CPT Test Prep Flashcards
1
Q
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
How many repetitions?
A
12-20
2
Q
Phase 2: Strength Endurance
How many repetitions?
A
8-12 strength
superset
8-12 stability
3
Q
Phase 3: Muscle Development
How many repetitions?
A
6-12
4
Q
Phase 4: Maximal Strength
How many repetitions?
A
1-5
5
Q
Phase 5: Power
How many repetitions?
A
1-5 (strength)
8-10 (power)
6
Q
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
How many sets?
A
1-3 sets
7
Q
Phase 2: Strength Endurance
How many sets?
A
2-4 sets
superset
2-4 sets
8
Q
Phase 3: Muscle Development
How many sets?
A
3-6 sets
9
Q
Phase 4: Maximal Strength
How many sets?
A
4-6 sets
10
Q
Phase 5: Power
How many sets?
A
3-5 sets
11
Q
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
What intensity?
A
12-20 rep goal
50-70% of 1RM
12
Q
Phase 2: Strength Endurance
What intensity?
A
8-12 rep goal
70-80% of 1RM
13
Q
Phase 3: Muscle Development
What intensity?
A
6-12 rep goal
75-85% of 1RM
14
Q
Phase 4: Maximal Strength
What intensity?
A
1-5 rep goal
85-100% of 1RM
15
Q
Phase 5: Power
What intensity?
A
1-5 (strength) rep goal 8-10 (power) rep goal 10% of body weight or 30-45% of 1RM
16
Q
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
How much rest?
A
0-90 sec
17
Q
Phase 2: Strength Endurance
How much rest?
A
0-60 sec
18
Q
Phase 3: Muscle Development
How much rest?
A
0-3 min
19
Q
Phase 4: Maximal Strength
How much rest?
A
2-4 min
20
Q
Phase 5: Power
How much rest?
A
1-2 min between pairs
3-5 min between circuits
21
Q
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
What tempo?
A
4-2-1-1 (slow)
e-i-c-i
22
Q
Phase 2: Strength Endurance
What tempo?
A
2-0-2 (moderate)
superset
4-2-1-1 (slow)
e-i-c-i
23
Q
Phase 3: Muscle Development
What tempo?
A
2-0-2 (moderate)
e-i-c
24
Q
Phase 4: Max Strength
What tempo?
A
Explosive
25
Phase 5: Power
| What tempo?
Explosive
26
A BOSU would be used in what phase of training?
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
27
One-leg balance exercises are generally used in what phase of training?
Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
28
Medicine ball throwing exercises are generally used in what phase of training?
Phase 5: Power
29
Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.
lower crossed syndrome
30
Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.
upper crossed syndrome
31
Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips.
pes planus distortion syndrome
32
Which 3 muscle groups are overactive in pes planus distortion syndrome?
GSAH!
| 1) Gastrocnemius and Soleus
(2) Adductor complex (inner thigh
(3) Hip flexors (front of hips)
33
Which 2 muscle groups are underactive in pes planus distortion syndrome?
GT!
1. Gluteus max and medius
2. Tibialis anterior and posterior
34
Which 2 muscle groups are overactive in lower crossed syndrome?
LEHF
1. Lumbar Extensors (low-back muscles)
2. Hip Flexors
35
Which 3 muscle groups are underactive in lower crossed syndrome?
HAG!
1. Hamstring complex
2. Abdominals
3. Gluteus maximus and medius
36
Which 3 muscle groups are overactive in upper crossed syndrome?
PUT LSS
1. Pectoralis major and minor
2. Upper Trapezius
3. Levator Scapula and Sternocleidomastoid
37
Which muscle groups are underactive in upper crossed syndrome?
TRD Carl F*&%!
1. Trapezius - middle and lower
2. Rhomboids (mid-back muscles)
3. Deep Cervical Flexors (muscle deep within the neck)
38
What does the gastrocnemius do concentrically?
accelerates plantar flexion
39
What does the gastrocnemius do eccentrically?
decelerates ankle dorsiflexion
40
What does the gastrocnemius do isometrically?
stabilizes the foot and ankle complex
41
In the Stages of Change Model: the individual does not exercise and is not planning to start exercising within the next 6 months.
Precontemplation stage
42
In the Stages of Change Model: the individual does not currently exercise but is planning to start within 6 months.
Contemplation stage
43
In the Stages of Change Model: the individual is planning to begin exercising soon and has taken steps toward it and may even be sporadically exercising.
Preparation stage
44
In the Stages of Change Model: the individual has been exercising for less than 6 months.
Action stage
45
In the Stages of Change Model: the individual has been exercising consistently for 6 months or more.
Maintenance stage
46
What are the 3 main parts of the neuron?
1. cell body (includes nucleus, organelles, mitochondria)
2. axon (cylindrical projection that transmits impulses to other neurons)
3. dendrites (gather info from other parts of the body and transmit it back into the neuron)
47
Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.
muscles spindles
48
A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of the skeletal muscle: sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.
Golgi tendon organ (GTO)
49
Receptors located in and around the joint capsule that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.
Joint receptors
50
Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.
stretch reflex
51
A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, rib cage, an the vertebral column.
Axial skeleton
52
A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle.
Appendicular skeleton
53
The filaments of a myofibril; including actin and myosin.
myofilaments
54
The thin, string like, myofilament that acts along with the myosin to produce muscular contraction.
actin
55
The thick myofilament that acts along with actin to produce muscular contraction.
myosin
56
The structural unit of a myofibril composed of actin and myosin filaments between 2 Z-lines.
sarcomere
57
Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, are more resistant to fatigue, and tend to be more distal from the heart.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibers
58
Muscle fibers hat are larger in size, generate higher amounts of force, are faster to fatigue, and tend to be more proximal to the heart.
Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibers
59
The upper chambers of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart.
atrium (atria)
60
The lower (inferior) chambers of the heart that pump blood to the lungs and body.
ventricle
61
Located in the right atrium, this node initiates an electrical signal that causes the heart to beat. Nicknamed "the pacemaker of the heart".
sinoatrial (SA) node
62
Located between the atria and ventricles, this node delays the impulse from the sinoatrial node before allowing it to pass to the ventricles.
atrioventricular (AV) node
63
Which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart: arteries or veins?
arteries (veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart)
64
Small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries.
arterioles
65
Small veins that allow blood to drain from capillaries into the larger veins.
venules
66
An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves: ____________ plane. Hint: imagine being stuck in a narrow hallway (front to back and up and down movement). The majority of exercises occur within this plane.
sagittal
67
An imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves: ____________ plane. Hint: imagine walls in front and behind you that only allow for side to side movement.
frontal
68
An imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves: ____________ plane. Hint: allows primarily for internal and external rotation.
transverse
69
The primary muscles providing force for a movement.
agonist
70
Muscles that assist the agonists to produce movement.
synergists
71
The muscles on the opposite side of a joint that are in direct opposition of agonist muscles.
antagonists
72
When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.
reciprocal inhibition
73
Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
altered reciprocal inhibition
74
What metabolic pathway is primarily used by a sprinter or powerlifter?
Definition: An energy system that provides energy very rapidly, for approx. 10-15 seconds, via the anaerobic metabolism. Uses carbs for fuel.
ATP-PC
75
What metabolic pathway that supplies energy for approx. 20 seconds to 2 minutes. Think of a middle-distance runner. Uses carbs for fuel.
Glycolytic system (glycolysis)
76
What metabolic pathway that supplies energy once the glycolytic system drops off (after 2 min). Think of a long-distance runner. Uses fat for fuel.
oxidative system
77
How much energy per gram of protein?
4 calories
78
How much energy per gram of carbohydrate?
4 calories
79
How much energy per gram of fat (lipid)?
9 calories
80
How much energy per gram of alcohol?
7 calories
81
What is considered adequate protein intake?
1. 6-2.2 g/kg of body weight per day
| 2. 4 g/kg of body weight per day (if in a caloric deficit)
82
What is optimal caffeine dosing?
3-6 mg/kg (1.4-2.7 mg/lb) body weight provided 1 hour prior to exercise
83
What is the detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)
84
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.
Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
85
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.
Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)
86
What is considered elevated BP?
120-129 mm Hg (SBP) and <80 mm Hg (DBP)
87
What is considered Stage 1 hypertension?
130-139 mm Hg (SBP) and 80-89 mm Hg (DBP)
88
What is considered Stage 2 hypertension?
>140 mm Hg (SBP) and >90 mm Hg (DBP)
89
What is considered a hypertensive crisis?
>180 mm Hg (SBP) and >120 mm Hg (DBP)
90
What is considered underweight in BMI classification?
<18.5
91
What is considered healthy weight in BMI classification?
18.5-24.9
92
What is considered overweight in BMI classification?
25.0-29.9
93
What is considered obese in BMI classification?
30-34.9
94
What is considered Obese II in BMI classification?
35.0-39.9
95
What is considered Obese III in BMI classification?
>40
96
The relative score expressing the ratio of the waist circumference to the hip circumference, which correlates to the risk for developing cardiovascular disease.
waist-to-hip ratio (WHR)
97
More fat within the abdominal region of the body characterized as apple-shaped is called what? This is associated with elevated health risk.
android
98
More fat within the hips and thigh regions of the body characterized as pear-shaped is called what? This is associated with a lower overall health risk when compared to apple-shape.
gynoid
99
What are the 5 kinetic chain checkpoints?
```
Head/neck
Shoulders
Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex (LPHC)
Knees
Feet/ankles
```
100
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist).
synergistic dominance
101
What are the 3 progressions of core training?
1. Stabilization through the spine and pelvis without gross movement of the trunk.
2. Dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine through a full range of motion.
3. Improve rate of force production (power) and movement efficiency of the core musculature and extremities.
102
What are the 3 progressions of balance training?
1. Exercise involving little joint motion of the balance leg designed to improve reflexive (automatic) muscle contractions to increase joint stability.
2. Dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion.
3. Deceleration ability: move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary. Hopping motions with a single leg stance.
103
The term that characterizes a sprinter's lead leg action: ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion.
Triple flexion
104
The term that characterizes a sprinter's rear leg action: ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension.
Triple extension
105
Age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness an frailty in older adults.
sarcopenia
106
What ARE (hint) the 3 stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?
1. Alarm reaction - an initial reaction to stress (fatigue, stiffness, DOMS)
2. Resistance development - increased muscle function capacity to adapt to stress
3. Exhaustion - prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to injury/breakdown
107
A variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercise through a set.
Peripheral Heart Action
108
How long should you keep receipts for tax/liability purposes as a CPT?
4 years
109
Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
left atrium
110
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
posterior pelvic tilt
111
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
motivational interviewing
112
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?
Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
113
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Inspiration OR expiration and an increase OR decrease in intrathoracic pressure?
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
114
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
stroke volume
115
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
116
What is the RDA for protein?
0.8 g/kg of body weight
117
The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?
insulin
118
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
visual system
119
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
120
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
back extension
121
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
122
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness?
power
123
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?
6 to 8 drills
124
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer and bleeding disorders
125
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidation
126
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule?
Acetyl CoA
127
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?
0.6 or 60%
128
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Continuous talking becomes challenging
129
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
130
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
131
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?
Mechanical specificity
132
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body. Example: the development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights an high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises.
mechanical specificity
133
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection. For example: to develop higher levels of stability while pushing, chest exercises will need to be performed with controlled, unstable exercises and at slower speeds.
neuromuscular specificity
134
Refers to the energy demand placed on the body. For example: to develop aerobic endurance, resistance training will require prolonged bouts of exercise, with minimal rest periods between sets.
metabolic specificity
135
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
136
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions.
137
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Lower trapezius
138
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Ice skaters
139
What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Brachial artery
140
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and lumbar
141
The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow.
atherosclerosis
142
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
YMCA 3-minute step test
143
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training?
change in direction
144
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?
Arthrokinematic
145
What is the difference between the terms "osteo" and "arthro"?
"osteo" generally refers to bone.
| "arthro" generally refers to joints.
146
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
kilocalorie (kcal)
147
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
volume and progression
148
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex
149
In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Stage 2 training
150
What is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side plank
151
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 min/week
152
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Expiration becomes more forceful.
153
What muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Erector spinae
154
Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat?
Quadriceps
155
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
1,200 kcal
156
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Lateral subsystem
157
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Definition: When someone believes the exact content of their own thoughts.
Cognitive fusion
158
How much exercise per week at a moderate intensity does someone need to get to decrease symptoms of insomnia?
150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia.
159
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
45 to 65% of total calories
160
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?
Speed, agility, or quickness?
Quickness
161
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
162
What intensity should someone with arthritis perform cardiorespiratory training?
Low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
163
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division?
Peripheral nervous system
164
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?
Alveolar sacs
