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Daniel's NASM CPT Exam Prep > CPT Test Prep > Flashcards

CPT Test Prep Flashcards

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1
Q

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

How many repetitions?

A

12-20

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2
Q

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

How many repetitions?

A

8-12 strength
superset
8-12 stability

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3
Q

Phase 3: Muscle Development

How many repetitions?

A

6-12

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4
Q

Phase 4: Maximal Strength

How many repetitions?

A

1-5

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5
Q

Phase 5: Power

How many repetitions?

A

1-5 (strength)

8-10 (power)

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6
Q

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

How many sets?

A

1-3 sets

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7
Q

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

How many sets?

A

2-4 sets
superset
2-4 sets

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8
Q

Phase 3: Muscle Development

How many sets?

A

3-6 sets

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9
Q

Phase 4: Maximal Strength

How many sets?

A

4-6 sets

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10
Q

Phase 5: Power

How many sets?

A

3-5 sets

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11
Q

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

What intensity?

A

12-20 rep goal

50-70% of 1RM

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12
Q

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

What intensity?

A

8-12 rep goal

70-80% of 1RM

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13
Q

Phase 3: Muscle Development

What intensity?

A

6-12 rep goal

75-85% of 1RM

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14
Q

Phase 4: Maximal Strength

What intensity?

A

1-5 rep goal

85-100% of 1RM

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15
Q

Phase 5: Power

What intensity?

A 
1-5 (strength) rep goal
8-10 (power) rep goal
10% of body weight
or
30-45% of 1RM
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16
Q

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

How much rest?

A

0-90 sec

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17
Q

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

How much rest?

A

0-60 sec

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18
Q

Phase 3: Muscle Development

How much rest?

A

0-3 min

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19
Q

Phase 4: Maximal Strength

How much rest?

A

2-4 min

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20
Q

Phase 5: Power

How much rest?

A

1-2 min between pairs

3-5 min between circuits

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21
Q

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

What tempo?

A

4-2-1-1 (slow)

e-i-c-i

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22
Q

Phase 2: Strength Endurance

What tempo?

A

2-0-2 (moderate)
superset
4-2-1-1 (slow)
e-i-c-i

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23
Q

Phase 3: Muscle Development

What tempo?

A

2-0-2 (moderate)

e-i-c

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24
Q

Phase 4: Max Strength

What tempo?

A

Explosive

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25
Q

Phase 5: Power

What tempo?

A

Explosive

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26
Q

A BOSU would be used in what phase of training?

A

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

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27
Q

One-leg balance exercises are generally used in what phase of training?

A

Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance

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28
Q

Medicine ball throwing exercises are generally used in what phase of training?

A

Phase 5: Power

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29
Q

Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.

A

lower crossed syndrome

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30
Q

Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.

A

upper crossed syndrome

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31
Q

Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips.

A

pes planus distortion syndrome

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32
Q

Which 3 muscle groups are overactive in pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

GSAH!

1) Gastrocnemius and Soleus
(2) Adductor complex (inner thigh
(3) Hip flexors (front of hips)

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33
Q

Which 2 muscle groups are underactive in pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

GT!

  1. Gluteus max and medius
  2. Tibialis anterior and posterior
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34
Q

Which 2 muscle groups are overactive in lower crossed syndrome?

A

LEHF

  1. Lumbar Extensors (low-back muscles)
  2. Hip Flexors
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35
Q

Which 3 muscle groups are underactive in lower crossed syndrome?

A

HAG!

  1. Hamstring complex
  2. Abdominals
  3. Gluteus maximus and medius
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36
Q

Which 3 muscle groups are overactive in upper crossed syndrome?

A

PUT LSS

  1. Pectoralis major and minor
  2. Upper Trapezius
  3. Levator Scapula and Sternocleidomastoid
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37
Q

Which muscle groups are underactive in upper crossed syndrome?

A

TRD Carl F*&%!

  1. Trapezius - middle and lower
  2. Rhomboids (mid-back muscles)
  3. Deep Cervical Flexors (muscle deep within the neck)
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38
Q

What does the gastrocnemius do concentrically?

A

accelerates plantar flexion

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39
Q

What does the gastrocnemius do eccentrically?

A

decelerates ankle dorsiflexion

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40
Q

What does the gastrocnemius do isometrically?

A

stabilizes the foot and ankle complex

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41
Q

In the Stages of Change Model: the individual does not exercise and is not planning to start exercising within the next 6 months.

A

Precontemplation stage

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42
Q

In the Stages of Change Model: the individual does not currently exercise but is planning to start within 6 months.

A

Contemplation stage

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43
Q

In the Stages of Change Model: the individual is planning to begin exercising soon and has taken steps toward it and may even be sporadically exercising.

A

Preparation stage

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44
Q

In the Stages of Change Model: the individual has been exercising for less than 6 months.

A

Action stage

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45
Q

In the Stages of Change Model: the individual has been exercising consistently for 6 months or more.

A

Maintenance stage

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46
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the neuron?

A
  1. cell body (includes nucleus, organelles, mitochondria)
  2. axon (cylindrical projection that transmits impulses to other neurons)
  3. dendrites (gather info from other parts of the body and transmit it back into the neuron)
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47
Q

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.

A

muscles spindles

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48
Q

A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of the skeletal muscle: sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.

A

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

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49
Q

Receptors located in and around the joint capsule that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.

A

Joint receptors

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50
Q

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

A

stretch reflex

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51
Q

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, rib cage, an the vertebral column.

A

Axial skeleton

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52
Q

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle.

A

Appendicular skeleton

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53
Q

The filaments of a myofibril; including actin and myosin.

A

myofilaments

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54
Q

The thin, string like, myofilament that acts along with the myosin to produce muscular contraction.

A

actin

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55
Q

The thick myofilament that acts along with actin to produce muscular contraction.

A

myosin

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56
Q

The structural unit of a myofibril composed of actin and myosin filaments between 2 Z-lines.

A

sarcomere

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57
Q

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, are more resistant to fatigue, and tend to be more distal from the heart.

A

Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibers

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58
Q

Muscle fibers hat are larger in size, generate higher amounts of force, are faster to fatigue, and tend to be more proximal to the heart.

A

Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers

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59
Q

The upper chambers of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart.

A

atrium (atria)

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60
Q

The lower (inferior) chambers of the heart that pump blood to the lungs and body.

A

ventricle

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61
Q

Located in the right atrium, this node initiates an electrical signal that causes the heart to beat. Nicknamed “the pacemaker of the heart”.

A

sinoatrial (SA) node

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62
Q

Located between the atria and ventricles, this node delays the impulse from the sinoatrial node before allowing it to pass to the ventricles.

A

atrioventricular (AV) node

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63
Q

Which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart: arteries or veins?

A

arteries (veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart)

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64
Q

Small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries.

A

arterioles

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65
Q

Small veins that allow blood to drain from capillaries into the larger veins.

A

venules

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66
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves: ____________ plane. Hint: imagine being stuck in a narrow hallway (front to back and up and down movement). The majority of exercises occur within this plane.

A

sagittal

67
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves: ____________ plane. Hint: imagine walls in front and behind you that only allow for side to side movement.

A

frontal

68
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves: ____________ plane. Hint: allows primarily for internal and external rotation.

A

transverse

69
Q

The primary muscles providing force for a movement.

A

agonist

70
Q

Muscles that assist the agonists to produce movement.

A

synergists

71
Q

The muscles on the opposite side of a joint that are in direct opposition of agonist muscles.

A

antagonists

72
Q

When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.

A

reciprocal inhibition

73
Q

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.

A

altered reciprocal inhibition

74
Q

What metabolic pathway is primarily used by a sprinter or powerlifter?
Definition: An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approx. 10-15 seconds, via the anaerobic metabolism. Uses carbs for fuel.

A

ATP-PC

75
Q

What metabolic pathway that supplies energy for approx. 20 seconds to 2 minutes. Think of a middle-distance runner. Uses carbs for fuel.

A

Glycolytic system (glycolysis)

76
Q

What metabolic pathway that supplies energy once the glycolytic system drops off (after 2 min). Think of a long-distance runner. Uses fat for fuel.

A

oxidative system

77
Q

How much energy per gram of protein?

A

4 calories

78
Q

How much energy per gram of carbohydrate?

A

4 calories

79
Q

How much energy per gram of fat (lipid)?

A

9 calories

80
Q

How much energy per gram of alcohol?

A

7 calories

81
Q

What is considered adequate protein intake?

A
  1. 6-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day

2. 4 g/kg of body weight per day (if in a caloric deficit)

82
Q

What is optimal caffeine dosing?

A

3-6 mg/kg (1.4-2.7 mg/lb) body weight provided 1 hour prior to exercise

83
Q

What is the detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)

84
Q

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.

A

Systolic blood pressure (SBP)

85
Q

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.

A

Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)

86
Q

What is considered elevated BP?

A

120-129 mm Hg (SBP) and <80 mm Hg (DBP)

87
Q

What is considered Stage 1 hypertension?

A

130-139 mm Hg (SBP) and 80-89 mm Hg (DBP)

88
Q

What is considered Stage 2 hypertension?

A

> 140 mm Hg (SBP) and >90 mm Hg (DBP)

89
Q

What is considered a hypertensive crisis?

A

> 180 mm Hg (SBP) and >120 mm Hg (DBP)

90
Q

What is considered underweight in BMI classification?

A

<18.5

91
Q

What is considered healthy weight in BMI classification?

A

18.5-24.9

92
Q

What is considered overweight in BMI classification?

A

25.0-29.9

93
Q

What is considered obese in BMI classification?

A

30-34.9

94
Q

What is considered Obese II in BMI classification?

A

35.0-39.9

95
Q

What is considered Obese III in BMI classification?

A

> 40

96
Q

The relative score expressing the ratio of the waist circumference to the hip circumference, which correlates to the risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

A

waist-to-hip ratio (WHR)

97
Q

More fat within the abdominal region of the body characterized as apple-shaped is called what? This is associated with elevated health risk.

A

android

98
Q

More fat within the hips and thigh regions of the body characterized as pear-shaped is called what? This is associated with a lower overall health risk when compared to apple-shape.

A

gynoid

99
Q

What are the 5 kinetic chain checkpoints?

A 
Head/neck
Shoulders
Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex (LPHC)
Knees
Feet/ankles
100
Q

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist).

A

synergistic dominance

101
Q

What are the 3 progressions of core training?

A
  1. Stabilization through the spine and pelvis without gross movement of the trunk.
  2. Dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine through a full range of motion.
  3. Improve rate of force production (power) and movement efficiency of the core musculature and extremities.
102
Q

What are the 3 progressions of balance training?

A
  1. Exercise involving little joint motion of the balance leg designed to improve reflexive (automatic) muscle contractions to increase joint stability.
  2. Dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion.
  3. Deceleration ability: move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary. Hopping motions with a single leg stance.
103
Q

The term that characterizes a sprinter’s lead leg action: ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion.

A

Triple flexion

104
Q

The term that characterizes a sprinter’s rear leg action: ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension.

A

Triple extension

105
Q

Age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness an frailty in older adults.

A

sarcopenia

106
Q

What ARE (hint) the 3 stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A
  1. Alarm reaction - an initial reaction to stress (fatigue, stiffness, DOMS)
  2. Resistance development - increased muscle function capacity to adapt to stress
  3. Exhaustion - prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to injury/breakdown
107
Q

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercise through a set.

A

Peripheral Heart Action

108
Q

How long should you keep receipts for tax/liability purposes as a CPT?

A

4 years

109
Q

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?

A

left atrium

110
Q

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

A

posterior pelvic tilt

111
Q

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?

A

motivational interviewing

112
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

A

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

113
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Inspiration OR expiration and an increase OR decrease in intrathoracic pressure?

A

Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

114
Q

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?

A

stroke volume

115
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

A

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

116
Q

What is the RDA for protein?

A

0.8 g/kg of body weight

117
Q

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

A

insulin

118
Q

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

A

visual system

119
Q

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?

A

Stage 1

120
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

A

back extension

121
Q

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

A

Type I

122
Q

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?

A

power

123
Q

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?

A

6 to 8 drills

124
Q

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

A

Cancer and bleeding disorders

125
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

A

Beta-oxidation

126
Q

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?

A

Acetyl CoA

127
Q

Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?

A

0.6 or 60%

128
Q

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

A

Continuous talking becomes challenging

129
Q

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

A

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

130
Q

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?

A

Osteokinematics

131
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?

A

Mechanical specificity

132
Q

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body. Example: the development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights an high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises.

A

mechanical specificity

133
Q

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection. For example: to develop higher levels of stability while pushing, chest exercises will need to be performed with controlled, unstable exercises and at slower speeds.

A

neuromuscular specificity

134
Q

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body. For example: to develop aerobic endurance, resistance training will require prolonged bouts of exercise, with minimal rest periods between sets.

A

metabolic specificity

135
Q

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?

A

Single-leg squat

136
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

A

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions.

137
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

A

Lower trapezius

138
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

A

Ice skaters

139
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?

A

Brachial artery

140
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?

A

Cervical and lumbar

141
Q

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow.

A

atherosclerosis

142
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

A

YMCA 3-minute step test

143
Q

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?

A

change in direction

144
Q

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?

A

Arthrokinematic

145
Q

What is the difference between the terms “osteo” and “arthro”?

A

“osteo” generally refers to bone.

“arthro” generally refers to joints.

146
Q

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

A

kilocalorie (kcal)

147
Q

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

A

volume and progression

148
Q

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

A

Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex

149
Q

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?

A

Stage 2 training

150
Q

What is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

A

Side plank

151
Q

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?

A

150 min/week

152
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?

A

Expiration becomes more forceful.

153
Q

What muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?

A

Erector spinae

154
Q

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?

A

Quadriceps

155
Q

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?

A

1,200 kcal

156
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

A

Lateral subsystem

157
Q

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Definition: When someone believes the exact content of their own thoughts.

A

Cognitive fusion

158
Q

How much exercise per week at a moderate intensity does someone need to get to decrease symptoms of insomnia?

A

150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.

159
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?

A

45 to 65% of total calories

160
Q

Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Speed, agility, or quickness?

A

Quickness

161
Q

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?

A

Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

162
Q

What intensity should someone with arthritis perform cardiorespiratory training?

A

Low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

163
Q

One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?

A

Peripheral nervous system

164
Q

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?

A

Alveolar sacs

Daniel's NASM CPT Exam Prep (1 decks)

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