CPT DCO Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. (A) initial interview

1. determine compatibility between a client and a personal trainer

A

As the first step in determining personal trainer–client compatibility, the personal trainer provides a detailed description of the services available. Important information to convey to the potential client includes an explanation of the personal trainer’s formal education, professional experience, certifications, and expertise or specializations, as well as the mission statement, success rate, and unique features of the program delivery system.

The last step in determining compatibility is to assess suitability and appropriateness. It is important that the personal trainer and potential client agree to boundaries, roles, resources, and expectations and address concerns related to any of the issues or information discussed in the initial interview.

If facts are discovered during the initial interview that would establish incompatibility, it is important for the personal trainer to provide the person with an option to receive services through a referral process.

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2
Q
  1. (A) initial interview
  2. administer a client-personal trainer and/or client-personal trainer-fitness facility agreement

STEPS OF THE CLIENT CONSULTATION AND HEALTH APPRAISAL

A

STEPS OF THE CLIENT CONSULTATION AND HEALTH APPRAISAL

Schedule interview appointment.

Conduct interview.

Implement and complete health appraisal forms.

Evaluate for coronary risk factors, diagnosed disease, and lifestyle.

Assess and interpret results.

Refer to an allied health professional when necessary.

Obtain medical clearance and program recommendations.

driven. Components of a contract include written documentation describing the services, parties involved, expectations of those parties, timeline of delivery, cost structure, and a payment process. Language of the contract should also cover the cancellation policy, termination of contract, and circumstances that would render the document void. An opportunity for discussion regarding the content of the contract should be provided during the consultation. The personal trainer should document and clarify questions and issues concerning the agreement before receipt of acknowledgment of acceptance.

The contract becomes valid when signed by both parties, assuming appropriate legal age and competency.

agreement, they must then enter an agreement to validate the safe use of the facility. This form is an agreement of facility permissions,

permissions, indicating what the personal trainer and client are permitted to use while inside the facility. Examples include the use of the restrooms, locker rooms, strength equipment, cardio equipment, and multipurpose spaces. Also discussed in this form is the explanation of liability between the personal trainer, the client, and the facility itself.

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3
Q
  1. (A) initial interview

3. administer an informed consent and liability waiver form

A

Also discussed in this form is the explanation of liability between the personal trainer, the client, and the facility itself. If the personal trainer is a self-employed independent contractor, this form will explain what the facility is liable for and what it is not. This form typically indicates that the facility is not responsible for injuries, broken equipment, accidents, and so on because the independent contractor is operating as an independent business within the walls of the fitness facility, and the independent contractor is the responsible party accepting liability under his or her own insurance during the client’s training session. Personal trainers hired as employees should have a similar form provided by the facility explaining what responsibilities the facility has. This can include providing safe and well-maintained equipment; providing a clean training space; and ensuring a safe environment to exercise and work in. This form will also indicate what, if any, responsibility the facility will take in case of an accident. Typical agreements such as these ask that participants waive all liability, indicating they are choosing to participate in activities inside the facility fully understanding they have waived their liability.

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4
Q
  1. (A) initial interview

4. informed consent and assumption of risk or waiver

A

informed consent

gives clients information about the content and process of the program delivery system. The essential elements of an informed consent include a detailed description of the program, the risks and the benefits associated with participation, a confidentiality clause, responsibilities of the participant, and documentation of acknowledgment and acceptance of the terms described within the form. It has been commonly accepted that the information on this form should be conveyed both verbally and in writing to the client before any testing or participation to ensure that the participant knows and understands the risks and circumstances associated with the program.

assumption of risk or waiver:

An assumption of risk or waiver is an agreement by a client, before beginning participation, to give up, relinquish, or waive the participant’s rights to legal remedy (damages) in the event of injury, even when such injury arises because of provider negligence

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5
Q
  1. (B) medical history and health appraisal
  2. administer a detailed medical history/health appraisal form and a lifestyle questionnaire (including exercise and injury history)

PAR-Q

A

The purpose of the preparticipation health appraisal is to identify known diseases and risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease, assess lifestyle factors that may require special considerations, and identify individuals who may require medical referral before starting an exercise program.

The first step in the preparticipation health appraisal screening process is to ask the client to complete relevant forms. The personal trainer should review the completed forms before services are provided and any activity occurs. It is essential that the process be cost-effective and time efficient to avoid unnecessary barriers to exercise for individuals who do not need a medical clearance to participate.

The two instruments that are commonly used are the PAR-Q+ and a health/medical questionnaire. Abbreviated PAR-Q+, the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone is a tool developed in Canada that consists of questions requiring self-recall of observations and signs and symptoms experienced by the client, in addition to confirmation of diagnosis by a physician.

advantages of the PAR-Q+ are that it is cost-effective, easy to administer, and sensitive in that it identifies individuals who require additional medical screening while not excluding those who would benefit from participation in low-intensity activity.

The health/medical questionnaire is an effective tool for assessing the appropriateness of moderate and vigorous levels of exercise in that it can identify positive coronary risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease, sudden cardiac death risk factors, existing diagnosed pathologies, orthopedic concerns, recent operations, personal history of suggested signs and symptoms, medications, supplements, and lifestyle management.

lifestyle questionnaire

consist of questions to evaluate personal choices and patterns related to dietary intake, management of stress, level of physical activity, and other practices that may affect the person’s health.

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6
Q
  1. (B) medical history and health appraisal

2. obtain a medical release from the client’s primary physician, if necessary

A

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7
Q
  1. (B) medical history and health appraisal

3. interpret medical history/health appraisal form and lifestyle questionnaire

A

Classifying risk for potential health-related concerns is a preliminary step in determining the appropriateness of activity and identifying clients who require referral before beginning an exercise program. To meaningfully interpret the results obtained through the screening process, the personal trainer should use the PAR-Q+ results to identify people who have a greater potential for risk and may require referral and a clearance from a physician.

the PAR-Q+ is easy to administer and is a cost-effective mechanism for initially screening individuals who are apparently

apparently healthy and want to engage in regular low-intensity exercise. The PAR-Q+ is useful for referring individuals who require additional medical screening while not excluding those who may benefit from exercise.

apparently healthy and want to engage in regular low-intensity exercise. The PAR-Q+ is useful for referring individuals who require additional medical screening while not excluding those who may benefit from exercise.

The ACSM preparticipation screening algorithm determines a person’s preparedness to begin an exercise program using current exercise status, known cardiovascular, metabolic, or renal disease, and personal signs and symptoms (4). Figure 9.1 is divided into two subsets: individuals who do not participate in regular exercise and individuals who do.

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8
Q
  1. (B) medical history and health appraisal
  2. refer a client to and/or seek input from an appropriate healthcare professional based on information in the medical history and health appraisal
A

The processes described so far (i.e., preparticipation health appraisal screening; evaluation of coronary risk factors, disease, and lifestyle; and interpretation of the information obtained through the initial interview and client consultation process) are intended to help identify individuals who will need a referral to a health care professional for medical clearance before participating in activity.

Regular medical examinations to evaluate health status are normally encouraged for preventive purposes for everyone. It is also reasonable to recommend that persons beginning a new program of activity or exercise consult with a physician before participation.

No CV, metabolic or renal disease and no s/s - no medical clearance needed and engage in vigorous exercise allowed.

know CV, metabolic or renal disease and no s/s - no medical clearance needed for moderate and within medical clearance recommended for vigorous exercise along 12 mos of no s/s

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9
Q
  1. (B) medical history and health appraisal

5. maintain a network of allied health care professionals

A

diagnostic medical examination and submaximal or maximal exercise tests are appropriate before participation in moderate and vigorous exercise, and when a physician’s supervision is required to monitor these tests. The sidebar, “Preparticipation and Physical Examination Components”, provides the American College of Sports Medicine’s recommendations for current medical examinations and exercise testing before participation and physician supervision of exercise tests

Once medical clearance is recommended, the personal trainer should give the client a physician’s referral form to obtain the necessary information about health status, physical limitations, and restrictions that would be required in order to make future fitness program recommendations. The physician’s referral form includes assessment of the individual’s functional capacity, classification of ability to participate based on the evaluation, identification of preexisting conditions that may be worsened by exercise, prescribed medications, and fitness program recommendations.

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10
Q
  1. (C) fitness evaluation
  2. conduct fitness evaluation including;

a. vital signs (heart rate, blood pressure)
b. height
c. weight
d. body composition
e. girth measurement
f. muscular strength
g. muscular endurance
h. speed/agility/power
i. cardiovascular endurance
j. flexibility
k. postural alignment/muscle balance

A

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11
Q
  1. (C) fitness evaluation

2. conduct movement assessments

A

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12
Q
  1. (C) fitness evaluation

3. conduct reevaluation and reassessment

A

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13
Q
  1. (C) fitness evaluation

4. interpret the results of a health/fitness evaluation or reevaluation

A

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14
Q
  1. (C) fitness evaluation
  2. refer a client to and/or seek input from an appropriate health care professional based on the fitness evaulation results
A

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15
Q
  1. (D) basic nutrition review

1. identify the personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding nutritional recommendations

A

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16
Q
  1. (D) basic nutrition review

2. conduct a review of a client’s dietary habits (recall, history, food log)

A

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17
Q
  1. (D) basic nutrition review
  2. communicate and educate using information from peer-reviewed resources regarding general nutrition, supplements, nutrient timing, hydration, and daily caloric needs
A

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18
Q
  1. (D) basic nutrition review

4. recognize the signs and symptoms of disordered eating and eating disorders

A

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19
Q
  1. (D) basic nutrition review
  2. refer client to and/or seek input from an appropriate healthcare professional based on the basic nutritional review results
A

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20
Q
  1. (A) program planning
  2. establish needs and goals by discussing the results of an initial interview, medical history and health appraisal and fitness evaluation with a client
A

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21
Q
  1. (A) program planning

2. establish needs and goals by discussing the results of dietary habit log with a client

A

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22
Q
  1. (A) program planning
  2. establish needs and goals by discussing health-related lifestyle habits (smoking, alcohol use, drug use) with a client
A

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23
Q
  1. (A) program planning
  2. determine the motivational/coaching techniques (reward system, reinforcement strategies, mental imagery techniques, visualization, use of technology) that will be effective for a client
A

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24
Q
  1. (B) program design

1. select the exercise modality or type

A

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25
Q
  1. (B) program design

2. select the warm up/cool down exercises

A

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26
Q
  1. (B) program design

3. determine the order of exercise or exercise components

A

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27
Q
  1. (B) program design

4. determine the exercise intensity or workload

A

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28
Q
  1. (B) program design

5. determine exercise duration

A

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29
Q
  1. (B) program design

6. determine exercise frequency

A

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30
Q
  1. (B) program design

7. determine the rate of exercise progression

A

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31
Q
  1. (B) program design

8. determine program modifications based upon the results of re-evaluation and reassessment

A

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32
Q
  1. (C) training adaptations
  2. explain exercise-induced changes to body structures

a. muscles
b. tendons, ligaments, and connective tissue
c. bone and cartilage
d. adipose tissue (fat stores)

A

33
Q
  1. (C) training adaptations
  2. explain exercise-induced changes to body systems

a. neuromuscular
b. cardiorespiratory
c. metabolic
d. endocrine
e. psychological

A

34
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    a. age-specific conditions (older adults, prepubescents, adolescents)
A

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35
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    b. female-specific conditions (prenatal, postpartum, postmenopausal)
A

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36
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    c. individuals with psychological disorders/conditions (depression, disordered eating, eating disorders)
A

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37
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    d. individuals with orthopedic disorders/conditions (arthritis, osteoporosis/osteopenia, amputations, musculoskeletal trauma, rhabdomyolysis)
A

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38
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    e. individuals with cardiovascular disorders/conditions (hypertension, hyperlipidemia, post-cardiac)
A

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39
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    f. individuals with metabolic disorders/conditions (overweight, obese, diabetes, metabolic syndrome)
A

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40
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    g. individuals with respiratory disorders/conditions (asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
A

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41
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    h. individuals with genetic, cognitive or neurological disorders (epilepsy, multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, spinal cord injuries, paralysis, parkinson’s disease, down’s syndrome, traumatic brain injury, alzheimer)
A

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42
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    i. individuals training for a certain sport or competition (athletes)
A

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43
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    j. individuals with fibromyalgia
A

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44
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    k. individuals with cancer
A

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45
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. recognize and determine (if appropriate) the capacities and limitations of a client with a specialized need or condition
    l. individuals with immunological and hematological disorders (AIDS< HIV, chronic fatigue syndrome, anemia, auto-immune disorders. bleeding or clotting disorders)
A

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46
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. modify the exercise program within scope of practice of medical recommendations (if appropriate) to coincide with limitation and capacities of a client with a specialized need or condition
A

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47
Q
  1. (D) special populations
  2. refer a client to and/or seek input from an appropriate health care professional based on the specific needs of the client.
A

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48
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    a. machine resistance exercise (plate-loaded, selectorized, hydraulic, air, friction, rod)
A

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49
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    b. free weight exercises (barbells, dumbbells)
A

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50
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    c. flexibility exercises (static, ballistic, dynamic, PNF, active-isolated stretching)
A

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51
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    d. calisthenic and body weight exercises (yoga, pull-up, push-up, torso exercises, suspension training)
A

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52
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    e. sport-specific/performance-related activities (plyos, sprinting, agility drills, reaction)
A

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53
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    f. cardiovascular machines (treadmill, stationary bike, rowing machines, stepping and climbing machine, elliptical trainer, upper body ergometer)
A

54
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    g. non-machine cardiovascular activities (running, walking, swimming, aerobic dancing) .
A

55
Q
  1. evaluate exercise techniques (including body position, speed/control of movement, movement/range of motion, progression, cueing, muscular involvement, breathing, spotting/safety guidelines
    h. alternative training activities (tire-flipping, weighted carries, weighted bags, ropes, chains, stability balls, kettleballs, medicine balls, resistance bands, balance, club, sled, manual resistance)
A

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56
Q
  1. Safety procedures
  2. maintain exercise equipment
  3. establish an exercise environment consistent with industry standards
  4. respond to symptoms of overtraining, overuse injuries, and temperature-induced illness
A

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57
Q
  1. emergency response
  2. perform basic first aid consistent with industry standards
  3. perform CPR and use an AED consistent with industry standards
  4. implement a plan to respond to an emergency in am exercise facility (fire, environmental disasters, medical situations, security threats)
A

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58
Q
  1. professional, legal and ethical responsibility
  2. recognize litigation issues and circumstances
  3. maintain a professional client-personal trainer relationship (all forms of communications)
  4. maintain client-personal trainer confidentiality
  5. ensure documentation is obtained, maintained and secured relating to professional, legal, and ethical responsibilities (incident reporting, PAR-Q, HIPPA, compliance, facility maintenance requirements)
A

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