packets cannot get
beyond the local subnet. All the other options do not prevent the user from
transmitting data to remote hosts.

67
Q
  1. You are the administrator for a network that uses TCP/IP. You are using a single
    registered Class C network address. You want to continue to use it because
    many of your systems are accessed from outside sources, but you also want to
    create more networks so that you can more effectively manage traffic and security.
    Which of the following strategies would help you achieve this?

❍ A. Implement a 127.x.x.x addressing system throughout the network.
❍ B. Use reverse proxy.
❍ C. Use subnetting.
❍ D. Use private addressing.

A

C. Subnetting enables you to create more than one network from a single network
address by manipulating the subnet mask to create more network
addresses. Answer A is incorrect because the 127.x.x.x address range is
reserved for TCP/IPv4 loopback functionality and cannot be used as an
addressing scheme. Answer B is incorrect because reverse proxy is used when
a proxy server protects another server (normally a web server), which responds
to requests from users on the other side of the proxy server. Answer D is
incorrect because private addressing might well solve the issues of security and
traffic management, but without also using reverse proxy, systems on the
internal network are unavailable to outside users.

Network Plus (3 decks)

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