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CPT Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

OPT model stages

SSP

A
  1. Stabilization
  2. Strength
  3. Power
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2
Q

5 training phases

SSH MSP

A

Stabilization, strength, hypertrophy, max strength, power

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3
Q

Phases that have super sets

A

Phase 2 and phase 5

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4
Q

Three parts of a neuron

C BAD

A

Cell body
Axon
Dentrites

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5
Q

Three joint motions

SSR

A

Spin, slide, roll

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6
Q

Skeletal system function

SPM BP SM

A 
Shape 
Protection 
Movement 
Blood production 
Store minerals
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7
Q

Layers of muscle

A

Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium

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8
Q

Slow twitch fibers

A

Type 1,

1: Increased oxygen
2: Smaller
3: less force
4: Slow fatigue

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9
Q

Fast twitch fibers

A

Type 2

1: Less oxygenBlood vessels2: larger
3: more force
4: fast fatigue

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10
Q

Muscle spindle

A

1: change In length
2: Stretch reflex
3: Cause contraction

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11
Q

Golgi Tendon Organ

A

1: attach to tendons
2: senses change in muscle tension
3: Cause relaxation

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12
Q

Blood flow in heart: Right Side

No O2

A

Right Atrium: received blood from whole body

Right Ventricle: thin wall pumps to lungs

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13
Q

Blood flow in heart: Left Side

O2

A

Left Atrium: receives blood from lungs

Left Ventricle: thick walls pumps blood to body

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14
Q

Blood vessels

AACVV

A 
Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
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15
Q

Blood functions

TRANSPORT:
OWH TO CARRY: H, T, C, FIGHTS

A

1: Transport Oxygen
2: Transport waste
3: Transport hormones
4: Carries heat
5: Regulates temp
6: clotting protects leaving
7: fights disease in Sickness

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16
Q

ATP-PC

10- F NO S HIT

A

1: 10-15 sec
2: Fastest
3: No-O
4: Short
5: High intensity

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17
Q

Glycolysis

30 C M

A

1: 30-50 sec
2: Use carbs
3: medium duration

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18
Q

Oxidative system:

O slow but LD

A

1: Oxidative
2: Slow process
3: Long duration

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19
Q

3 oxidative systems:

A sugar K cycle to ETC

A

Aerobic glycolysis
Krebs cycle
Electron transport chain (ETC)

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20
Q

Respiratory quotient

A

RQ of .7 =100% fat

RQ of 1 = 100% carbs

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21
Q

Sagittal plane: bow to crown:
Examples of other sagittal plane exercises include triceps pushdowns, front lunges, walking/running, vertical jumping, calf raises, and climbing stairs.

A

Motion: Flexion/extension
Axis: Coronal

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22
Q

Frontal plane: lateral raises and lateral leg raises,

Abduct lat fle to Iverson and reverse
to what movemet?

A

Motion: Abduction/adduction , Lateral flexion,
Eversion/inversion

Axis: Anterior/posterior

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23
Q 
Transverse plane: 
Clamshell.
Standing Clamshell.
Twisting Lunges.
Side Plank with Rotation.
Forward Plank Knee to Opposite Elbow.
A

Motion: Internal/external rotation, Left/right rotation, Horizontal abduction/adduction
Axis: Longitudinal

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24
Q

Estimated HR:

A

220- age

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25
Q

HR training zones:

Freeway by 10

A

1: 65% to 75%
2: 76% to 85%
3: 86% to 95%

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26
Q

Pronationdistortion tight/overactive muscles:

GSP AIHB

A 
Gastrocnemius 
Soleus
Peroneals 
Adductors
Iliotibial head
Hip flexor complex 
Bicep femoris ( short)
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27
Q

Pronationdistortion weak/under-active muscles:

AP Ant V GMM Hex

A 
Anterior tibialis 
Posterior tibialis 
Vastus medialis 
Gluteus medius/maximus 
Hip external rotators
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28
Q

Lower crossed tight/overactive muscles:
GS HFC ALE
lower back curvature

A 
Gastrocnemius Soleus
Hip flexor complex 
Adductors
Latissimus dorsi 
Erector Spinae
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29
Q

Lower crossed weak/under active muscles:

bi shin, but lucy med tran in

A 
Anterior tibialis 
Posterior tibialis 
Gluteus maximus 
Lucius Medius
Transverse abdominis
Internal oblique
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30
Q

Upper Crossed tight muscles:

UT LSSS LAT tres MAJOR SUB PEC UP AND LOW

A 
Upper trapezius 
Levator scapulae 
Sternocleidomastoid 
Scalene
Latissimus dorsi Teres 
major Subscapularis
Pec major/minor
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31
Q

Upper Crossed weak muscles:

Deep C/S serra Ant Mid Trap to Low, 3- Infra S

A 
Deep cervical flexors 
Serratus 
Anterior Rhomboids
Mid trapezius
Lower trapezius 
Teres minor 
Infraspinatus
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32
Q

Over head squat- feet turn out tight/overactive muscles:

BF SLG

A

Soleus
Lateral gastrocnemius
Biceps femoris (short)

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33
Q

Over head squat- feet turn out weak/underactive muscles:
Middle

M g M h GSPop

A 
Medial gastrocnemius 
Medial hamstring 
Grasilis, 
Sartorius, 
Popliteus
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34
Q

Overhead squat Knees move in Tight/overactive muscles:

Add C, B Fem, TFL, Vas Lat

A

Adductor complex
Bicep femoris (short)
Tensor fascia latae
Vastus lateralis

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35
Q

Overhead Squat Knees move in weak/underactive muscles:

A

Gluteus Medius/Maximus Vastus Medialis oblique

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36
Q

OHS Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex leans forward tight muscles:

Calfs, H flex abs complex

A

Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Hip flexor complex
Abdominal complex

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37
Q

OHS Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex leans forward weak muscles:

AGE

A

Anterior tibialis
Gluteus maximus
Erector Spinae

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38
Q

OHS low back arches tight/overactive muscles:

H flex ES LD

A

Hip flexor complex
Errector Spinae
Latissimus dorsi

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39
Q

OHS low back arches weak muscles:

G H complex, In

A

Gluteus maximus
Hamstring complex
Intrinsic core stabilizers

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40
Q

OHS arms fall forward tight muscles:

Lat 3s, chest up and down

A

Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pec major/minor

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41
Q

OHS arms fall forward weak muscles:

A

Mid/lower traps

RTC

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42
Q

OHS what to view:

A

Anteriorly:
Feet, ankles and knees
Laterally:
LPHC, , shoulder and cervical complex

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43
Q

BMI for overweight/Obese:

A

Overweight:25.0 - 29.99
Obese: 30.0 - 34.99

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44
Q

Cumulative injury cycle:

TTIMSpas A ANCMim

A

1: tissue trauma
2: inflammation
3: muscle spasms
4: adhesions
5: Altered neuromuscular control
6: Muscle imbalance
7: repeat

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45
Q

Integrated flexibility continuum:

CAF

A

Corrective (SMR and static stretching)
Active (SMR and active isolated stretching)
Functional (SMR and dynamic stretching)

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46
Q

Recommended exercise for adults:

A

150 minutes of moderate intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic exercise.

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47
Q

cardiovascular training for general health:

A

60% of Max oxygen consumption

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48
Q

FITTE Principles:

A

Frequency Intensity Time Type Enjoyment

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49
Q 
Local stabilization system muscles ( type I slow twitch)
Tran ab
In Ob
Lumbar M
P Floor with D
A 
Transverse of Abdominis
Internal oblique 
Lumbar multi fidus 
Pelvic floor muscles 
Diaphragm
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50
Q

Best core exercise for beginner:

A

Prone ISO Ab: Plank

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51
Q

Core musculature:

near/far move

A

Local stabilization system
Global stabilization system
Movement system

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52
Q

Stabilization exercises:

A

1: Involve no lower body joint movement
2: Balance power include a “hop”
3: Balance strength involve bending at hip or knee

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53
Q

Proprioceptively challenging equipment:

A

1: Floor
2: Balance beam
3: Half foam roll
4: Foam pad
5: Balance disk
6: Wobble board
7: Bosu ball

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54
Q

Three phases of plyometric training:

A

1: Eccentric 2:amortization 3:Concentric/loading

Loading/time between/unloading

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55
Q

Three phases general adaptation syndrome:

A
  1. Alarm reaction
    2: Resistance development
    3: Exhaustion
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56
Q

5 resistance training adaptations:

A
  1. stabilization
  2. muscle endurance
  3. muscle hypertrophy
  4. strength
  5. power
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57
Q

Resistance training systems:

A 
Single set
Multiple set Pyramid
Superset
Drop set
Circuit training Peripheral heart action
Split routine
A vertical loading Horizontal loading
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58
Q

Acute variables of training:

A 
Repetition
Set
Training intensity Rep tempo
Rest interval
Training volume 
Training frequency 
Training duration 
Exercise selection
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59
Q

ATP recovery:

3,4,6,3

A

20-30 sec = 50%
40sec=75%
60sec=85%
3min=100%

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60
Q

Program Design: endurance/stabilization

Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest

A 
Reps: 12 to 20
Sets: 1-3
Intensity: 50% to 70%
Tempo: slow (4/2/1) 
Rest: 0-90
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61
Q

Program Design: Hypertrophy

Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest

A 
Reps: 6 to 12 
Sets:3to5
Intensity: 70% to 85%
Tempo: moderate (2/0/2)
Rest: 0-60 sec
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62
Q

Program Design Max strength:

Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest

A 
Reps: 1-5
Sets: 4-6
Intensity: 85% to 100%
Tempo: fast
Rest: 3 to 5 min
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63
Q

Program Design: Power:

Reps, sets, intensity, temp, rest

A 
Reps: 1-10
Sets: 3-6
Intensity: 35% to 45%
Tempo: fast
Rest: 3-5 min
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64
Q

Training Zone Targets

A

Zone 1: builds aerobic base and aids in recovery
Zone 2: increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance
Zone 3: Builds High end work

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65
Q

How do you figure out Cardiac Output

A

heart rate x stroke volume

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66
Q

Protein intake:

A 
Sedentary = .4g/lb 
Strength = .5=.8g/lb 
Endurance = .5- .6g/lb
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67
Q

Amino acids:

A

20 total 8 essential

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68
Q

Recommended macros:

A

Pro: 10% to 35%
Carb: 45% to 65%
Fat: 20% to 35%

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69
Q

Macro calories:

A

Pro: 4 cal/gram
Carb: 4 cal/gram
Fat: 9 cal/gram
Alcohol: 7 cal/gram

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70
Q

Fluid recommendations:

A

6-12 oz every 15-20 min of exercise

16-24 oz / lb post exercise.

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71
Q

Common vitamins with adverse effects when consumed in excess:
ZIDA

A

Zinc
Iron
Vitamin D
Vitamin A

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72
Q

5 stages of change:

PC PAM

A 
Precontemplation 
Contemplation 
Preparation
Action 
Maintenance
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73
Q

SMART goals:

A 
Specific
Measurable
Attainable 
Realistic
Timely
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74
Q

How do you calculate BMI?

A

weight x 703 divided by height in inches

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75
Q

BMI healthy, over, obese

A

18-24.9, 25-29.9 and 30+

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76
Q

Cholesterol?

A

Ideal: 200mg Borderline: 239 mg and High Risk 240

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77
Q

The kinetic chain (human movement system) is composed of what
components?

A

Nervous, muscle and skeletal system

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78
Q

What are the three primary functions of the nervous system and what
do they do?

A

Sensory, integrative, motor functions

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79
Q

What is a neuron?

A

functional unit of the nervous system

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80
Q

What are the three types of neurons and what do they do?

A

sensory- respond to touch
interneurons-transmit nerve impulses between neurons
Motor- transmit nerve impulses from brain/spine to muscle

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81
Q

What two types of divisions make up the skeletal system? What are they made up of?

A

Axial/Appendicular
Axial: skull, spine, ribs - 80 bones
Appendicular: Upper/lower ext. shoulder girdles/pelvic

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82
Q

What are the function(s) of bones?

A

leverage and support

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83
Q

What are the most common joints associated with human movement?

A

Synovial joints- 80%

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84
Q

Joint motion is referred to as:

A

Arthrokinematics

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85
Q

Which layer of connective tissue lies underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle?

A

Epimysium

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86
Q

Which layer of connective tissue is considered the “deep fascia” and is the outermost layer?

A

Endomysium

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87
Q

ligaments

A

fibrous connective tissue connect bone to bone; provide static and dynamic stability; proprioception

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88
Q

Tendon

A

attache bone to muscle

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89
Q

Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds? sugar

A

Glycosis

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90
Q

What of the following is responsible for movement of bone AROUND a joint?

A

Torque

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91
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

A

Cardiac Output

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92
Q

Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?

A

Precursor to hormone production: Lipids form the basis of certain hormones.

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93
Q

When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition: when one is muscle is continually contracted or overactive, then the opposing muscle is continually relaxed or underactive, then this principle is said to be altered.

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94
Q

What is a side effect of caffeine use?

A

An increase in urine production.
EXPLANATION
Caffeine is related to methylxanthine compounds which have been recognized as increasing blood flow to the kidneys and having mild to moderate diuretic effect.

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95
Q

Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?

A

30 min: Timing of post activity nutrition is vital to optimal recovery. It is recommended to consume 1.5 g/kg of carbs within 30 minutes of exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment

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96
Q

Timing of post activity nutrition is vital to optimal recovery. It is recommended to consume 1.5 g/kg of carbs within 30 minutes of exercise to maximize glycogen replenishment

A

70%:
Resting metabolic rate is the total number of calories burned when your body is at rest, which accounts for a large portion of total calories. Most studies agree that RMR accounts for approximately 70% of total calories.

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97
Q

Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?

A

Pushing/pulling assessments

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98
Q

Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?

A

Decreased lean body mass

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99
Q

Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Reciprocal inhibition
EXPLANATION
Dynamic stretching using active muscles contractions to move the body through range of motion. The active contraction of one muscle will inhibit the functional antagonist. This is called reciprocal inhibition

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100
Q

An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this individual?

A

Action
EXPLANATION
The action stage lasts until a behavior has been consistently practiced for up to six months in most cases. Then, the client will move to the maintenance stage.

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101
Q

If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?

A

Adductors
EXPLANATION
Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, TFL, and vastus lateralis (VL). A client that demonstrates the knee valgus compensation should perform foam rolling on one or all of the short/overactive muscles.

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102
Q

Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?

A

Pectoralis Minor

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103
Q

agonist

A

prime mover

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104
Q

synergist

A

assist to prime mover

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105
Q

stabilizer

A

stabilizes joint in movement

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106
Q

antagonist

A

relax; allow prime mover to work efficiently

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107
Q

What is the agonist muscle in a chest press?

A

pectoralis major

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108
Q

What is the synergist muscle in a chest press?

A

anterior delt, tricep

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109
Q

What is the synergist muscle in an overhead press?

A

triceps

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110
Q

What is a stabilizer muscle in a chest press? ligament

A

rotator cuff

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111
Q

The cardiorespiratory system is made up of which two elements?

A

cardiovascular and respiratory systems

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112
Q

What is the function of the atrium? superior

A

receives blood from veins to ventricles

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113
Q

What is the function of the ventricle?inferior

A

receives blood from atrium and forces blood to arteries

114
Q

Which chamber of the heart gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?

A

left atrium

115
Q

stroke volume

A

amount of pumped out of heart with each contraction

116
Q

heart rate

A

rate at which heart pumps

117
Q

Cardiac ouput

A

heart rate x stroke volume; overall performance of heart

118
Q

Average resting heart rate for untrained adult

A

70-80 bpm

119
Q

The average stroke volume of an adult is ____________mL

A

120

120
Q

How many support mechanisms of blood are there?
_________________
a. What three categories can they be broken down into?
1.
2.
3.

A

3 mechanisms

transportion, regulation, protection

121
Q

The largest artery in the body is the?

A

aorta

122
Q

A closed circuit of hollow tubes that allow blood to be transported to
and from the heart are called:

A

blood vessels

123
Q

There are three major blood vessels types. List them and describe what they do:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. arteries: carry blood away from heart
  2. capillaries: site for water/chemical exchange
  3. veins: carry blood back to heart
124
Q

Fill in the diagram of the structure of the respiratory pump:

bones: SRV
muscles: DE SSP
expiration: II six pack

A

bones: sternum, ribs, vertabrae
muscles: diaphragm, external intercostals, scalenes, sternocleidomastod, pectorialis minor
expiration: internal intercostals, abs

125
Q

What is the respiratory pump?

A

bones, muscles that work together to allow proper respiratory mechanics and help pump blood back to the heart

126
Q

Define the following anatomical terms:

a. Superior:
b. Inferior:
c. Proximal:
d. Distal:
e. Anterior:
f. Posterior:
g. Medial:
h. Lateral:
i. Contralateral:
j. Ipsilateral:

A

a. above point of reference
b. below point of reference
c. positioned nearest center of body
d. farthest from point of reference
e. front of body
f. behind
g. position towards middle
h. position towards outside of body
i. opposite of body
j. same side of body

127
Q

The sagittal plane bisects the body into __________________________________
and produces ________________ and __________________ movements.

A

right to left

flexion and extension

128
Q

The frontal plane bisects the body into __________________________________
and produces ________________ and __________________ movements

A

posterior/anterior

adduction/abductions, eversion/inversion, lateral flexion

129
Q

Definition of : tonic/metric

A

tonic: tension
metric: length

130
Q

What is a force-couple relationship?

A

muscles that work together to produce movement around a joint

131
Q

Arterioles branch out into blood vessels known as what?

A

capillaries

132
Q

First, second, third class levers?

A
  1. fulcrum in the center: nob of head
  2. fulcrum either side; full body calf raise/push up
  3. fulcrum in the middle of effort/resistance: bicep curl
133
Q

What does PAR-Q stand for?

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire

134
Q

Two important areas for the personal trainer to focus on are the
relevant answers provided about a client’s _____________________________
and _____________________________________.

A

Occupation and general lifestyle traits

135
Q

which two factors make up an individuals speed?

A

stride rate and stride length

136
Q

During a stretch was is happening to sarcomeres?

A

Lengthening

137
Q

What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating?

A

plantar flexion

138
Q

What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?

A

Gluteous maximus

139
Q

When performing an overhead squat assessment from the anterior
view, which area should the fitness professional focus on?

A

Feet, ankles, knees

140
Q

Which of the following is considered objective information?

A

body composition testing

141
Q

Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

A

shark skill test

142
Q

Resting anthropometric measurements include:

A

height, weight, waist and hip circumference

143
Q

Medication for:

  1. high blood pressure
  2. congestive heart failure
A
  1. beta blockers

2. nitrates

144
Q

How long do you take a pulse for?

A

60 seconds

145
Q

Typical resting heart rate falls in between _________ and ________ beats per minute

A

70-80 bpms

146
Q

The average resting heart rate for a male is _________, while the average resting heart rate for a female is _________.

A

70 male 75 female

147
Q

What is the process (or equation) used for the above method to find a client’s target heart rate?

A

220- age

148
Q

List the three Training Zones:
Zone 1:
Zone 2:
Zone 3:

A
  1. aerobic/recovery
  2. aerobic/anaerobic
  3. builds high end work capacity
149
Q

The Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) method is also known as: __

A

Karvonen method

150
Q

Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heard contracts:

A

blood pressure

151
Q

Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood:

A

Diastolic

152
Q

When taking a blood pressure measurement, you would inflate the cuff
to ______ to ______ mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

A

20-30

153
Q

What are the four skinfold measurement sites?

A

bicep, tricep, subscapular scapula, Illiac crest

154
Q

Which waist-to-hip ratio puts men and women as risk for a number of diseases?
Women: _______________________ Men: _______________________

A

woman: 80
men: 95

155
Q

Which cardiorespiratory assessment involves a client walking one mile as fast as she can control?

A

Rockport Walk test

156
Q

What does submaximal testing allow for?

A

prediction of Vo2 max

157
Q

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

its in the name

A

nervous and muscular system to be able to work properly for optimal movement

158
Q

The alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain at any given moment is referred to as:

A

posture

159
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to monitor and manipulate movement during functional tasks using the least amount of stress on
the kinetic chain is:

A

functional efficiency

160
Q

If a client displays lower-crossed syndrome, what muscle is most likely
overactive?

A

Gluteus Maximus

161
Q

When a client is performing a single-leg squat and their knees move inward, which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
add, bi, T, VL

A

Adductor Complex, Biceps femoris, TFL, Vastus Lateralis

162
Q

When a client is performing a pushing assessment and their shoulder elevates, which of the following muscles if probably overactive?

A

Upper Trap, Sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

163
Q

If a client is performing a single-leg squat assessment and their knees cave in, which two muscles would you conclude are underactive?

butt/quad

A

Gluteus maximus and Vastus medialis

164
Q

During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean?

SGACHFC

A

Soleus, gastrocnemius, abdominal complex, hip flexor complex

165
Q

What is the purpose of the Davie’s test?

A

upper body agility and stability

166
Q

How long do you perform the pushup test?

A

60 seconds

167
Q

in the Davie’s Test, how many trials do you perform? ______________
How many seconds does the client touch each side? ______________

A

3 trials for 15 seconds each

168
Q

The Shark Skill test is a progression from what?

A

single leg squat assessment

169
Q

Your client is performing an overhead squat postural assessment and you notice that their arms fall forward. You can conclude that their
__________ muscle is probably overactive.

back, TM and chest up and down

A

Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pec major/minor

170
Q

Your client is performing an overhead squat postural assessment and you notice that their feet are turning out. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

Medial G, HC, GAR, SAR, POP

A

Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, garcilis, sartorius, popliteus

171
Q

What does the gluteus maximus concentrically accelerate?

A

Hip abduction and external rotation

172
Q

What does the gluteus minimus concentrically accelerate?

A

Concentrically accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation

173
Q

What does the TFL concentrically accelerate?

A

Hip flexion, internal rotation, abduction

174
Q

What does the Latissimus Dorsi concentrically accelerate?

A

Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

175
Q

The capability of a muscle to be elongated or stretched.

A

extensibility

176
Q

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for a full range of motion.

A

flexibility

177
Q

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all planes of motion.

A

neuromuscular efficiency

178
Q

Optimal control of movement through a joint’s entire ROM.

A

Dynamic ROM

179
Q

How the human movement system seeks the path of least resistance.

A

relative flexibility

180
Q

What is a muscle imbalance?

A

alteration of a muscle length surrounding a joint

181
Q

Golgi tendon organs cause a muscle to

A

relax

182
Q

Occurs when the neural impulses sensing tension are greater than the impulses causing muscle contraction
tension over contraction .

A

autogenic inhibition

183
Q

Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called:

A

autogenic inhibition

184
Q

The function of the muscle spindle is to:

A

prevent muscles being stretched to far to fast

185
Q

occurs when a joint is not working

properly, and leads to altered joint motion.

A

arthrokinetic dysfunction

186
Q

is the simultaneous contraction of one

muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist.

A

reciprocal inhibition

187
Q

is a neuromuscular phenomenon that

occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover

A

synergistic dominance.

188
Q

is caused by a tight agonist muscle

decreasing drive to its functioning antagonist

A

altered reciprocal inhibition

189
Q

states that soft tissues model along the

lines of stress.

A

Davis’s Law

190
Q

Which type of stretching is associated with functional flexibility

A

Dynamic stretching

191
Q

Corrective Flexibility

A

Static stretching

192
Q

Which type of stretching is associated with active flexibility?

A

active isolated stretching

193
Q

The purpose dynamic stretching is:

A

Increase flexibility with optimal neuromuscular control

194
Q

Increase extensibility of soft tissues through reciprocal inhibition is what kind of stretching?

A

active stretching

195
Q

This type of stretching focuses on the neural and fascial system of the body

A

SMR

196
Q

The prisoner squat is an example of what type of stretching technique?

A

dynamic stretching

197
Q

What is the purpose of active stretching?

A

extensibility of soft tissues

198
Q

What are the acute variables of the active stretch?

A

1-2 sets, 5-10 repetitions

199
Q

What is the purpose of dynamic stretching?

A

increase flexibility with optimal neuromuscular control

200
Q

What are the acute variables of the dynamic stretch?

A

1-2 sets, 10-15 repetitions, 3-10 exercises

201
Q

Fill in the flexibility continuum diagram:

CAF

A

Corrective: static
Activie: active isolated stretching
Functional stretching: dynamic

202
Q

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.

A

Cardiovascular training

203
Q

NASM recommends that a cardiorespiratory warm-up last between
_______ and _______ minutes.

A

5 to 10 minutes

204
Q

What does FITTE stand for?

A

Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment

205
Q

The highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.

A

maximal oxygen consumption: vO2 max

206
Q

The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption.

A

oxygen uptake reserve

207
Q

The point at which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.

Starbucks

A

ventilatory threshold

208
Q

The Ventilatory Threshold is associated with what method for prescribing exercise intensity?

A

talk test

209
Q

What is the goal of a client in a Stage II heart rate training zone?

A

76-85

210
Q

What is the goal of a client in a Stage I heart rate zone?

A

65-75

211
Q

Which muscle is a part of the local stabilization system?2

A

internal oblique

212
Q

What level of core training exercises prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?

A

Core strength

213
Q

What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the local stabilization system?

A

type 1, proprioception, postural control

214
Q

What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the global stabilization system?

A

transfer loads between upper and lower ext.

215
Q

What are the characteristics of the muscles that make up the movement system?
speed up and speed down.

A

responsible for concentric for production and eccentric deceleration

216
Q

The hip flexors fall into which core stabilization system?

A

Movement system

217
Q

The diaphragm falls into which core stabilizing system?

A

Local

218
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-stabilization level exercise?

A

floor bridge

219
Q

is a maneuver used to recruit the local core

stabilizers by drawing the navel toward the spine.

A

Draw in maneuver

220
Q

is referred to as a co-contraction of global

muscles or “bearing down”

A

bracing

221
Q

It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve the
following functional outcomes, in THIS order:

A
  1. intervertebral stability
  2. Lumbopelvic stability
  3. movement efficiency
222
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-strength level exercise?

A

ball crunch

223
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-power level exercise?

A

rotational ball pass

224
Q

List four effects of joint dysfunction:

A
  1. muscle inhibition
  2. joint injury
  3. swelling
  4. altered proprioception
225
Q

balance is what 2 things

A

static and dynamic

226
Q

Which is the proper progression in balance training?

A

floor, balance beam, half foam roller, foam pad, balance disk

227
Q

To move efficiently, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized
(isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically)

A

Integrated performance paradigm

228
Q

What are the three phases of plyometric training?

A

eccentric, amortization and concentric

229
Q

The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly

A

agility

230
Q

The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production.

A

quickness

231
Q

synergistic dominance

A

when inappropriate muscles take over weak muscles

232
Q

During a hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?

A

60 seconds

233
Q

In phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be
completed?

A

3-5

234
Q

What is the recommended intensity level for a client in phase 1 of resistance training?

A

50-70%

235
Q

What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for
a client in phase 2 of the OPT model?

A

perform a strength exercise followed up with a stability exercise

236
Q

What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance
training for a client in phase 4: Maximal Strength of the OPT model?

A

85-100% 1-3 min. rest

237
Q

What are the recommended amounts of reps and sets for resistance training for a client in the Power level of the OPT model?

A

1-5 reps strength
8-10 reps power
3-5 sets

238
Q

What is the recommended exercise selection for resistance training for a client in phase 4 of the OPT model?

A

1-3 exerises

239
Q

push up test

A

push ups for 60 secs , number of push ups should increase over time

240
Q

caffeine regarding training (ergogenic= performance)

A

doesnt not help for 90 secs or less sprint type effort

241
Q

The adaptation of stabilization endurance is achieved by which of the following?

A

12-20 reps

1-3 sets

242
Q

The goal of hypertrophy training is:

A

enlarge muscles

243
Q

Approximately what percent recovery of ATP and PC will occur after 60 seconds?

A

85-90%

244
Q

What type of adaptations are seen with higher volume training?

A

Cellular adaptations

245
Q

What type of adaptations are seen with low volume training?

A

Neurologic adaptations

246
Q

What Phases of the OPT model should be used for improving general sports performance?

A

Phase 1,2,5

247
Q

_ is the amount of physical training performed

within a specified period.

A

training frequency

248
Q

is the number of training sessions performed

in a given time period

A

training duration

249
Q

is the timeframe of a workout or the length

of time spent in one phase of training.

A

length of time

250
Q

High volume work is inversely related to

A

intensity

251
Q

What is the adaptation yielded from 3-5 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 75-85% intensity?

A

hypertrophy

252
Q

Name a core exercise to use with a client that has hypertension

A

standing cable torso iso-rotation

253
Q

Progression for the youth population should be based on:

A

postural control

254
Q

A condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as
well as an increase in the space between the bones, resulting in POROSITY and fragility?

A

osteoporosis

255
Q

The use of which training system would be advised for someone with
Chronic Lung Disease? favorite form of exercise

A

Peripheral heart action

256
Q

A unit of energy and is defined as the amount of heat energy required
to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.

A

calorie lower case C

257
Q

Equal to 1,000 calories.

A

kilocalorie

258
Q

Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?

A

Metabolic syndrome

259
Q

To be absorbed effectively, how should calcium supplements be taken?

A

with meals, throughout the day

260
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

20

261
Q

What is the best method of training for a client with obstructive lung
disease? my favorite form of training

A

peripheral training

262
Q

You have a client with a goal of increasing his lean body mass; which of
the following is the best recommendation for protein intake?

A

0.5- 0.8 g/lb

263
Q

The most concentrated source of energy in the diet

A

lipids/fat

264
Q

The chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions:

A

carbs

265
Q

Name the macronutrient responsible for acting as transport for vitamins
A, D, E, and K.

A

lipids fat

266
Q

How many liters of water are recommended for an adult male per day?
female

A

male 15.5 cups 3.7 liters

female: 11.5 cups 2.7 liters

267
Q

What is the recommended amount of fat that athletes are

recommended to consume based on their caloric intake?

A

20-35%

268
Q

Recommended percentage of total caloric intake from carbohydrates

A

45-65%

269
Q

What is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to be ingested within 30 minutes of exercise in order to maximize recovery?

A

1.5g

270
Q

Thermic effect of food TEF

A

6-10%

271
Q

How much extra fluid should a person consume for every 15 to 20 minutes of exercise?

A

6-12 ounces

272
Q

How many ounces for every lb lost after exercise

A

16-24 ounces

273
Q

What is the recommended number of meals per day for someone with the goal of lean mass gain?

A

4-6 meals

274
Q

Average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the nutrient requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.

A

estimated average requirement

275
Q

This vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause permanent damage to sensory nerves.

A

B6

276
Q

This vitamin, when taken in excess, can result in the calcification of blood vessels and eventually damage the function of the kidneys, heart and lungs.

A

Vitamin D

277
Q

This vitamin, when taken in excess, can cause birth defects when a woman is taking too much at conception and during early pregnancy.

A

Vitamin A

278
Q

What is a potential result of consuming too much calcium?

A

kidney stones, constipation

279
Q

How long do personal trainers have to make a first impression?

A

20 seconds

280
Q

Physical activity accounts for approximately what percent of TEE?

A

20%

281
Q

What is the number of contact hours of continuing education necessary for NASM CPT credential renewal?

A

20 hours 2.0 CEU’s

CPT (1 decks)

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