CPT Flashcards
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major? Select one: a. Medicine ball rotation chest pass b. Floor push-ups c. Single-leg throw and catch d. Ball dumbbell chest press
A. Medicine ball rotation chest press
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occurring to the woman's aerobic energy system? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Metabolic specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Metabolic specificity
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance? Select one: a. Pyramid system training b. Drop-set training c. Circuit training d. Plyometric-strength training
c. Circuit training
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client? Select one: a. Overtraining b. Resistance development c. Alarm reaction d. Exhaustion
d. Exhaustion
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Standing cable row b. Biceps curl c. Standing triceps extension d. Dumbbell chest press
a. Standing cable row
Which of the following refers to a resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part? Select one: a. Horizontal loading b. Circuit training c. Supersets d. Split-routine
a. Horizontal loading
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension? Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Muscular dystrophy c. Muscular atrophy d. Muscular hypotrophy
a. Muscular hypertrophy
What is occurring when a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury? Select one: a. Resistance development b. Exhaustion c. Alarm reaction d. Overworking
b. Exhaustion
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity? Select one: a. Metabolic b. Mechanical c. Neuromuscular d. Overload
a. Metabolic
Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following? Select one: a. Vertical loading b. Horizontal loading c. Split-routine d. Single-set
b. Horizontal loading
A ball squat, curl to press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? Select one: a. Corrective b. Strength c. Power d. Stabilization
d. Stabilization
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system? Select one: a. Superset system b. Pyramid system c. Vertical loading system d. Split-routine system
d. Split-routine system
Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?
Select one:
a. Exercises that involve high loads and long rest periods between sets.
b. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
c. Low-load, high-velocity contractions performed in a plyometric manner.
d. Exercises that involve low repetitions and high loads.
b. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set? Select one: a. Split-routine b. Pyramid system c. Vertical loading d. Circuit training
b. Pyramid system
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
c. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Barbell bench press
a. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Which of the following should be retracted and depressed during the mid-phase of a standing cable row? Select one: a. Clavicles b. Scapulae c. Patellae d. Femurs
b. Scapulae
Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead? Select one: a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Lunge to balance d. Step-up to balance
d. Step-up to balance
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts? Select one: a. Bench press b. Step-up to balance c. Medicine ball chest pass d. Squat jump
a. Bench press
Which of the following is required in order to develop maximal strength or power? Select one: a. Short bouts of exercise b. Longer rest periods c. Low-intensity workouts d. Energy via aerobic pathways
b. Longer rest periods
In the context of training programs, repetition tempo refers to which of the following?
Select one:
a. The timeframe from the start of a workout to the finish of a workout
b. Speed with which each repetition is performed
c. The number of training sessions that are repeated during a given period
d. Time taken to recuperate between sets or repetitions
b. The speed with which each repetition is performed
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos? Select one: a. 1/1/1 b. X/X/X c. 2/0/2 d. 4/2/1
c. 2/0/2
What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level? Select one: a. Reduce neutralizer strength b. Reduce prime mover strength c. Increase muscle size d. Increase rate of force production
d. Increase rate of force production
A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate? Select one: a. 1-2 b. 4 c. 5-6 d. 3
a. 1-2
A client is performing squats with the goal of achieving maximal strength. Which of the following is an appropriate intensity level? Select one: a. 85-100% b. 50-70% c. 75-80% d. 30-45%
a. 85-100%
Which of the following is required in order to develop maximal strength or power? Select one: a. Short bouts of exercise b. Longer rest periods c. Low-intensity workouts d. Energy via aerobic pathways
b. Longer rest periods
Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 1 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 4
a. Phase 5
Which of the following is an example of a stabilization exercise? Select one: a. Two-arm push press b. Barbell clean c. Single-leg cable rows d. Squat jump
c. Single-leg cable rows
Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal? Select one: a. 30 seconds b. 5 minutes c. 7 minutes d. 2 minutes
a. 30 seconds
What does the Maximal Strength Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focus on?
Select one:
a. Reducing the recruitment of more motor units
b. Decreasing the rate of force production
c. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
d. Improving muscle size and muscle growth
c. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period? Select one: a. 3–5 minutes b. 0–60 seconds c. 0–90 seconds d. 1–2 minutes
a. 3–5 minutes
During a training program, muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations are best developed with which of the following rest intervals? Select one: a. 1–2 minutes b. 3–5 minutes c. 0–90 seconds d. 0–180 seconds
c. 0–90 seconds
Acute variables determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Proper kinetic chain alignment
b. Progression of the exercise
c. The amount of stress placed on the body
d. What type of workout is being done
c. The amount of stress placed on the body
A client has been training three times per week in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?
Select one:
a. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise
b. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise
c. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise
d. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
d. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
Which of the following is within the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase? Select one: a. 0 b. 1 c. 3 d. 2
c. 3
Which method is most appropriate for Strength Endurance training?
Select one:
a. Using high levels of volume with minimal rest periods for about 4 weeks
b. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body for about 4 weeks
c. Focusing on high force and velocity for about 4 weeks
d. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
d. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, from which of the following is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed?
Select one:
a. Fast, yet controlled, repetition tempo
b. Moderate repetition tempo
c. Slow repetition tempo
d. Explosive repetition tempo
c. Slow repetition tempo
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
b. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
d. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this? Select one: a. Resistance machine b. Smith machine c. Barbells d. Suspension trainer
d. Suspension trainer
Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client’s hands.
b. Spot at the client’s elbows.
c. Spot at the client’s axilla.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space? Select one: a. Elastic resistance training b. Kettlebell training c. Vibration training d. Suspension body-weight training
c. Vibration training
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Select one:
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
b. Spot at the elbows.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Standing cable chest press b. Standing cable crunch c. Standing cable row d. Standing triceps extension
a. Standing cable chest press
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities? Select one: a. Medicine balls b. Kettlebells c. Stability balls d. Water balls
a. Medicine balls
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
Select one:
a. Implement a drop-set loading system
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Avoid prone positions
d. Use Valsalva maneuvers
c. Avoid prone positions
Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?
Select one:
a. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Decreased lean body mass
d. Increased connective tissue elasticity
c. Decreased lean body mass
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Pushing test
b. Shark skill test
c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
d. Davies test
a. Pushing test
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client? Select one: a. Speed b. Strength c. Postural control d. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Postural control
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate? Select one: a. Davies test b. Bench press c. Shark skill test d. Single-leg squat
d. Single-leg squat
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
Select one:
a. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
c. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Select one:
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
b. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
c. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.
d. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Standing cobra c. Knee-up d. Reverse crunch
b. Standing cobra
Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla? Select one: a. Prone or supine positions b. Standing positions c. Trigger points d. Seated positions
a. Prone or supine positions
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
Select one:
a. Clients who suffer from varicose veins in the lower extremities
b. Client’s with no co-morbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
c. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
d. Youth clients between the ages of 4-8 in which growth plates are not fused
c. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
Resting metabolic rate accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure? Select one: a. 85% b. 70% c. 40% d. 55%
b. 70%
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein? Select one: a. 50% b. 40% c. 60% d. 30%
d. 30%
Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis
b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia
c. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension
d. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy
b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols? Select one: a. Lipids b. Minerals c. Polysaccharides d. Nucleic acids
a. Lipids
Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass? Select one: a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Carbohydrates d. Liquids
c. Carbohydrates
Mark has a client who is switching to a vegan diet and would like some advice on meal planning. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario?
Select one:
a. Design a meal plan for the client.
b. Enroll the client in a group-oriented nutrition program.
c. Send the client to Mark’s vegan friend for guidance.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following? Select one: a. Restrictive lung disease b. Metabolic syndrome c. Coronary heart disease d. Peripheral edema condition
b. Metabolic syndrome
What links together to form protein? Select one: a. Nucleotides b. Glycerols c. Amino acids d. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
Which of the following macronutrients has an acceptable macronutrient distribution range in the 45 - 65% total caloric intake? Select one: a. Fats b. Lipids c. Carbohydrates d. Protein
c. Carbohydrates
Polysaccharides are often called complex carbohydrates and they primarily include which of the following? Select one: a. Brown sugar and fruit sugar b. Cane sugar and milk sugar c. Kestose and trehalose d. Starch and fiber
d. Starch and fiber
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement? Select one: a. 3-6 mg/kg b. 3-6 mg/lb c. 1-3 mg/kg d. 1-3 mg/lb
a. 3-6 mg/kg
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group? Select one: a. Recommended Dietary Allowance b. Estimated Average Requirement c. Adequate Intake d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
What is a side effect of caffeine use? Select one: a. A decrease in systolic blood pressure b. A decrease in calcium excretion c. An increase in urine production d. An increase in HDL cholesterol
c. An increase in urine production
Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement?
Select one:
a. Represented as a conventional food
b. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
c. Includes drugs and biologics
d. Regulated by the FDA
b. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed? Select one: a. Spaced throughout the day b. In the evening c. In the morning d. With your first meal
a. Spaced throughout the day
Which of the following is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine? Select one: a. Growth Hormone b. Creatine c. Glycogen d. Vitamin D
b. Creatine
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin? Select one: a. Vitamin B12 b. Riboflavin c. Calcium d. Biotin
c. Calcium
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy
b. Hip fractures in older women
c. Lung cancer in smokers
d. Alzheimer’s disease in the elderly
c. Lung cancer in smokers
Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following? Select one: a. Loss of hair b. Calcification of arteries c. Osteopenia d. Bone and joint pain
b. Calcification of arteries
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Action stage b. Remodeling c. Behavioral reactants d. Diffusion
c. Behavioral reactants
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what? Select one: a. Reflecting b. Remodeling c. Positive self-talk d. Affirmations
c. Positive self-talk
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action
a. Contemplation
Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Preparation
b. Maintenance
Which of the following is the first stage in the stages of change model? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Maintenance c. Action d. Preparation
a. Precontemplation
According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Preparation
c. Maintenance
A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client? Select one: a. Preparation b. Action c. Precontemplation d. Contemplation
d. Contemplation
According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
Select one:
a. They exhibit complete self-control.
b. They are highly unlikely to reach the termination stage.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
d. They are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Compare the client’s body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
c. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.
d. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Does this exercise hurt?" b. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" c. "Are you ready to get started today?" d. "Are you feeling okay?"
b. “Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?”
Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful? Select one: a. Schedule flexibility b. Updated equipment is provided c. Provided uniforms d. Robust group fitness schedules
b. Updated equipment is provided
What is the main purpose of creating and running a successful personal training business?
Select one:
a. Create and keep a loyal customer base.
b. Minimize overhead and fixed costs.
c. Generate a minimum 30% return on investment.
d. Gain notoriety in the community.
a. Create and keep a loyal customer base.
Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?
Select one:
a. Availability of restrooms
b. Packing equipment into the trainer’s car
c. Outdoor event planning
d. Overhead costs
b. Packing equipment into the trainer’s car
How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?
Select one:
a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
b. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships.
c. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient.
d. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.
a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
Which of the following should a fitness professional working as a personal trainer do if his or her client suffers from shortness of breath after a low-intensity workout?
Select one:
a. Diagnose the client’s condition.
b. Ask the client to perform another low-intensity exercise.
c. Prescribe treatment for the client’s condition.
d. Refer the client to a physician.
d. Refer the client to a physician.
After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. A way to create value for potential clients
b. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
d. Obtaining training for marketing services
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation? Select one: a. Psyching up b. Self-monitoring c. Exercise imagery d. Positive self-talk
c. Exercise imagery
Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
b. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
c. Prescribing nutrition plans
d. Diagnosing injuries
a. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
Cody works as a certified personal trainer with a basketball team. One of the players injures himself during pracitce. In this scenario, what should be Cody’s course of action?
Select one:
a. Cody should refer the player to another personal trainer.
b. Cody should treat the player’s injury as he is certified to do so.
c. Cody should wrap the player’s ankle in ice.
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional
Charlotte is planning to start a new fitness club. Which of the following ideas should Charlotte focus on in her marketing mix to get the word out about her club? Select one: a. Place b. Product c. Price d. Promotion
d. Promotion
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Pro shuttle test c. L.E.F.T. test d. Gait assessment
b. Pro shuttle test
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior? Select one: a. Social support b. Extrinsic c. Association and dissociation d. Intrinsic
c. Association and dissociation
Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Calf raises b. Chest press c. Leg raises d. Seated calf raises
c. Leg raises
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided? Select one: a. Rowing machine b. Versa climber c. Elliptical trainer d. Treadmill
d. Treadmill
Which of the following refers to a program design approach that changes acute variables to achieve different goals on a daily or weekly basis? Select one: a. Linear summation b. Linear periodization c. Tabulation d. Undulated periodization
d. Undulated periodization
Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge?
Select one:
a. The feet should be hip-width apart and turned out
b. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
c. The feet should be together and pointed straight ahead
d. The feet should be wider than hip-width apart and straight ahead
b. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence? Select one: a. Modeling b. Performance accomplishments c. Verbal persuasion d. Imagery
b. Performance accomplishments
David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?
Select one:
a. The range of motion should be decreased
b. The range of motion should be increased
c. The heels should be elevated
d. The arms should be placed at the sides
a. The range of motion should be decreased
What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Lower extremity strength assessment c. 40-yard dash d. Overhead squat assessment
a. Shark skill test
What should be included in a training template for client records?
Select one:
a. The client’s BMI
b. Weight of the client
c. Exercise selection for the client
d. The 1 repetition max of the client’s bench press
c. Exercise selection for the client
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group? Select one: a. Recommended Dietary Allowance b. Tolerable Upper Intake Level c. Estimated Average Requirement d. Adequate Intake
b. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
What refers to a position on the same side of the body? Select one: a. Anterior b. Ipsilateral c. Proximal d. Medial
b. Ipsilateral
Which of the following is made up of the upper and lower extremities as well as the shoulder and pelvic girdles and encompasses approximately 126 bones? Select one: a. Appendicular skeleton b. Vertebral column c. Epiphyseal plate d. Articular cartilage
a. Appendicular skeleton
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Alzheimer’s disease in the elderly
b. Lung cancer in smokers
c. Hip fractures in older women
d. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy
b. Lung cancer in smokers
Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Flexibility c. Extensibility d. Dynamic range of motion
b. Flexibility
Resting metabolic rate accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure? Select one: a. 0.85 b. 0.4 c. 0.7 d. 0.55
c. 0.7
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used? Select one: a. Jogging for 30 minutes b. Sprinting 40 yards c. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk d. Performing a 1RM squat
a. Jogging for 30 minutes
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems? Select one: a. Enteric nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
Which term refers to the motion of a joint? Select one: a. Arthrokinematics b. Excitation-contraction coupling c. Force-velocity curves d. Wave summations
a. Arthrokinematics
A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Relative flexibility c. Autogenic inhibition d. Motor learning
d. Motor learning
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body? Select one: a. Anterior b. Lateral c. Medial d. Superior
a. Anterior
With which of the following terms is eccentric motion synonymous? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Constant length c. Constant force d. Deceleration
d. Deceleration
What is a unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories? Select one: a. Decacalorie b. Microcalorie c. Megacalorie d. Kilocalorie
d. Kilocalorie
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
Select one:
a. A precursor to hormone production
b. A source of bulk to the diet to aid digestion
c. A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise
d. A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids
a. A precursor to hormone production
