CR - Cardiovascular Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the ECG findings of Wellens’ Syndrome. What coronary artery is usually affected?

A

Deep symmetric T-wave inversion in V2 and V3 is seen in about 75% of patients and biphasic T-waves in V2 and V3 is seen in about 25% of patients. The T-wave abnormality may also extend to lead V4

Critical stenosis of the left anterior descending artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the initial ECG abnormality in patients with “torsades de pointes” a variant of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia?

A

Prolongation of the QTc interval.

QTc interval > 500 msec clearly increases risk for torsades

2-3 times higher in women than in men, account for 5% cardiac arrest .

Higher frequency in patients 35-50 years of age

In older patients, usually secondary to acquired long QT

Magnesium can be given at 1-2 g IV initially in 30-60 seconds, which then can be repeated in 5-15 minutes. Following conversion, a continuous infusion can be started at a rate of 1-2 g/hr

Can degenerate into v-fib arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the common precipitating factors of torsades de pointes?

A

Occurs as a result of a PVC during repolarization (T wave) in the setting of prolonged QT

Pointes mnemonic
Phenothiazines
Organophosphates / other meds (antibiotics, antiemetics, antipsychotics)
cardiac Ischemia / intracranial bleed (late complication)
No known cause (idiopathic)
Type 1 antiarrhythmics
Electrolytes (hypo K, hypo Mg)
Syndrome of prolonged QT

Other causes: hypothermia, hydrocarbon toxicity, chloral hydrate toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the therapeutic considerations for stable patients with torsades de pointes?

A
  1. Administer Mg 1-2 g IV over 15 min may follow with continuous IV infusion of 1-2 g/h
  2. Correct electrolytes if necessary
  3. Discontinuation of all QT prolonging drugs
  4. Increase HR
    a. Isoproterenol is 1st choice
    b. 2nd line: dobutamine, dopamine, epinephrine
    c. Overdrive pacing at rate of 100-120/min if pharmacologic agents fail.
  5. Lidocaine may also be of benefit because it can suppress the PVCs that initiate torsade and produces minimal effects on the QT-
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the best initial therapy for the unstable patient with rapid atrial fibrillation?

A

Synchronized cardioversion

Two options exist for placement of paddles on the chest wall.
1st - anterolateral
2nd - anteroposterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the initial therapy for symptomatic patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (such symptoms include syncope, atypical chest pain, dyspnea, and lightheadedness)?

A
  • Initiate beta blockers
  • Calcium channel blockers if beta blockers are contraindicated
  • Combination therapy if monotherapy with BB or CCB fails
    -BB +Disopyramide
    -CCB +Disopyramide
    -BB +non-Dihydropyridine CCB
  • LV myomectomy for severe cases
  • AICD needed for high risk patients (h/o cardiac arrest or sudden cardiac death in the family)
  • Avoid ionotropic drugs and ACE-inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are indications for endocarditis prophylaxis?

A

High risk conditions for endocarditis:
* Prosthetic heart valves and valve repair material
* Previous infective endocarditis
* Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
* Repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or residual defects
* Cardiac transplant recipients with valvulopathy
* Prophylaxis for any of the above conditions in a patient that is going to be undergoing a major dental procedure (not for simple dental cleaning).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the contraindications to anticoagulant therapy for patients with DVT?

A

Absolute contraindications
* Active bleeding
* Severe bleeding diathesis or platelet count </= 20,000/mm3
* Neurosurgery, ocular surgery or intracranial bleeding within the past 20 days

Relative contraindications
* Mild to moderate bleeding diathesis or thrombocytopenia (plt count less than normal but >20,000)
* Brain metastases, endocarditis
* Recent major trauma
* Major abdominal surgery </= 2 days
* GI or GU bleeding </= 14 days
* Severe hypertension (i.e. systolic BP >200, or diastolic >120 at presentation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the classic ECG finding in acute pericarditis

A

Widespread ST elevations and PR depression with ST depression in aVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ECG findings are typically found in acute digitalis toxicity?

A

Most common finding in digitalis toxicity is PVCs “Classic” findings include slow “regularized” atrial fibrillation (i.e. atrial fibrillation with complete heart block and junctional escape rhythm), or paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable block and slow ventricular rate also look for “digoxin effect” (slurred downstroke at the end of the QRS complex, i.e. “Salvador Dali mustache” appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 65-year-old woman with a PMH of CAD, CHF and renal insufficiency is brought in by ambulance for evaluation. Her medications include furosemide, digitalis, sublingual nitroglycerin and baby aspirin. According to family members, she has become progressively more confused and weak over the past few days and has not been eating well. The ECG shows a regular wide complex tachycardia with alternating QRS polarity (bi-directional ventricular tachycardia) and point of care laboratory evaluation reveals a potassium of 3.0. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Chronic intoxication with digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What diganosis should be excluded in a post-syncope patient with an incomplete RBBB pattern and ST elevation in the right precordial leads

A

The Brugada Syndrome
Sodium channel dysfunction predisposes patients to ventricular fibrillation. Drug therapy is ineffective. Placement of an internal cardioverter defibrillator is indicated.
* Type 1: The elevated ST segment (≥2 mm) descends with an upward convexity to an inverted T wave.
* Type 2: The ST segment has a “saddle back” ST-T wave configuration, in which the elevated ST segment descends toward the baseline, then rises again to an upright or biphasic T wave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of right-sided CHF?

A

Left-sided CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which conditions are most likely to predispose a patient to subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A
  1. Pre-existing valvular heart disease especially of the mitral and/or aortic valves. Mitral valve disease is most common.
  2. Injection drug use. The tricuspid valve (most commonly involved) is usually normal before onset of disease.

Note: murmur intensity can be variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the reasons for the high mortality rate (>70%) seen in patients with mesenteric vascular occlusion?

A
  1. Delayed diagnosis: symptoms of mesenteric vascular occlusion can be non-specific and may mimic other digestive disorders
  2. Rapid pregression
  3. Comorbidities: patients with mesenteric vascular occlusion often have underlying comorbidities, such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, or kidney disease
  4. Advanced age at which disease occurs has high frequency of comorbid disease (age >50 years old)
  5. Surgical complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the appropriate ED management of a small unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm in a healthy, asymptomatic, elderly patient?

A

Prompt outpatient referral
<4cm - 0% rupture risk/yr
4-5cm - 0.5-5%
5-6cm - 3-15%
6-7cm - 10-20%
7-8cm - 20-40%

Incidentally discovered AAA <3cm - no follow up
3-4 - annual ultrasound
4-4.5 - ultrasound every 6 months
>4.5cm - vascular surgeon referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common bacterial organism that causes infective endocarditis? Is this the same organism if the patient is an injecting drug user?

A

Most common bacterial organism that causes infective endocarditis (IE) is staphylococcus aureus (30-50% of all cases) regardless of IV drug use

Streptococcus viridans is the second most common cause, accounting for about 15-30% of cases

IV drug users have higher incidence of enterococcus faecalis compared to non-IV drug users but staphylococcus aureus remains the main cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the definition of unstable angina?

A

Angina that is new in onset, occurs at rest or is similar but somewhat “different” than previous episodes is severely limiting or lasts longer than a few minutes, with increased frequency of attacks or resistance to prescribed medications that previously relieved the symptoms (e.g. NTG, the “blockers”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the earliest and most common rhythm disturbance seen with digitalis toxicity?

A

PVCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the therapy of an idioventricular rhythm, because it may obliterate the patient’s only functioning rhythm?

A

Adenosine should be avoided as it can suppress the escape rhythm, which may be the patient’s only functioning rhythm, leading to complete heart block and asystole. Similarly, ventricular arrhythmias such as lidocaine, amiodarone, procainamide, etc., should also be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT)?

A

1 is hypoxia

The most important consideration in this dysrhythmia is aggressive treatment of the underlying cause(s) (hypoxia, CHF, sepsis, theophylline toxicity).

22
Q

What are common causes of sinus tachycardia?

A

Conditions in which catecholamine release is physiologically enhanced (flight, fright, anger, stress, pain)

Anemia
Cardiac ischemia, ACS
Cardiac tamponade
Drugs (stimulants, illicit drugs)
Fever
Hyperthyroidism
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Pain
Pulmonary embolism
Sepsis

23
Q

Describe the classic presentation of vasospastic angina

A

Substernal chest discomfort greater than 15 minutes duration associated with dyspnea, diaphoresis, lightheadedness, palpitations, nausea and/or vomiting, with pain likely radiating to one or both arms, shoulders, neck or jaw, typically exhibited within a few hours of awakening in the morning.

The ECG classically shows diffuse T-elevation but without reciprocal ST-depression

24
Q

A patient with the chief complaint of “syncope” has a systolic ejection-type murmur heard maximally either at the lower left sternal border or at the apex that increases with valsalva maneuver or standing and lessens with squatting. The ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy.

What is the suspected diagnosis and what is the initial treatment of choice?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Treatments of choice: beta blockers reduce dynamic obstruction during systole

25
Q

What are the typical ECG findings in an acute inferior wall MI?

A

Acutely ST segment elevation occurs in leads II, III, and aVF. Reciprocal ST segment depression may occur in leads I, aVL, and in V1-V3

Remember Q waves may take hours to develop or they may be absent

26
Q

Which drugs may be used for hypertensive emergencies in eclampsia prior to delivery

A

Hydralazine
Labetalol
Nifedipine

27
Q

Which diagnosis should be strongly considered in any patient older than 50 years of age who presents with abdominal pain, back / flank pain, hypotension, weakness or syncope?

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Remember that the absence of a palpable abdominal mass and or the presence of a palpable femoral pulses does not exclude this diagnosis

28
Q

What patient populations are likely to exhibit atypical presentation for acute coronary syndrome?

A

Elderly patients, diabetic patients, and women

29
Q

What is a therapeutic contraindication to the administration of IV calcium channel blockers

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. 2nd or 3rd degree AV block
  3. Sick sinus syndrome in people without pacemaker
  4. acute heart failure with a low ejection fraction
  5. Patient receiving IV beta blockers
  6. Ventricular tachycardia
30
Q

Which drugs are contraindicated in the treatment of ventricular tachydysrhythmias caused by digitalis toxicity?

A

Bretylium
Class 1 antidysrhythmics (proainamide, isoproterenol)
Propranolol

Phenytoin and lidocaine are safest. Most other cardiac drugs (isoproterenol, procainamide, amiodarone, beta blockers, calcium antagonists) may worsen dysrthymias or depress AV conduction. Digoxin immune fab (digibind, digifab) is preferred therapy

31
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is a common cause of dysrhythmias in AICD patients?

A

Hypomagnesemia

32
Q

What is the drug of choice for conversion of a narrow-complex supraventricular tachycardia in a patient with borderline blood pressure

A

Adenosine

SVT patients with a borderline or low blood pressure are candidates for cardioversion, but a quick trial of adenosine can be attempted first because, unlike other AV nodal blockers, it should not cause further hypotension

33
Q

What are alcoholics prone to the development of torsades de pointes and why is this important therapeutically?

A

Chronic alcoholism is associated with hypomangesmia which can lead to prolongation of the QT interval, a common cause of torsades. Treatment with magnesium is essential because this rhythm may degenerate into v-fibrillation

34
Q

Which type of angina is classically associated with ST segment elevation (rather than depression) and pain that is usually relieved promptly by nitrates?

A

Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina

This type of anginausually occurs at rest, most commonly occurring in the morning or at night

35
Q

What is considered the therapy of choice in the setting of an acute aortic dissection associated with hypertension

A

Intravenous beta blocker (propranolol, esmolol or labetalol) in combination with nitroprusside or another titratable afterload-reducing medication.

Note: the goal of therapy is reduction of aortic wall stress both by lowering blood pressure and by decreasing cardiac output.

36
Q

Clinical presentation: pain and swelling in the calf and tenderness on AP compression

  1. What is the initial diagnostic study of choice?
  2. What diagnostic study is the most sensitive?
A
  1. Duplex ultrasonography
  2. Venogram
37
Q

“Hypertensive emergency” is defined as an extreme elevation of BP with signs or symptoms of acute end-organ damage. What is an effective, reliable and safe drug for a hypertensive emergency in the setting of myocardial ischemia or CHF?

A

Nitroglycerin

38
Q

Nausea and vomiting may be the only presenting sign and symptom for which type of acute myocardial infarction?

A

Inferior wall MI

39
Q

What are the most frequent ECG findings in chronic ischemic heart disease?

A

Nonspecific ST and T wave changes (ST segment elevation/depression <1mm and T wave flattening or inversion)

Q waves

Bundle branch block

40
Q

Persistence of ST segment elevation in the weeks and months after myocardial infarction indicates the development of a ___

A

Left ventricular aneurysm

41
Q

What is the most common atrial dysrhythmia seen in the setting of an AMI?

A

Atrial fibrillation

42
Q

A middle-aged patient presents to the ED in acute pulmonary edema. He was seen a week ago for “chest pain” but signed out AMA before an ECG was done. Current ECG shows new Q waves and T-wave inversions in the inferior leads compared to an ECG from a month ago. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s distress?

A

Post MI papillary muscle rupture

43
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for symptomatic bradydysrhythmias in a patient with a heart transplant?

A

Isoproterenol is the preferred agent (continuous IV infusion 2-10 mcg/minute) because its chronotropic effects are greater than dopamine or dobutamine.

Atropine will have no effect on heart rate in these patients because of the lack of parasympathetic innervation in the transplanted heart.

44
Q

The most common complication of dilated cardiomyopathy is ___

A

Progressive CHF

45
Q

What classes of drugs are the most effective for the treatment of chronic CHF associated with dilated cardiomyopathies?

A

ACE inhibitors
ARBs
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists

46
Q

Which drug should be avoided in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

In general drugs that decrease ventricular filling or increase ventricular contractility

Non-dihydropyridine CCB
Disopyramide (increases LV size)
Digitalis (may worsen obstruction)
Nitrates
Inotropic drugs, sympathomimetic amines
Diuretics
ACE-inhibitors

47
Q

What is the most frequent complication associated with implantable cardioverter/defibrillators (ICDs)?

A

Inappropriate cardioversion is the most frequent complication (40%) associated with ICDs. This should be considered if a patient presents with atrial fibrillation or if a patient was received multiple shocks in rapid succession without premonitory symptoms.

main causes of inappropriate shocks: SVT, a fib, rapid supraventricular arrhythmias, nonsustained VT

48
Q

What are the criteria used in the HEART score?

A

History
ECG changes
Age
Risk factors
Troponin

49
Q

What other criteria are used to identify high-risk patients with an unremarkable ECG?

A

Age >/= 65 years
Congestive heart failure
New ST segment deviation >/= 0.5mm in limb and or precordial leads
New pathologic Q waves
Sustained ventricular tachycardia
Significant elevation of cardiac markers

50
Q
A