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CPT Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?
Select one:

a.
80/120 mm Hg

b.
125/75 mm Hg

c.
120/80 mm Hg

d.
120/60 mm Hg

A

c.
120/80 mm Hg

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2
Q

What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
Select one:

a.
Unique selling proposition (USP)

b.
Statement of work (SOW)

c.
PERT estimate

d.
SWOT analysis

A

a.
Unique selling proposition (USP)

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3
Q

Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?
Select one:

a.
To elevate the fitness professional’s status and reputation within the fitness community

b.
To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations

c.
To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals

d.
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

A

d.
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry

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4
Q

What statement best describes a premium health club?
Select one:

a.
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

b.
A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses

c.
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

d.
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

A

d.
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

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5
Q

What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Select one:

a.
Health, fitness, and wellness

b.
Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance

c.
Diet, exercise, and recovery

d.
Stabilization, strength, and power

A

d.
Stabilization, strength, and power

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6
Q

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
Select one:

a.
Becoming an NASM Master Instructor

b.
College instructor

c.
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

d.
College football conditioning coach

A

c.
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

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7
Q

How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification?
Select one:

a.
Every 3 years

b.
Every year

c.
Every 2 years

d.
Every 5 years

A

c.
Every 2 years

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8
Q

Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function?
Select one:

a.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

b.
Lung cancer

c.
Asthma

d.
Hypertension

A

a.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

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9
Q

If a client is using social media to find inspiration, information, or support for their fitness endeavors, it would be an example of which social construct?
Select one:

a.
Social influence

b.
Social ambivalence

c.
Social connections

d.
Social pressure

A

a.
Social influence

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10
Q

Which statement best demonstrates empathy?
Select one:

a.
I think you will feel healthier once you finally lose some weight.

b.
I don’t understand why you think it’s so hard to do 30 minutes of cardio 3 times a week.

c.
If you spend more time in the gym, you will reach your goals faster.

d.
I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well.

A

d.
I know that finding time to exercise is hard. I struggle to get it done sometimes as well

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11
Q

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client’s strengths?
Select one:

a.
Reflections

b.
Affirmations

c.
Collecting summaries

d.
Transitional summaries

A

b.
Affirmations

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12
Q

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Winning a triathlon

b.
Providing psychological benefits

c.
Developing intrinsic motivation

d.
Reducing burnout

A

b.
Providing psychological benefits

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13
Q

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?
Select one:

a.
Coping planning

b.
Enlisting social support

c.
Self-monitoring

d.
Action planning

A

c.
Self-monitoring

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14
Q

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?
Select one:

a.
The community

b.
Peers

c.
Parents

d.
Exercise groups

A

c.
Parents

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15
Q

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?
Select one:

a.
Leader’s style

b.
The requirements of the leader

c.
The personality of the leader

d.
Leader’s qualities

A

d.
Leader’s qualities

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16
Q

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?
Select one:

a.
Collecting summaries

b.
Motivational interviewing

c.
Affirming

d.
Reflective listening

A

b.
Motivational interviewing

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17
Q

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes?
Select one:

a.
Technique imagery

b.
Energy imagery

c.
Appearance imagery

d.
Positive self-talk

A

c.
Appearance imagery

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18
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Select one:

a.
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

b.
Anterior and posterior

c.
Axial and appendicular

d.
Upper and lower

A

c.
Axial and appendicular

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19
Q

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements?
Select one:

a.
Stimulants

b.
Anabolic steroids

c.
Health supplements

d.
Performance supplements

A

c.
Health supplements

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20
Q

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Select one:

a.
Hamstrings and erector spinae

b.
Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum

c.
Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

d.
Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators

A

a.
Hamstrings and erector spinae

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21
Q

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?
Select one:

a.
Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

b.
Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training.

c.
Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.

d.
Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.

A

a.
Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

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22
Q

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Select one:

a.
The ileum of the small intestine

b.
Duodenum of the small intestine

c.
The ileum of the large intestine

d.
Duodenum of the large intestine

A

b.
Duodenum of the small intestine

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23
Q

What is stroke volume?
Select one:

a.
The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute

b.
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

c.
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

d.
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

A

b.
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

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24
Q

The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Select one:

a.
Cancer prevention

b.
Macronutrient metabolism

c.
Muscle contraction

d.
Hydration

A

b.
Macronutrient metabolism

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25
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body?
Select one:

a.
They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

b.
They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

c.
They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.

d.
They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes.

A

a.
They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

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26
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States?
Select one:

a.
European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

b.
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

c.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d.
World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

A

c.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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27
Q

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Select one:

a.
Isometric

b.
Isotonic

c.
Eccentric

d.
Concentric

A

d.
Concentric

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28
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?
Select one:

a.
Prescribing a supplement

b.
Teaching healthy portion sizes

c.
Referring out to a dietitian

d.
Offering general advice on supplementation

A

a.
Prescribing a supplement

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29
Q

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals?
Select one:

a.
Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

b.
Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day.

c.
Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated.

d.
Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals.

A

a.
Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

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30
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom?
Select one:

a.
Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

b.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c.
European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

d.
Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)

A

c.
European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

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31
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?
Select one:

a.
Lack of fatty acids

b.
Depletion of phosphocreatine

c.
Lack of pyruvate

d.
Free hydrogen ions

A

d.
Free hydrogen ions

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32
Q

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Select one:

a.
Short

b.
Long

c.
Irregular

d.
Flat

A

b.
Long

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33
Q

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Select one:

a.
Sagittal

b.
Dorsal

c.
Transverse

d.
Frontal

A

c.
Transverse

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34
Q

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
Select one:

a.
20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

b.
5 minutes of high-intensity activity

c.
20 minutes of walking

d.
20 minutes of low-intensity activity

A

a.
20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

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35
Q

When a client’s heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
Select one:

a.
Sympathetic nervous system

b.
Somatic nervous system

c.
Central nervous system

d.
Parasympathetic nervous system

A

a.
Sympathetic nervous system

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36
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Select one:

a.
Breathing becomes more shallow.

b.
Expiration becomes more forceful.

c.
Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.

d.
Inspiration is prolonged.

A

b.
Expiration becomes more forceful.

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37
Q

What is the definition of energy balance?
Select one:

a.
When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown

b.
When daily food intake is consistent

c.
When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout

d.
When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

A

d.
When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

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38
Q

How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
Select one:

a.
About 5,500

b.
About 3,500

c.
About 500

d.
About 1,000

A

b.
About 3,500

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39
Q

If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do?
Select one:

a.
Walking for 5 minutes

b.
High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes

c.
Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

d.
High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes

A

c.
Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

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40
Q

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Select one:

a.
Intercalated discs

b.
Internodal pathway

c.
Left bundle branch

d.
Right bundle branch

A

b.
Internodal pathway

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41
Q

Accumulating too much of a vitamin or mineral in the body may lead to what?
Select one:

a.
Toxicity

b.
Better outcomes

c.
Improved performance

d.
Deficiency

A

a.
Toxicity

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42
Q

Why is third-party verification important?
Select one:

a.
It provides unbiased testing for a product.

b.
It is required for a supplement to be put on the market.

c.
It sets regulations regarding illegal ingredients.

d.
It shows which supplements to trust.

A

a.
It provides unbiased testing for a product.

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43
Q

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?
Select one:

a.
NEAT can increase muscle mass.

b.
NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.

c.
NEAT can be protective against obesity.

d.
NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.

A

c.
NEAT can be protective against obesity.

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44
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Select one:

a.
Blood pressure

b.
Resting heart rate

c.
Body composition

d.
Flexibility

A

d.
Flexibility

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45
Q

Which type of assessment assesses the alignment of the body while in motion?
Select one:

a.
Overhead squat assessment

b.
Performance assessment

c.
Dynamic posture assessment

d.
Static posture assessment

A

c.
Dynamic posture assessment

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46
Q

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?
Select one:

a.
Individuals recovering from an injury

b.
Deconditioned individuals

c.
College-aged athletes

d.
Older adults

A

c.
College-aged athletes

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47
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine?
Select one:

a.
Upper crossed syndrome

b.
Lower crossed syndrome

c.
Excessive pronation

d.
Pes planus distortion syndrome

A

b.
Lower crossed syndrome

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48
Q

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?
Select one:

a.
Static posture assessment

b.
Dynamic posture assessment

c.
Overhead squat assessment

d.
Performance assessment

A

a.
Static posture assessmen

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49
Q

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?
Select one:

a.
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

b.
Anthropometry

c.
Skinfold measurements

d.
Body mass index (BMI)

A

a.
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

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50
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?
Select one:

a.
Knee varus

b.
Knee dominance

c.
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

d.
Knee valgus

A

a.
Knee varus

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51
Q

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?
Select one:

a.
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

b.
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

c.
The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)

d.
The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body

A

a.
The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

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52
Q

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?
Select one:

a.
Latissimus dorsi

b.
Lower trapezius

c.
Upper trapezius

d.
Infraspinatus

A

c.
Upper trapezius

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53
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?
Select one:

a.
Muscular Development Training

b.
Power Training

c.
Strength Endurance Training

d.
Stabilization Endurance Training

A

b.
Power Training

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54
Q

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
Select one:

a.
Plyometrics

b.
Rehabilitation

c.
Core

d.
Resistance training

A

b.
Rehabilitation

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55
Q

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
Select one:

a.
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

b.
To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

c.
To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity

d.
To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions

A

a.
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

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56
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?
Select one:

a.
Tuck jump

b.
Multiplanar jump with stabilization

c.
Power step-up

d.
Butt kick

A

b.
Multiplanar jump with stabilization

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57
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Select one:

a.
Stabilization Endurance Training

b.
Strength Endurance Training

c.
Maximal Strength Training

d.
Muscular Development Training

A

c.
Maximal Strength Training

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58
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Select one:

a.
Reciprocal inhibition

b.
Synergistic dominance

c.
Altered reciprocal inhibition

d.
Altered length-tension relationship

A

b.
Synergistic dominance

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59
Q

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
Select one:

a.
10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

b.
6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

c.
6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8

d.
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

A

d.
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

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60
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise?
Select one:

a.
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

b.
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

c.
Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation

d.
Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion

A

b.
Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

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61
Q

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?
Select one:

a.
Visual system

b.
Vestibular system

c.
Somatosensory system

d.
Hearing system

A

c.
Somatosensory system

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62
Q

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Select one:

a.
Altered bone shape through the spine

b.
Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity

c.
Improper muscle balance in the spine

d.
Altered bone shape through the lower extremity

A

a.
Altered bone shape through the spine

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63
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?
Select one:

a.
Semi-dynamic balance

b.
Stationary balance

c.
Dynamic balance

d.
Static balance

A

a.
Semi-dynamic balance

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64
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Select one:

a.
Quadratus lumborum

b.
Diaphragm

c.
Transverse abdominis

d.
Pelvic floor musculature

A

c.
Transverse abdominis

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65
Q

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Select one:

a.
Length-tension relationships

b.
Reciprocal inhibition

c.
Lengthening reaction

d.
Synergistic dominance

A

b.
Reciprocal inhibition

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66
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
Select one:

a.
To make sure the program is difficult enough

b.
To enhance enjoyment of exercise

c.
To ensure safety

d.
To make sure the client isn’t doing too much exercise

A

c.
To ensure safety

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67
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.
Select one:

a.
Sensorimotor function

b.
Vestibular

c.
Somatosensation

d.
Vision

A

c.
Somatosensation

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68
Q

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Select one:

a.
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

b.
Back region

c.
Scapular region

d.
Leg region

A

a.
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

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69
Q

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement?
Select one:

a.
Rectus abdominis

b.
Latissimus dorsi

c.
Gluteus medius

d.
Erector spinae

A

d.
Erector spinae

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70
Q

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
Select one:

a.
1 or 2 sets

b.
6 to 8 sets

c.
3 or 4 sets

d.
5 or 6 sets

A

a.
1 or 2 sets

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71
Q

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?
Select one:

a.
New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes

b.
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

c.
Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of work

d.
More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work

A

b.
Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

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72
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?
Select one:

a.
Acceleration

b.
Reaction to a signal

c.
Changing directions

d.
Deceleration

A

b.
Reaction to a signal

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73
Q

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?
Select one:

a.
Stabilization

b.
Amortization

c.
Concentric

d.
Eccentric

A

b.
Amortization

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74
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Select one:

a.
Active stretching

b.
Static stretching

c.
Self-myofascial techniques

d.
Dynamic stretching

A

c.
Self-myofascial techniques

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75
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Select one:

a.
Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

b.
Pain response and muscle spasm

c.
Davis’s law and Wolf’s law

d.
Mechanical and neurophysiological response

A

d.
Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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76
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?
Select one:

a.
The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts

b.
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

c.
The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

d.
The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

A

b.
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

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77
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?
Select one:

a.
0 to 60 seconds

b.
120 to 180 seconds

c.
60 to 90 seconds

d.
90 to 120 seconds

A

a.
0 to 60 seconds

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78
Q

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:

a.
The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.

b.
The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power.

c.
The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

d.
The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

A

d.
The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

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79
Q

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Select one:

a.
Training duration

b.
Intensity

c.
Rest interval

d.
Speed

A

d.
Speed

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80
Q

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
Select one:

a.
SMR/active stretching

b.
SMR/static stretching

c.
SMR/ballistic stretching

d.
SMR/dynamic stretching

A

b.
SMR/static stretching

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81
Q

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Select one:

a.
Concentric action

b.
Isometric action

c.
Isokinetic action

d.
Eccentric action

A

d.
Eccentric action

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82
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:

a.
Anterior tibialis

b.
Infraspinatus

c.
Subscapularis

d.
Scalenes

A

c.
Subscapularis

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83
Q

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
Select one:

a.
Intensity

b.
Volume

c.
Recovery

d.
Frequency

A

a.
Intensity

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84
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
Select one:

a.
Depth jump

b.
Step-ups

c.
Barbell clean

d.
Single-leg squat

A

b.
Step-ups

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85
Q

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:

a.
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

b.
BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls

c.
Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags

d.
Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls

A

a.
Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

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86
Q

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Select one:

a.
Permanent scoliosis

b.
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

c.
Bony scoliosis

d.
Structural (non-functional) scoliosis

A

b.
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

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87
Q

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
Select one:

a.
5 or 6 sets

b.
0 sets

c.
7 to 9 sets

d.
1 to 4 sets

A

d.
1 to 4 sets

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88
Q

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?
Select one:

a.
Strength machines

b.
Suspended bodyweight training

c.
ViPR

d.
Speed ladders

A

c.
ViPR

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89
Q

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?
Select one:

a.
Kettlebells

b.
Sandbags

c.
TRX Rip Trainer

d.
Battle ropes

A

b.
Sandbags

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90
Q

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?
Select one:

a.
Bench press

b.
Overhead press

c.
Seated leg extension

d.
Barbell squat

A

c.
Seated leg extension

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91
Q

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel?
Select one:

a.
Peripheral arterial disease

b.
Intermittent claudication

c.
Stroke

d.
Heart failure

A

c.
Stroke

92
Q

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
Select one:

a.
Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.

b.
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

c.
Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.

d.
Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

A

b.
Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

93
Q

Which of the following can cause undue fatigue, increase the risk of injury, and potentially lead to burnout?
Select one:

a.
Adherence

b.
Hypertrophy

c.
Stabilization

d.
Overtraining

A

d.
Overtraining

94
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?
Select one:

a.
Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms.

b.
Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.

c.
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

d.
High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.

A

c.
Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

95
Q

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?
Select one:

a.
Exercises

b.
Phases

c.
Movement patterns

d.
Sports skills

A

c.
Movement patterns

96
Q

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?
Select one:

a.
Stability ball wall squat

b.
Selectorized machine lat pull down

c.
Barbell chest press

d.
Terra-Core push-up

A

c.
Barbell chest press

97
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities?
Select one:

a.
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective.

b.
Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.

c.
Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.

d.
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

A

d.
Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

98
Q

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?
Select one:

a.
Men under the age of 50

b.
Adolescent girls

c.
Women under the age of 50

d.
Postmenopausal women

A

d.
Postmenopausal women

99
Q

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session?
Select one:

a.
600 to 700 kcal

b.
25 to 75 kcal

c.
200 to 300 kcal

d.
100 to 150 kcal

A

c.
200 to 300 kcal

100
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Pulmonary hypoplasia

b.
Dyspnea

c.
Hypoxia

d.
Pneumonia

A

b.
Dyspnea

101
Q

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
Select one:

a.
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

b.
A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.

c.
A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.

d.
A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.

A

a.
A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

102
Q

What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer?
Select one:

a.
Posting a note on social media saying how much fun it was to interview and how cool it would be to work for the company

b.
Texting the hiring manager to thank them for their time during the interview

c.
Having a parent call to ask about the interview results

d.
Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

A

d.
Sending a handwritten thank-you letter or an email

103
Q

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career?
Select one:

a.
Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area

b.
Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following

c.
Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client

d.
Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

A

d.
Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

104
Q

What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Select one:

a.
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

b.
Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes

c.
Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients

d.
Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes

A

a.
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

105
Q

What group of hormones are released by the brain during exercise help reduce pain?
Select one:

a.
Endorphins

b.
Adrenaline

c.
Androgens

d.
Melatonin

A

a.
Endorphins

106
Q

How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
Select one:

a.
1

b.
0.2

c.
0.5

d.
0.1

A

d.
0.1

107
Q

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress?
Select one:

a.
The release of endorphins

b.
Atherosclerosis

c.
Restricted blood flow

d.
Hypertension

A

a.
The release of endorphins

108
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
Select one:

a.
Yardwork

b.
Weightlifting

c.
Cycling

d.
Running

A

a.
Yardwork

109
Q

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open

b.
Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center

c.
Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants

d.
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

A

d.
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

110
Q

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Select one:

a.
Providing modifications during the workout

b.
Planning the workout for the group

c.
Setting the time for the group to meet

d.
Planning social gatherings for the group

A

d.
Planning social gatherings for the group

111
Q
A
112
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Select one:

a.
Action

b.
Precontemplation

c.
Maintenance

d.
Contemplation

A

b.
Precontemplation

112
Q

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.
Select one:

a.
Contemplation

b.
Preparation

c.
Maintenance

d.
Precontemplation

A

b.
Preparation

113
Q

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?
Select one:

a.
Technique imagery

b.
Appearance imagery

c.
Cognitive fusion

d.
Energy imagery

A

a.
Technique imagery

114
Q

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone’s decision to exercise describes which of the following terms?
Select one:

a.
Group influence

b.
Peer pressure

c.
Societal influence

d.
Health influence

A

a.
Group influence

115
Q

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing?
Select one:

a.
Lack of social support

b.
Social physique anxiety

c.
Ambivalence

d.
Unrealistic goals

A

d.
Unrealistic goals

116
Q

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Select one:

a.
Self-regulation

b.
Outcome expectations

c.
Intention

d.
Self-efficacy

A

d.
Self-efficacy

117
Q

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?
Select one:

a.
Preparation

b.
Action

c.
Maintenance

d.
Precontemplation

A

d.
Precontemplation

118
Q

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
Select one:

a.
30 to 50% of total calories

b.
45 to 65% of total calories

c.
20 to 35% of total calories

d.
10 to 35% of total calories

A

b.
45 to 65% of total calories

119
Q

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement?
Select one:

a.
Synergist function

b.
Feed-forward

c.
Antagonist function

d.
Feedback

A

b.
Feed-forward

120
Q

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Select one:

a.
Having more glycogen stored in their muscle

b.
Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle

c.
Having more mitochondria in their muscle

d.
Having more fat stored on their body

A

c.
Having more mitochondria in their muscle

121
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?
Select one:

a.
Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

b.
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

c.
Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake

d.
Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure

A

b.
Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

122
Q

What is glycogen?
Select one:

a.
The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans

b.
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

c.
The storage form of carbohydrate in plants

d.
The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals

A

b.
The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

123
Q

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Select one:

a.
Esophagus

b.
Small intestine

c.
Stomach

d.
Large intestine

A

b.
Small intestine

124
Q

Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Select one:

a.
Short-term contractions

b.
Fewer capillaries

c.
Decreased oxygen delivery

d.
Slow to fatigue

A

d.
Slow to fatigue

125
Q

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
Select one:

a.
80 beats per minute

b.
120 beats per minute

c.
105 beats per minute

d.
50 beats per minute

A

a.
80 beats per minute

126
Q

What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?
Select one:

a.
The amount recommended for the average person to take

b.
The same as daily value (DV)

c.
The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

d.
The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving

A

c.
The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

127
Q

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?
Select one:

a.
Registered dietitian nutritionist

b.
Licensed dietitian

c.
Certified dietitian nutritionist

d.
Certified nutrition specialist

A

a.
Registered dietitian nutritionist

128
Q

What anatomical heart structure is referred to as “the pacemaker of the heart”?
Select one:

a.
Sinoatrial node

b.
Right bundle branch

c.
Intercalated discs

d.
Atrioventricular node

A

a.
Sinoatrial node

129
Q

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Select one:

a.
Glucagon

b.
Cortisol

c.
Calcitonin

d.
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

A

d.
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF

130
Q

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Select one:

a.
Left ventricle

b.
Right atrium

c.
Left atrium

d.
Right ventricle

A

d.
Right ventricle

131
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Select one:

a.
Glycolysis

b.
Beta-oxidation

c.
Acidosis

d.
Ketosis

A

b.
Beta-oxidation

132
Q

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
Select one:

a.
Central to the right and posterior to the spine

b.
Central to the left and posterior to the spine

c.
Central to the left and anterior to the spine

d.
Central to the right and anterior to the spine

A

c.
Central to the left and anterior to the spine

133
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
Select one:

a.
12 to 15 ounces of fluid

b.
Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity

c.
2 to 3 liters of fluid

d.
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

A

d.
1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

134
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
Select one:

a.
Dairy foods

b.
Grains

c.
Legumes

d.
Beans

A

a.
Dairy foods

135
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Select one:

a.
Oxidative phosphorylation

b.
Glycolysis

c.
The electron transport chain

d.
The ATP-PC system

A

b.
Glycolysis

136
Q

What is the name of the stored form of glucose?
Select one:

a.
Glycolysis

b.
Glycogen

c.
Pyruvate

d.
Triglycerides

A

b.
Glycogen

137
Q

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Select one:

a.
Myosin

b.
Fascicles

c.
Actin

d.
Troponin

A

d.
Troponin

138
Q

What are triglycerides?
Select one:

a.
The stored form of fat

b.
A substrate for anaerobic exercise

c.
The stored form of carbohydrate

d.
A substrate for high-intensity exercise

A

a.
The stored form of fat

139
Q

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:

a.
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

b.
The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion

c.
Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction

d.
Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula

A

a.
Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

140
Q

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?
Select one:

a.
Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

b.
Tell them it could help with their training.

c.
Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use.

d.
Tell them no.

A

a.
Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

141
Q

Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss?
Select one:

a.
Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates)

b.
Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options

c.
Limiting meals to once a day

d.
Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

A

d.
Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes

142
Q

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?
Select one:

a.
Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

b.
Thermic effect of food

c.
Resting metabolic rate

d.
Exercise

A

c.
Resting metabolic rate

143
Q

How many B vitamins are there?
Select one:

a.
8

b.
3

c.
12

d.
21

A

a.
8

144
Q

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips?
Select one:

a.
Lower crossed syndrome

b.
Pes planus distortion syndrome

c.
Knee valgus

d.
Upper crossed syndrome

A

b.
Pes planus distortion syndrome

145
Q

What is Bernadette’s waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?
Select one:

a.
0.97

b.
1.18

c.
1.04

d.
0.85

A

d.
0.85

146
Q

What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
Select one:

a.
A cadence of 60 steps per minute

b.
A cadence of 112 steps per minute

c.
A cadence of 96 steps per minute

d.
A cadence of 36 steps per minute

A

c.
A cadence of 96 steps per minute

147
Q

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5?
Select one:

a.
Healthy weight

b.
Obese

c.
Class II obesity

d.
Underweight

A

d.
Underweight

148
Q

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?
Select one:

a.
Hip flexors

b.
Adductor complex

c.
Lower trapezius

d.
Upper trapezius

A

d.
Upper trapezius

149
Q

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual’s true metabolic function?
Select one:

a.
1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

b.
YMCA 3-minute step test

c.
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

d.
Rockport walk test

A

c.
Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

150
Q

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what?
Select one:

a.
Cancer

b.
Osteoporosis

c.
Alzheimer’s disease

d.
Heart disease and diabetes

A

d.
Heart disease and diabetes

151
Q

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Select one:

a.
Forward head and protracted shoulders

b.
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

c.
Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips

d.
Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward

A

a.
Forward head and protracted shoulders

152
Q

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:

a.
Peripheral vasodilation

b.
Blood pressure

c.
Heart rate

d.
Thermoregulation

A

a.
Peripheral vasodilation

153
Q

How is a general warm-up best defined?
Select one:

a.
High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following.

b.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

c.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

d.
High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

A

c.
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

154
Q

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?
Select one:

a.
Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.

b.
Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers.

c.
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

d.
Type I fibers are “fast twitch.”

A

c.
Type I fibers are “slow twitch.”

155
Q

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
Select one:

a.
Lengthening reaction

b.
Isometric contraction

c.
Eccentric contraction

d.
Stretch reflex

A

d.
Stretch reflex

156
Q

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Select one:

a.
Frontal

b.
Transverse

c.
Sagittal

d.
Axial

A

c.
Sagittal

157
Q

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Select one:

a.
Young children and older adults

b.
Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins

c.
Pregnancy and diabetes

d.
Cancer and bleeding disorders

A

d.
Cancer and bleeding disorders

158
Q

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Select one:

a.
Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power

b.
Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength

c.
Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

d.
Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

A

c.
Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

159
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients?
Select one:

a.
0 to 15 seconds

b.
60 to 90 seconds

c.
15 to 60 seconds

d.
90 to 120 seconds

A

c.
15 to 60 seconds

160
Q

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
Select one:

a.
Thighs parallel to the ground

b.
Knees at 90 degrees of flexion

c.
Knees at 80 degrees of flexion

d.
As far as can be controlled without compensating

A

d.
As far as can be controlled without compensating

161
Q

What equation represents power?
Select one:

a.
a2 + b2 = c2

b.
Y = mx + b

c.
Force x velocity

d.
Time ÷ work

A

c.
Force x velocity

162
Q

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Select one:

a.
Smoking

b.
Obesity

c.
Cancer

d.
Heart disease

A

d.
Heart disease

163
Q

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?
Select one:

a.
Stage 3 training

b.
Stage 2 training

c.
Stage 4 training

d.
Stage 1 training

A

b.
Stage 2 training

164
Q

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?
Select one:

a.
Number of sets/reps

b.
Amount of external resistance

c.
Quality of movement

d.
Speed of exercise completion

A

c.
Quality of movement

165
Q

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:

a.
Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport

b.
Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

c.
Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels

d.
Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism

A

b.
Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

166
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?
Select one:

a.
9 or 10 drills per workout

b.
1 or 2 drills per workout

c.
4 to 8 drills per workout

d.
2 or 3 drills per workout

A

c.
4 to 8 drills per workout

167
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Select one:

a.
Back extension

b.
Dead bug

c.
Plank

d.
Medicine ball overhead throw

A

a.
Back extension

168
Q

Maintaining one’s balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
Select one:

a.
Dynamic balance

b.
Static balance

c.
Motion balance

d.
Semi-dynamic balance

A

b.
Static balance

169
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Select one:

a.
Latissimus dorsi

b.
Biceps brachii

c.
Quadriceps

d.
Triceps brachii

A

d.
Triceps brachii

170
Q

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
Select one:

a.
Muscle imbalances

b.
Physical and mental well-being

c.
Cardiorespiratory fitness

d.
Flexibility

A

a.
Muscle imbalances

171
Q

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
Select one:

a.
It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion.

b.
It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion.

c.
It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.

d.
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

A

d.
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

172
Q

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise?
Select one:

a.
Local muscle endurance

b.
Eccentric strength

c.
Delayed-onset muscle soreness

d.
Dynamic posture control

A

c.
Delayed-onset muscle soreness

173
Q

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?
Select one:

a.
Normal conversation is maintained.

b.
Only a few words can be produced between breaths

c.
Inability to speak at all

d.
Continuous talking becomes challenging

A

d.
Continuous talking becomes challenging

174
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Select one:

a.
Psychological concern

b.
Cardiovascular precaution

c.
Precaution

d.
Contraindication

A

d.
Contraindication

175
Q

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Select one:

a.
Any medical precautions or contraindications

b.
Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results

c.
PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results

d.
Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results

A

a.
Any medical precautions or contraindications

176
Q

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?
Select one:

a.
Ankles

b.
Shoulders

c.
Spine

d.
Knees

A

c.
Spine

177
Q

What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
Select one:

a.
Fear of stairs

b.
Fear of heights

c.
Fear of standing

d.
Fear of movement

A

d.
Fear of movement

178
Q

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?
Select one:

a.
A stable floor

b.
Both feet on the floor

c.
The absence of perturbations

d.
Correct technique

A

d.
Correct technique

179
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
Select one:

a.
1 or 2 reps

b.
6 to 8 reps

c.
3 to 5 reps

d.
8 to 10 reps

A

c.
3 to 5 reps

180
Q

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Select one:

a.
Infraspinatus and teres minor

b.
Rectus femoris and biceps femoris

c.
Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid

d.
Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae

A

a.
Infraspinatus and teres minor

181
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Select one:

a.
Thoracic and lumbar

b.
Cervical and thoracic

c.
Cervical and sacral

d.
Thoracic and sacral

A

d.
Thoracic and sacral

182
Q

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?
Select one:

a.
The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly

b.
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

c.
Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise

d.
The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest

A

b.
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

183
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?
Select one:

a.
Quickness and agility

b.
Acceleration and deceleration

c.
Stride rate and stride length

d.
Power and time

A

c.
Stride rate and stride length

184
Q

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Select one:

a.
Decreased fat loss

b.
Decreased hormonal function

c.
Improved sleep

d.
Increased rate of power decline

A

c.
Improved sleep

185
Q

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?
Select one:

a.
Intensity

b.
Frequency

c.
Volume

d.
Recovery

A

d.
Recovery

186
Q

What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?
Select one:

a.
Proper technique

b.
Amortization speed

c.
Jump height

d.
Explosive power

A

a.
Proper technique

187
Q

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Select one:

a.
Iliopsoas

b.
Latissimus dorsi

c.
Erector spinae

d.
Multifidus

A

d.
Multifidus

188
Q

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement?
Select one:

a.
Allowing the gaze to move freely

b.
Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

c.
Keeping the feet facing inward

d.
Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips

A

b.
Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

189
Q

At what BMI threshold does a person’s chance for obesity-related health problems increase?
Select one:

a.
30

b.
22.5

c.
18.5

d.
20

A

a.
30

190
Q

What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?
Select one:

a.
Prediabetes

b.
Type 1

c.
Gestational

d.
Type 2

A

d.
Type 2

191
Q

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made?
Select one:

a.
Diabetes

b.
Hypertension

c.
Intermittent claudication

d.
Dyspnea

A

a.
Diabetes

192
Q

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?
Select one:

a.
Dietary assessment

b.
PAR-Q+

c.
An annual physical

d.
Overhead squat assessment

A

b.
PAR-Q+

193
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?
Select one:

a.
Pushing

b.
Hip hinge

c.
Squatting

d.
Pulling

A

a.
Pushing

194
Q

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Select one:

a.
Resistance

b.
Skill development

c.
Cool-down

d.
Warm-up

A

b.
Skill development

195
Q

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
Select one:

a.
0.8

b.
0.2

c.
0.6

d.
0.4

A

d.
0.4

196
Q

Core stability is best described as:
Select one:

a.
The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension

b.
The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

c.
The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine

d.
The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

A

d.
The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

197
Q

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor?
Select one:

a.
Barbell squats

b.
Stability ball plank

c.
Medicine ball catch and pass

d.
Suspended bodyweight crunch

A

c.
Medicine ball catch and pass

198
Q

What BMI score is considered overweight?
Select one:

a.
30 to 34.9

b.
35 to 39.9

c.
18.5 to 24.9

d.
25 to 29.9

A

d.
25 to 29.9

199
Q

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?
Select one:

a.
Medicine balls

b.
BOSU balls

c.
Suspended bodyweight trainers

d.
Strength machines

A

a.
Medicine balls

200
Q

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Select one:

a.
Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.

b.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

c.
Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.

d.
Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.

A

b.
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

201
Q

Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement?
Select one:

a.
Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs

b.
Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar

c.
Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic

d.
Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs

A

a.
Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs

202
Q

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume?
Select one:

a.
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

b.
A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field.

c.
A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments.

d.
A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion.

A

a.
A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

203
Q

What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?
Select one:

a.
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

b.
A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families

c.
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services

d.
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

A

d.
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

204
Q

What is forecasting?
Select one:

a.
A relationship in which two people understand each other’s ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well

b.
A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs

c.
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

d.
A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

A

c.
A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

205
Q

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
Select one:

a.
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear

b.
Patellar tendonitis

c.
Plantar fasciitis

d.
A sprain

A

c.
Plantar fasciitis

206
Q

What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?
Select one:

a.
90%

b.
80%

c.
50%

d.
30%

A

b.
80%

207
Q

What statement best describes a low-cost health club?
Select one:

a.
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

b.
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services

c.
A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership

d.
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

A

a.
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment

208
Q

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?
Select one:

a.
Reading exercise-science textbooks

b.
Reading scholarly research journals

c.
Attending fitness industry conferences

d.
Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club

A

c.
Attending fitness industry conferences

209
Q

What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?
Select one:

a.
Timely

b.
Attainable

c.
Specific

d.
Measurable

A

d.
Measurable

210
Q

When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in?
Select one:

a.
Maintenance

b.
Precontemplation

c.
Contemplation

d.
Action

A

c.
Contemplation

211
Q

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
Select one:

a.
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

b.
Establish short- and long-term goals.

c.
Start establishing an emotional support system.

d.
Create a plan for overcoming barriers.

A

a.
Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

212
Q

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier?
Select one:

a.
Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.

b.
Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone.

c.
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

d.
Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it.

A

c.
Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

213
Q

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?
Select one:

a.
The built environment

b.
The manufactured environment

c.
The constructed environment

d.
The assembled environment

A

a.
The built environment

214
Q

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
Select one:

a.
I want to lose weight.

b.
I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

c.
I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month.

d.
I want to lose 20 pounds.

A

b.
I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

215
Q

A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?
Select one:

a.
Autonomy motivation

b.
Extrinsic motivation

c.
Affiliation motivation

d.
Intrinsic motivation

A

b.
Extrinsic motivation

216
Q

Which of the following is true about body image?
Select one:

a.
Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves.

b.
Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting.

c.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

d.
Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.

A

c.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

217
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
Select one:

a.
Contemplation

b.
Precontemplation

c.
Maintenance

d.
Action

A

c.
Maintenance

218
Q

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?
Select one:

a.
Medical nutrition therapy as related to an individual’s medical diagnoses

b.
Specific nutrition recommendations for an individual’s caloric, macronutrient, or micronutrient intake

c.
Meal planning with caloric or nutrient-specific guidelines for weight loss/gain or sports performance

d.
General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

A

d.
General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and performance

219
Q

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
Select one:

a.
All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.

b.
The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers

c.
A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

d.
The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers

A

c.
A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

220
Q

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?
Select one:

a.
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

b.
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change.

c.
Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.

d.
Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels.

A

a.
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

221
Q

What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
Select one:

a.
Proteins

b.
All foods

c.
Plant foods and dairy

d.
Animal and plant foods

A

c.
Plant foods and dairy

222
Q

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?
Select one:

a.
Synovial

b.
Nonaxial

c.
Nonsynovial

d.
Condyloid

A

b.
Nonaxial

223
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?
Select one:

a.
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

b.
Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure

c.
Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure

d.
Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

A

a.
Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

224
Q

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
Select one:

a.
2

b.
6

c.
4

d.
9

A

c.
4

225
Q
A

CPT Exam (1 decks)

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