CPT Flashcards
1
Q
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major? Select one: a. Medicine ball rotation chest pass b. Floor push-ups c. Single-leg throw and catch d. Ball dumbbell chest press
A
A. Medicine ball rotation chest press
2
Q
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occurring to the woman's aerobic energy system? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Metabolic specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Reciprocal inhibition
A
b. Metabolic specificity
3
Q
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance? Select one: a. Pyramid system training b. Drop-set training c. Circuit training d. Plyometric-strength training
A
c. Circuit training
4
Q
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client? Select one: a. Overtraining b. Resistance development c. Alarm reaction d. Exhaustion
A
d. Exhaustion
5
Q
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Standing cable row b. Biceps curl c. Standing triceps extension d. Dumbbell chest press
A
a. Standing cable row
6
Q
Which of the following refers to a resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part? Select one: a. Horizontal loading b. Circuit training c. Supersets d. Split-routine
A
a. Horizontal loading
7
Q
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension? Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Muscular dystrophy c. Muscular atrophy d. Muscular hypotrophy
A
a. Muscular hypertrophy
8
Q
What is occurring when a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury? Select one: a. Resistance development b. Exhaustion c. Alarm reaction d. Overworking
A
b. Exhaustion
9
Q
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity? Select one: a. Metabolic b. Mechanical c. Neuromuscular d. Overload
A
a. Metabolic
10
Q
Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following? Select one: a. Vertical loading b. Horizontal loading c. Split-routine d. Single-set
A
b. Horizontal loading
11
Q
A ball squat, curl to press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model? Select one: a. Corrective b. Strength c. Power d. Stabilization
A
d. Stabilization
12
Q
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system? Select one: a. Superset system b. Pyramid system c. Vertical loading system d. Split-routine system
A
d. Split-routine system
13
Q
Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?
Select one:
a. Exercises that involve high loads and long rest periods between sets.
b. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
c. Low-load, high-velocity contractions performed in a plyometric manner.
d. Exercises that involve low repetitions and high loads.
A
b. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
14
Q
Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set? Select one: a. Split-routine b. Pyramid system c. Vertical loading d. Circuit training
A
b. Pyramid system
15
Q
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
c. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Barbell bench press
A
a. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
16
Q
Which of the following should be retracted and depressed during the mid-phase of a standing cable row? Select one: a. Clavicles b. Scapulae c. Patellae d. Femurs
A
b. Scapulae
17
Q
Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead? Select one: a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Lunge to balance d. Step-up to balance
A
d. Step-up to balance
18
Q
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts? Select one: a. Bench press b. Step-up to balance c. Medicine ball chest pass d. Squat jump
A
a. Bench press
19
Q
Which of the following is required in order to develop maximal strength or power? Select one: a. Short bouts of exercise b. Longer rest periods c. Low-intensity workouts d. Energy via aerobic pathways
A
b. Longer rest periods
20
Q
In the context of training programs, repetition tempo refers to which of the following?
Select one:
a. The timeframe from the start of a workout to the finish of a workout
b. Speed with which each repetition is performed
c. The number of training sessions that are repeated during a given period
d. Time taken to recuperate between sets or repetitions
A
b. The speed with which each repetition is performed
21
Q
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos? Select one: a. 1/1/1 b. X/X/X c. 2/0/2 d. 4/2/1
A
c. 2/0/2
22
Q
What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level? Select one: a. Reduce neutralizer strength b. Reduce prime mover strength c. Increase muscle size d. Increase rate of force production
A
d. Increase rate of force production
23
Q
A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate? Select one: a. 1-2 b. 4 c. 5-6 d. 3
A
a. 1-2
24
Q
A client is performing squats with the goal of achieving maximal strength. Which of the following is an appropriate intensity level? Select one: a. 85-100% b. 50-70% c. 75-80% d. 30-45%
A
a. 85-100%
25
```
Which of the following is required in order to develop maximal strength or power?
Select one:
a. Short bouts of exercise
b. Longer rest periods
c. Low-intensity workouts
d. Energy via aerobic pathways
```
b. Longer rest periods
26
```
Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 4
```
a. Phase 5
27
```
Which of the following is an example of a stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Two-arm push press
b. Barbell clean
c. Single-leg cable rows
d. Squat jump
```
c. Single-leg cable rows
28
```
Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal?
Select one:
a. 30 seconds
b. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
d. 2 minutes
```
a. 30 seconds
29
What does the Maximal Strength Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focus on?
Select one:
a. Reducing the recruitment of more motor units
b. Decreasing the rate of force production
c. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
d. Improving muscle size and muscle growth
c. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
30
```
What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period?
Select one:
a. 3–5 minutes
b. 0–60 seconds
c. 0–90 seconds
d. 1–2 minutes
```
a. 3–5 minutes
31
```
During a training program, muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations are best developed with which of the following rest intervals?
Select one:
a. 1–2 minutes
b. 3–5 minutes
c. 0–90 seconds
d. 0–180 seconds
```
c. 0–90 seconds
32
Acute variables determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Proper kinetic chain alignment
b. Progression of the exercise
c. The amount of stress placed on the body
d. What type of workout is being done
c. The amount of stress placed on the body
33
A client has been training three times per week in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?
Select one:
a. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise
b. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise
c. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise
d. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
d. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
34
```
Which of the following is within the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
```
c. 3
35
Which method is most appropriate for Strength Endurance training?
Select one:
a. Using high levels of volume with minimal rest periods for about 4 weeks
b. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body for about 4 weeks
c. Focusing on high force and velocity for about 4 weeks
d. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
d. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
36
In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, from which of the following is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed?
Select one:
a. Fast, yet controlled, repetition tempo
b. Moderate repetition tempo
c. Slow repetition tempo
d. Explosive repetition tempo
c. Slow repetition tempo
37
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
b. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
d. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists
38
```
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
Select one:
a. Resistance machine
b. Smith machine
c. Barbells
d. Suspension trainer
```
d. Suspension trainer
39
Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client’s hands.
b. Spot at the client’s elbows.
c. Spot at the client’s axilla.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.
40
```
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
Select one:
a. Elastic resistance training
b. Kettlebell training
c. Vibration training
d. Suspension body-weight training
```
c. Vibration training
41
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Select one:
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
b. Spot at the elbows.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
42
```
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Standing cable chest press
b. Standing cable crunch
c. Standing cable row
d. Standing triceps extension
```
a. Standing cable chest press
43
```
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?
Select one:
a. Medicine balls
b. Kettlebells
c. Stability balls
d. Water balls
```
a. Medicine balls
44
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
Select one:
a. Implement a drop-set loading system
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Avoid prone positions
d. Use Valsalva maneuvers
c. Avoid prone positions
45
Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?
Select one:
a. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Decreased lean body mass
d. Increased connective tissue elasticity
c. Decreased lean body mass
46
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Pushing test
b. Shark skill test
c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
d. Davies test
a. Pushing test
47
```
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
Select one:
a. Speed
b. Strength
c. Postural control
d. Muscle hypertrophy
```
c. Postural control
48
```
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Bench press
c. Shark skill test
d. Single-leg squat
```
d. Single-leg squat
49
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
Select one:
a. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity
c. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity
50
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Select one:
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
b. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
c. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.
d. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
51
```
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Floor bridge
b. Standing cobra
c. Knee-up
d. Reverse crunch
```
b. Standing cobra
52
```
Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla?
Select one:
a. Prone or supine positions
b. Standing positions
c. Trigger points
d. Seated positions
```
a. Prone or supine positions
53
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
Select one:
a. Clients who suffer from varicose veins in the lower extremities
b. Client's with no co-morbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
c. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
d. Youth clients between the ages of 4-8 in which growth plates are not fused
c. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
54
```
Resting metabolic rate accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?
Select one:
a. 85%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 55%
```
b. 70%
55
```
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
Select one:
a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 30%
```
d. 30%
56
Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions?
Select one:
a. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis
b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia
c. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension
d. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy
b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia
57
```
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols?
Select one:
a. Lipids
b. Minerals
c. Polysaccharides
d. Nucleic acids
```
a. Lipids
58
```
Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass?
Select one:
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrates
d. Liquids
```
c. Carbohydrates
59
Mark has a client who is switching to a vegan diet and would like some advice on meal planning. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario?
Select one:
a. Design a meal plan for the client.
b. Enroll the client in a group-oriented nutrition program.
c. Send the client to Mark's vegan friend for guidance.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.
60
```
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Restrictive lung disease
b. Metabolic syndrome
c. Coronary heart disease
d. Peripheral edema condition
```
b. Metabolic syndrome
61
```
What links together to form protein?
Select one:
a. Nucleotides
b. Glycerols
c. Amino acids
d. Fatty acids
```
c. Amino acids
62
```
Which of the following macronutrients has an acceptable macronutrient distribution range in the 45 - 65% total caloric intake?
Select one:
a. Fats
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Protein
```
c. Carbohydrates
63
```
Polysaccharides are often called complex carbohydrates and they primarily include which of the following?
Select one:
a. Brown sugar and fruit sugar
b. Cane sugar and milk sugar
c. Kestose and trehalose
d. Starch and fiber
```
d. Starch and fiber
64
```
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
Select one:
a. 3-6 mg/kg
b. 3-6 mg/lb
c. 1-3 mg/kg
d. 1-3 mg/lb
```
a. 3-6 mg/kg
65
```
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?
Select one:
a. Recommended Dietary Allowance
b. Estimated Average Requirement
c. Adequate Intake
d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
```
d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
66
```
What is a side effect of caffeine use?
Select one:
a. A decrease in systolic blood pressure
b. A decrease in calcium excretion
c. An increase in urine production
d. An increase in HDL cholesterol
```
c. An increase in urine production
67
Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement?
Select one:
a. Represented as a conventional food
b. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
c. Includes drugs and biologics
d. Regulated by the FDA
b. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
68
```
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?
Select one:
a. Spaced throughout the day
b. In the evening
c. In the morning
d. With your first meal
```
a. Spaced throughout the day
69
```
Which of the following is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine?
Select one:
a. Growth Hormone
b. Creatine
c. Glycogen
d. Vitamin D
```
b. Creatine
70
```
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?
Select one:
a. Vitamin B12
b. Riboflavin
c. Calcium
d. Biotin
```
c. Calcium
71
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy
b. Hip fractures in older women
c. Lung cancer in smokers
d. Alzheimer’s disease in the elderly
c. Lung cancer in smokers
72
```
Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Loss of hair
b. Calcification of arteries
c. Osteopenia
d. Bone and joint pain
```
b. Calcification of arteries
73
```
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Action stage
b. Remodeling
c. Behavioral reactants
d. Diffusion
```
c. Behavioral reactants
74
```
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
Select one:
a. Reflecting
b. Remodeling
c. Positive self-talk
d. Affirmations
```
c. Positive self-talk
75
```
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Action
```
a. Contemplation
76
```
Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Maintenance
c. Precontemplation
d. Preparation
```
b. Maintenance
77
```
Which of the following is the first stage in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Maintenance
c. Action
d. Preparation
```
a. Precontemplation
78
```
According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Contemplation
c. Maintenance
d. Preparation
```
c. Maintenance
79
```
A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
Select one:
a. Preparation
b. Action
c. Precontemplation
d. Contemplation
```
d. Contemplation
80
According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
Select one:
a. They exhibit complete self-control.
b. They are highly unlikely to reach the termination stage.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
d. They are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years.
c. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
81
A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
c. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.
d. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
82
```
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
Select one:
a. "Does this exercise hurt?"
b. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?"
c. "Are you ready to get started today?"
d. "Are you feeling okay?"
```
b. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?"
83
```
Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful?
Select one:
a. Schedule flexibility
b. Updated equipment is provided
c. Provided uniforms
d. Robust group fitness schedules
```
b. Updated equipment is provided
84
What is the main purpose of creating and running a successful personal training business?
Select one:
a. Create and keep a loyal customer base.
b. Minimize overhead and fixed costs.
c. Generate a minimum 30% return on investment.
d. Gain notoriety in the community.
a. Create and keep a loyal customer base.
85
Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?
Select one:
a. Availability of restrooms
b. Packing equipment into the trainer's car
c. Outdoor event planning
d. Overhead costs
b. Packing equipment into the trainer's car
86
How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?
Select one:
a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
b. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships.
c. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient.
d. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.
a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
87
Which of the following should a fitness professional working as a personal trainer do if his or her client suffers from shortness of breath after a low-intensity workout?
Select one:
a. Diagnose the client's condition.
b. Ask the client to perform another low-intensity exercise.
c. Prescribe treatment for the client's condition.
d. Refer the client to a physician.
d. Refer the client to a physician.
88
After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. A way to create value for potential clients
b. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
d. Obtaining training for marketing services
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
89
```
Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation?
Select one:
a. Psyching up
b. Self-monitoring
c. Exercise imagery
d. Positive self-talk
```
c. Exercise imagery
90
Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
b. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
c. Prescribing nutrition plans
d. Diagnosing injuries
a. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
91
Cody works as a certified personal trainer with a basketball team. One of the players injures himself during pracitce. In this scenario, what should be Cody's course of action?
Select one:
a. Cody should refer the player to another personal trainer.
b. Cody should treat the player's injury as he is certified to do so.
c. Cody should wrap the player's ankle in ice.
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional
92
```
Charlotte is planning to start a new fitness club. Which of the following ideas should Charlotte focus on in her marketing mix to get the word out about her club?
Select one:
a. Place
b. Product
c. Price
d. Promotion
```
d. Promotion
93
```
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Pro shuttle test
c. L.E.F.T. test
d. Gait assessment
```
b. Pro shuttle test
94
```
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
Select one:
a. Social support
b. Extrinsic
c. Association and dissociation
d. Intrinsic
```
c. Association and dissociation
95
```
Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt?
Select one:
a. Calf raises
b. Chest press
c. Leg raises
d. Seated calf raises
```
c. Leg raises
96
```
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided?
Select one:
a. Rowing machine
b. Versa climber
c. Elliptical trainer
d. Treadmill
```
d. Treadmill
97
```
Which of the following refers to a program design approach that changes acute variables to achieve different goals on a daily or weekly basis?
Select one:
a. Linear summation
b. Linear periodization
c. Tabulation
d. Undulated periodization
```
d. Undulated periodization
98
Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge?
Select one:
a. The feet should be hip-width apart and turned out
b. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
c. The feet should be together and pointed straight ahead
d. The feet should be wider than hip-width apart and straight ahead
b. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
99
```
What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence?
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Performance accomplishments
c. Verbal persuasion
d. Imagery
```
b. Performance accomplishments
100
David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?
Select one:
a. The range of motion should be decreased
b. The range of motion should be increased
c. The heels should be elevated
d. The arms should be placed at the sides
a. The range of motion should be decreased
101
```
What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Lower extremity strength assessment
c. 40-yard dash
d. Overhead squat assessment
```
a. Shark skill test
102
What should be included in a training template for client records?
Select one:
a. The client's BMI
b. Weight of the client
c. Exercise selection for the client
d. The 1 repetition max of the client's bench press
c. Exercise selection for the client
103
```
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?
Select one:
a. Recommended Dietary Allowance
b. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
c. Estimated Average Requirement
d. Adequate Intake
```
b. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
104
```
What refers to a position on the same side of the body?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Ipsilateral
c. Proximal
d. Medial
```
b. Ipsilateral
105
```
Which of the following is made up of the upper and lower extremities as well as the shoulder and pelvic girdles and encompasses approximately 126 bones?
Select one:
a. Appendicular skeleton
b. Vertebral column
c. Epiphyseal plate
d. Articular cartilage
```
a. Appendicular skeleton
106
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Alzheimer’s disease in the elderly
b. Lung cancer in smokers
c. Hip fractures in older women
d. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy
b. Lung cancer in smokers
107
```
Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular efficiency
b. Flexibility
c. Extensibility
d. Dynamic range of motion
```
b. Flexibility
108
```
Resting metabolic rate accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?
Select one:
a. 0.85
b. 0.4
c. 0.7
d. 0.55
```
c. 0.7
109
```
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used?
Select one:
a. Jogging for 30 minutes
b. Sprinting 40 yards
c. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk
d. Performing a 1RM squat
```
a. Jogging for 30 minutes
110
```
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?
Select one:
a. Enteric nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Sympathetic nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system
```
b. Central nervous system
111
```
Which term refers to the motion of a joint?
Select one:
a. Arthrokinematics
b. Excitation-contraction coupling
c. Force-velocity curves
d. Wave summations
```
a. Arthrokinematics
112
```
A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Relative flexibility
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Motor learning
```
d. Motor learning
113
```
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Medial
d. Superior
```
a. Anterior
114
```
With which of the following terms is eccentric motion synonymous?
Select one:
a. Acceleration
b. Constant length
c. Constant force
d. Deceleration
```
d. Deceleration
115
```
What is a unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories?
Select one:
a. Decacalorie
b. Microcalorie
c. Megacalorie
d. Kilocalorie
```
d. Kilocalorie
116
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
Select one:
a. A precursor to hormone production
b. A source of bulk to the diet to aid digestion
c. A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise
d. A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids
a. A precursor to hormone production
117
```
What refers to a position away from the center of the body or the point of reference?
Select one:
a. Ipsilateral
b. Inferior
c. Distal
d. Contralateral
```
c. Distal
118
```
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?
Select one:
a. In the morning
b. With your first meal
c. In the evening
d. Spaced throughout the day
```
d. Spaced throughout the day
119
```
What is the term referring to the synergistic action of muscle groups to produce movement around a joint?
Select one:
a. Length-tension relationship
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Moment of force
d. Force-couple relationship
```
d. Force-couple relationship
120
Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance?
Select one:
a. The body seeking the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
b. Synergists taking over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
c. Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
d. The exertion of more force by a muscle than what is being placed on it.
c. Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
121
```
What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
Select one:
a. An increase in fiber intake
b. A decrease in urea production
c. A decreased risk of dehydration
d. A decrease in glycogen stores
```
d. A decrease in glycogen stores
122
The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following?
Select one:
a. Work and energy production
b. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
c. Torque production and inertia
d. Mass and volume
b. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
123
```
Which of the following is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point?
Select one:
a. Spirometry test
b. Rockport walk test
c. Cycle ergometer test
d. Davies test
```
b. Rockport walk test
124
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
Select one:
a. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers "no" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
b. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.
c. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
d. Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
d. Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
125
```
Which of the following is one of the sites of skinfold measurement according to the Durnin formula to calculate a person’s percentage of body fat?
Select one:
a. Chest
b. Triceps
c. Waist
d. Calves
```
b. Triceps
126
```
Which assessment provides an estimation of a client's cardiorespiratory fitness level?
Select one:
a. The LEFT test
b. The two-tailed test
c. The one-tailed test
d. YMCA step test
```
d. YMCA step test
127
```
A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the “good” category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train?
Select one:
a. 0.65
b. 0.95
c. 0.75
d. 0.85
```
d. 0.85
128
```
During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Hamstrings
c. Quadriceps
d. Gluteals
```
c. Quadriceps
129
```
During the overhead squat assessment, which areas should the fitness professional focus on from the anterior view?
Select one:
a. Low back and arms
b. Shoulders and cervical complex
c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
d. Feet and knees
```
d. Feet and knees
130
```
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
Select one:
a. Right before workout
b. Upon waking in the morning
c. Just after workout
d. Right before bed
```
b. Upon waking in the morning
131
```
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
Select one:
a. Bench press 1RM test
b. Push-up test
c. Pushing assessment
d. Davies test
```
a. Bench press 1RM test
132
```
Which of the following tests estimates an individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for a standard time limit?
Select one:
a. Cycle ergometer test
b. Run test
c. Rockport walk test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
```
d. YMCA 3-minute step test
133
```
If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
Select one:
a. Biceps femoris (short head)
b. Soleus
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. TFL
```
c. Medial gastrocnemius
134
```
Which of the following assessments involves positioning a client in the center box of a grid, with hands on hips, and standing on one leg?
Select one:
a. Pulling assessment
b. Davies test
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Shark skill test
```
d. Shark skill test
135
```
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Piriformis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Levator scapulae
```
d. Levator scapulae
136
```
When should the three measurements for resting heart rate be taken for greatest accuracy?
Select one:
a. Five minutes apart
b. After working out
c. Immediately before bed
d. At the same time each day upon waking
```
d. At the same time each day upon waking
137
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
Select one:
a. Increase blood pressure
b. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
c. Decrease blood pressure
d. Has no effect
c. Decrease blood pressure
138
```
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Shoulder shrug
b. Quadruped arm / opposite leg raise
c. Ball cobra
d. Ball wall squats
```
c. Ball cobra
139
```
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Internal oblique
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Hamstring complex
d. Hip flexor complex
```
d. Hip flexor complex
140
```
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Teres minor
c. Rhomboids
d. Deep cervical flexors
```
a. Scalenes
141
```
Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Hyperextension of the hips and knees
c. Flat feet and knock knees
d. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
```
d. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
142
```
A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Levator scapulae
```
a. Lower trapezius
143
```
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?
Select one:
a. 1-5
b. 6-10
c. 8-12
d. 4-8
```
a. 1-5
144
```
Which of the following is a form of training in which an individual reacts to the ground surface in such a way that he or she develops larger than normal ground forces that can be used to project the body with a greater velocity or speed of movement?
Select one:
a. Hypopressive exercise
b. Reactive training
c. High-intensity training
d. Vacuum exercise
```
b. Reactive training
145
```
A client's low back arches during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
Select one:
a. Hip flexor complex
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Biceps femoris
d. Rectus abdominis
```
a. Hip flexor complex
146
During resistance training, a client is most likely to achieve strength endurance goals when performing which of the following?
Select one:
a. More sets when performing lower repetitions at a high intensity
b. Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity
c. More sets when performing higher repetitions at a high intensity
d. Fewer sets when performing lower repetitions at a moderate intensity
b. Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity
147
```
Which of the following is muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power?
Select one:
a. Fixator
b. Prime mover
c. Neutralizer
d. Antagonist
```
b. Prime mover
148
```
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?
Select one:
a. Bench press
b. Medicine ball chest pass
c. Step-up to balance
d. Squat jump
```
a. Bench press
149
```
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following is a goal of the Maximal Strength Phase of training?
Select one:
a. Increase peak force production
b. Increase the amount of fat loss
c. Decrease the volume of training
d. Decrease metabolic demand
```
a. Increase peak force production
150
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
Select one:
a. Maximizing sports performance training
b. Focusing on the development of maximal speed
c. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
d. Providing variety in the selection of SAQ drills
c. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
151
```
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Reverse crunch
b. Cable rotation
c. Floor prone cobra
d. Ball crunch
```
c. Floor prone cobra
152
```
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
Select one:
a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Speed Endurance Training
c. Aerobic Endurance Training
d. Anaerobic Endurance Training
```
a. Strength Endurance Training
153
```
A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?
Select one:
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Amortization phase
```
b. Alarm reaction
154
```
Which of the following involves the number of training sessions performed during a specified period?
Select one:
a. Intensity
b. Duration
c. Volume
d. Frequency
```
d. Frequency
155
```
Which of the following is a factor of the FITTE principle used to determine exercise training programs for each individual?
Select one:
a. Frequency
b. Tolerance
c. Efficiency
d. Fitness
```
a. Frequency
156
```
Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?
Select one:
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 25%
d. 50%
```
a. 75%
157
```
Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which of the following rest periods?
Select one:
a. 0–90 seconds
b. 0–60 seconds
c. 3–5 minutes
d. 1–2 minutes
```
c. 3–5 minutes
158
```
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occurring to the woman's aerobic energy system?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Metabolic specificity
```
d. Metabolic specificity
159
```
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise?
Select one:
a. Repeat box jumps
b. Box jump-up with stabilization
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Repeat butt kicks
```
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
160
```
A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
Select one:
a. Supraspinatus
b. Longus coli
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Longus capitis
```
c. Sternocleidomastoid
161
Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?
Select one:
a. Low-load, high-velocity contractions performed in a plyometric manner.
b. Exercises that involve low repetitions and high loads.
c. Exercises that involve high loads and long rest periods between sets.
d. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
d. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
162
```
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
Select one:
a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Motor unit recruitment
c. Rate of force production
d. Metabolic rate
```
d. Metabolic rate
163
```
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
Select one:
a. Davis’s law
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Wolff’s law
```
b. Reciprocal inhibition
164
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Question text
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
Select one:
a. When underactive muscles have been identified
b. When overactive muscles have been identified
c. When high blood pressure has been identified
d. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified
b. When overactive muscles have been identified
165
```
Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise?
Select one:
a. Floor prone cobra
b. Ball crunch
c. Cable rotation
d. Rotation chest pass
```
a. Floor prone cobra
166
```
Which of the following is a strategy used in Maximal Strength training?
Select one:
a. High repetitions
b. Low loads
c. Longer rest periods
d. Low volume
```
c. Longer rest periods
167
```
What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?
Select one:
a. Dynamic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Active-isolated stretching
d. Neuromuscular stretching
```
b. Static stretching
168
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
c. Step-up to balance
d. Lunge to balance
d. Lunge to balance
169
What does landing mid-foot accomplish when performing leg-power exercises?
Select one:
a. Ensures proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity
b. Increases the risk of future compensations
c. Ensures proper scapular stability
d. Increases stress to the knees, hips, and low back
a. Ensures proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity
170
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Select one:
a. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down.
b. Perform the exercise without a bench.
c. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
d. Perform the exercise with legs elevated.
c. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
171
A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?
Select one:
a. Perform the exercise with a stability ball.
b. Stand on a balance pad.
c. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.
d. Reaching all the way to the foot.
d. Reaching all the way to the foot.
172
```
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Forearm
b. Lower back
c. Neck
d. Left shoulder
```
b. Lower back
173
James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?
Select one:
a. Rotate 90 degrees
b. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds
c. Push off the front foot through the heel
d. Hold balance on the back leg
c. Push off the front foot through the heel
174
Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?
Select one:
a. It typically involves a high number of sets.
b. It is usually done with a 3-minute rest period in between exercises.
c. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.
d. It is ideal for achieving hypertrophy.
c. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.
175
```
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Butt kicks
b. One-ins
c. Box jump
d. Tuck jump
```
b. One-ins
176
```
For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate?
Select one:
a. Ball squat
b. Reverse hypers
c. Floor bridge
d. Floor cobra
```
a. Ball squat
177
```
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. Internally rotated
b. Abducted 90°
c. Adducted 90°
d. Externally rotated
```
d. Externally rotated
178
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
Select one:
a. Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.
b. Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids.
c. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
d. Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.
c. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
179
```
A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Strength
c. Corrective
d. Stabilization
```
b. Strength
180
```
What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?
Select one:
a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance
d. Single-leg balance
```
d. Single-leg balance
181
```
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
Select one:
a. Pyramid system
b. Superset system
c. Vertical loading system
d. Split-routine system
```
d. Split-routine system
182
```
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Maximal Strength
b. Power
c. Strength Endurance
d. Stabilization Endurance
```
b. Power
183
```
What are the two types of fitness goals?
Select one:
a. Realistic and unrealistic
b. Physical and psychological
c. Process and product
d. Smart and reliable
```
c. Process and product
184
```
What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program?
Select one:
a. Child
b. Parental
c. Family
d. Acquaintance
```
b. Parental
185
```
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
Select one:
a. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?"
b. "Are you feeling okay?"
c. "Does this exercise hurt?"
d. "Are you ready to get started today?"
```
a. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?"
186
A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
c. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.
d. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
187
```
According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?
Select one:
a. Preparation
b. Action
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation
```
c. Maintenance
188
Which of the following is a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. "Now that I have a gym membership, I will lose 10 pounds by exercising every day."
b. "I will lose 20 pounds by reducing my calories to 1,200 per day and hiring a personal trainer."
c. "I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week."
d. "I will reduce my body weight by exercising as much as I can five days per week and eating a reduced-calorie diet."
c. "I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week."
189
Carla is obese and wants to lose 80 pounds in six months. Which of the following can her personal trainer do in order to keep her focused on the goal?
Select one:
a. Set several short term goals that gradually increase in difficulty.
b. Design a calorie-restricted meal plan focusing on quality protein sources.
c. Increase the time required to be taken to reach her desired weight.
d. Put her through a rigorous routine so that she loses weight faster.
a. Set several short term goals that gradually increase in difficulty.
190
Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?
Select one:
a. Why do you want to lose 30 pounds?
b. How old are you?
c. Why are you choosing to make changes to your life now?
d. How have you tried to lose weight in the past?
b. How old are you?
191
```
Which type of influence comes from supportive leadership?
Select one:
a. Family
b. Exercise group
c. Exercise leader
d. Parental
```
c. Exercise leader
192
```
Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month?
Select one:
a. The precontemplation stage
b. The maintenance stage
c. The preparation stage
d. The action stage
```
c. The preparation stage
193
```
Which of the following is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths?
Select one:
a. Affirmations
b. Active listening
c. Reflecting
d. Summarizing
```
b. Active listening
194
```
Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation?
Select one:
a. Psyching up
b. Self-monitoring
c. Positive self-talk
d. Exercise imagery
```
d. Exercise imagery
195
```
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Contemplation
```
d. Contemplation
196
```
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Diffusion
b. Behavioral reactants
c. Remodeling
d. Action stage
```
b. Behavioral reactants
197
```
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a client's perspective?
Select one:
a. Summarizing
b. Active listening
c. Reflecting
d. Asking questions
```
b. Active listening
198
According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
Select one:
a. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
b. They are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years.
c. They are highly unlikely to reach the termination stage.
d. They exhibit complete self-control.
a. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
199
Which of the following questions is open-ended?
Select one:
a. "Are you currently exercising?"
b. "Do you enjoy group classes?"
c. "Have you ever worked with a personal trainer?"
d. "What is your fitness goal?"
d. "What is your fitness goal?"
200
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
Select one:
a. "Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?"
b. "If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?"
c. "What are your top three fitness goals?"
d. "Did you play sports in high school?"
c. "What are your top three fitness goals?"
201
Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?
Select one:
a. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
b. Training with family, friends, and coworkers.
c. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises.
d. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility.
a. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
202
```
Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?
Select one:
a. Measurable
b. Specific
c. Time-bound
d. Attainable
```
d. Attainable
203
```
How many CEUs are needed to recertify every two years?
Select one:
a. 4.0
b. 2.0
c. 1.0
d. 3.0
```
b. 2.0
204
```
Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program?
Select one:
a. Personal trainer
b. Gym manager
c. Group exercise instructor
d. Registered dietician
```
d. Registered dietician
205
Which of the following is outside of the personal trainer’s scope of practice, according to the Code of Professional Conduct?
Select one:
a. Independently design training programs to correct muscle imbalances.
b. Inquire about current and past medications the client has been administered by a healthcare professional.
c. Provide flexibility training techniques to assist clients who display limited joint range of motion.
d. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder.
d. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder.
206
```
An individual is training at the gym on his own. He asks a fellow gym member to spot him during the bench press exercise. Of which type of support is this an example?
Select one:
a. Instrumental
b. Informational
c. Companionship
d. Emotional
```
a. Instrumental
207
What should be included in a training template for client records?
Select one:
a. Weight of the client
b. The 1 repetition max of the client's bench press
c. The client's BMI
d. Exercise selection for the client
d. Exercise selection for the client
208
Amanda is a fitness professional assisting the athletic trainer of a soccer team. Which of the following is Amanda prevented from doing because of her role in the team as a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. Diagnosing pain and injuries
b. Ensuring that athletes correctly perform the exercises prescribed by the trainer
c. Providing cues that athletes need to follow during training
d. Referring an athlete to the appropriate licensed professional in case of an emergency
a. Diagnosing pain and injuries
209
Casey is opening up his own personal training facility. What is one of the advantages he has?
Select one:
a. He does not have to worry about local ordinances.
b. He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.
c. He is not responsible for overhead costs.
d. Management of staff is not one of his necessary responsibilities.
b. He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.
210
```
A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Emotional
b. Informational
c. Instrumental
d. Companionship
```
b. Informational
211
When it comes to client confidentiality, when would it be appropriate to share a client’s personal information with someone else?
Select one:
a. When a client agrees in writing that you may share his or her personal information
b. During a conversation with a personal training manager
c. During a conversation with the client's new trainer after the client has switched to another trainer
d. When a client who is a minor gives permission to discuss his information
a. When a client agrees in writing that you may share his or her personal information
212
```
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?
Select one:
a. Knowledge
b. Emotion
c. Price
d. Pressure
```
b. Emotion
213
What is a common mistake made when exercise adherence is inconsistent?
Select one:
a. Preparing shorter workouts
b. Limiting the number of exercises per workout
c. Engaging an intense exercise program
d. Reducing the amount of exercises in workouts
c. Engaging an intense exercise program
214
What is an important part of a fitness professional's career?
Select one:
a. Only work with clients who have access to emerging technologies
b. To obtain an accredited certification
c. Push emerging technologies on their clients
d. Focus on younger clients who have an interest in emerging technologies
b. To obtain an accredited certification
215
A 70-year-old client goes to see a personal trainer after a recent heart attack. The trainer has not received written clearance from the client’s doctor prior to the first training session but has completed sessions with a different trainer. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take?
Select one:
a. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor.
b. Have the client sign an additional liability waiver.
c. Monitor the client’s blood pressure before every workout session.
d. Obtain permission from the personal training manager to continue training.
a. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor.
216
```
Which of the following is a cognitive strategy to help change a client's thoughts and attitudes toward exercise?
Select one:
a. Imagery
b. Contemplation
c. Goal setting
d. Active listening
```
a. Imagery
217
Cody works as a certified personal trainer with a basketball team. One of the players injures himself during practice. In this scenario, what should be Cody's course of action?
Select one:
a. Cody should treat the player's injury as he is certified to do so.
b. Cody should refer the player to another personal trainer.
c. Cody should wrap the player's ankle in ice.
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
d. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
218
```
Charlotte is planning to start a new fitness club. Which of the following ideas should Charlotte focus on in her marketing mix to get the word out about her club?
Select one:
a. Place
b. Promotion
c. Price
d. Product
```
b. Promotion
219
Which of the following is a disadvantage of fitness professionals as independent contractors?
Select one:
a. They do not dictate marketing and business practices.
b. They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.
c. They are responsible for overhead costs for building or ordinances.
d. They do not have control over their schedule.
b. They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.
220
```
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?
Select one:
a. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
b. 3.0 CEU within 3 years
c. 3.0 CEU within 2 years
d. 2.0 CEU within 1 year
```
a. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
221
```
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
```
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
222
```
If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor longus
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis
```
a. Adductor longus
223
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. A high protein diet is typically associated with a higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease.
b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat.
c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
224
```
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Kneeling hip flexor
b. Standing calf
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps
```
b. Standing calf
225
```
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Select one:
a. Attainable
b. Realistic
c. Specific
d. Timely
```
a. Attainable
226
```
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. 56% to 65%
b. 66% to 75%
c. 76% to 85%
d. 86% to 95%
```
c. 76% to 85%
227
```
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
Select one:
a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
```
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
228
```
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity?
Select one:
a. High
b. Low
c. Maximal
d. Moderate
```
b. Low
229
```
Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation
```
d. Preparation
230
```
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
```
b. 2 to 4
231
```
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Select one:
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae
```
a. Anterior deltoid
232
```
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Extension
d. External rotation
```
b. Abduction
233
```
The ability to react and change body position, with the maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities are:
Select one:
a. power.
b. speed.
c. quickness.
d. agility.
```
c. quickness.
234
```
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
Select one:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet.
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.
```
b. external rotation of the feet.
235
```
Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
Select one:
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate
```
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
236
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
237
```
Which of the following is part of the marketing mix?
Select one:
a. Prominence
b. Public
c. Place
d. Professionalism
```
c. Place
238
```
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented?
Select one:
a. Periodization
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Vertical loading
```
a. Periodization
239
```
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
Select one:
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate
c. Cardiac output
d. Expiration
```
c. Cardiac output
240
```
Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
Select one:
a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes
d. 3 to 5 minutes
```
d. 3 to 5 minutes
241
In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
Select one:
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes.
c. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension.
d. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy.
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
242
```
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Posterior deltoid
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
```
a. Latissimus dorsi
243
```
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:
Select one:
a. six months.
b. twelve months.
c. two years.
d. four years.
```
d. four years.
244
```
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:
Select one:
a. reflections.
b. affirmations.
c. compliments.
d. judgments.
```
a. reflections.
245
```
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
```
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
246
```
Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?
Select one:
a. 80 mm Hg
b. 95 mm Hg
c. 120 mm Hg
d. 135 mm Hg
```
c. 120 mm Hg
247
```
Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen?
Select one:
a. Baked potato
b. Oatmeal cookie
c. Avocado
d. Spinach
```
a. Baked potato
248
```
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium
```
b. Endomysium
249
```
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
```
c. Functional
250
```
When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
```
c. standing cable row
251
```
When performing a _____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
```
a. standing triceps extension
252
```
A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Mid and lower trapezius
```
d. Mid and lower trapezius
253
Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
254
Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Select one:
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
255
Which of the following is an example of an appropriate spotting technique?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client's elbows when performing a barbell exercise.
b. The spotter should grab the handles on a machine-based exercise.
c. When spotting a barbell squat, the spotter should stand in front of the client.
d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.
d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.
256
```
When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's heart rate?
Select one:
a. 85
b. 104
c. 117
d. 170
```
d. 170
257
```
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
Select one:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity
```
d. Specificity
258
Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
259
```
Dehydration affects the body by increasing:
Select one:
a. blood volume.
b. performance.
c. heart rate.
d. sweat rate.
```
c. heart rate.
260
```
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Upper trapezius
```
b. Rhomboids
261
```
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Select one:
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
```
b. Adductor static stretch
262
```
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve
```
c. Heart rate response
263
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
264
Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
c. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise.
d. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given time.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
265
```
Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client?
Select one:
a. Ball Crunch
b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw
c. Reverse Crunch
d. Prone Iso-ab
```
d. Prone Iso-ab
266
```
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Balance
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular
```
d. Neuromuscular
267
Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
268
```
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Overhead squat assessment
```
a. Shark skill test
269
```
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
```
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
270
```
Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
Select one:
a. EPOC
b. ATP-PC
c. Oxidative
d. Glycolysis
```
b. ATP-PC
271
```
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Select one:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestines
d. Esophagus
```
b. Stomach
272
```
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
Select one:
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19
```
b. 12 to 13
273
```
A high-protein diet consisting of more than 35% of total caloric intake from protein can potentially lead to which of the following adverse health effects?
Select one:
a. Increased resting heart rate
b. Additional stress on the kidneys
c. Excess belly fat
d. Decreased ATP production
```
b. Additional stress on the kidneys
274
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
275
```
After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training?
Select one:
a. 86% to 95% of HR max
b. 76% to 85% of HR max
c. 65% to 75% of HR max
d. 55% to 60% of HR max
```
b. 76% to 85% of HR max
276
Davis’s law states which of the following?
Select one:
a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist.
d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
277
When a client practices self-myofascial release, which of the following physiological changes is the goal?
Select one:
a. An increase in joint receptor activity results in an inhibition of muscles around a joint.
b. A decrease in neurotransmitter activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
c. A decrease in muscle spindle activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.
d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.
278
Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
279
```
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds
```
b. 3 to 5 seconds
280
```
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
Select one:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
```
c. 20 seconds
281
```
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
Select one:
a. Powerful movements
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load
```
d. Increasing load
282
```
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
Select one:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition.
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.
```
b. reciprocal inhibition.
283
```
Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
```
b. Synergistic dominance
284
```
To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of:
Select one:
a. plantarflexion.
b. eversion.
c. dorsiflexion.
d. inversion.
```
c. dorsiflexion.
285
A client's maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-minute step test. This is achieved by:
Select one:
a. subtracting the client's age from 220.
b. subtracting the client's resting heart rate from 220.
c. subtracting the client's age from 220, then subtracting the client's resting heart rate.
d. subtracting the client's age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%.
a. subtracting the client's age from 220.
286
```
Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin–Womersley formula?
Select one:
a. Calf
b. Mid-axillary line
c. Subscapular
d. Thigh
```
c. Subscapular
287
```
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization
```
a. Resistance development
288
```
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
Select one:
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces
```
b. 16 to 24 ounces
289
The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
290
```
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?
Select one:
a. 75 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 150 minutes
```
d. 150 minutes
291
```
Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise?
Select one:
a. RER
b. EPOC
c. HRR
d. RPE
```
b. EPOC
