CPR ALL EXAMS Flashcards by Natalia Wdowiak

The greatest benefit in knowing first aid is

-Yourself
- Others
- There’s no benefit to knowing first aid
- All the above

YOURSELF DUHHH

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_________ is the initial care provided for an acute illness or injury.

Emergency room
-Urgent care center
-First Aid
-None of the above

first aid

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What are the two types of consent

informed and implied

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An alert person who does not resist the administrations of a first aid provider has given.

implied consent

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Duty to act applies to

everyone

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If you move someone from a safe scene who has a suspected spinal injury and permanently paralyze them, it is an act of

commisson

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What is the first step in an emergency?

Recognize that it is an emergency

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Why might a bystander decide not to help?

Situation could be dangerous
Might not be worth it
Skill necessary to administer first aid could be too advanced
{All the above}

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Which one is an example of PPE?
(Personal protective equiptment)

A. Adhesive bandages
B. Gloves
C. Face mask
{B and C}

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Posterior means

back

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Why are children and infants more prone to choking?

They eat more candy, grapes and hotdogs
They’re always running around
Their airways are smaller
They don’t have enough experience eating

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A(n)________ brings oxygenated blood away from the heart.
Artery
Vein
Capillary
There’s no such thing as oxygen

artery

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The largest vein in the body is the inferior ___________. It returns deoxygenated blood to the heart from the lower half body.

Vena cava
Aorta
Carotid artery
All the above

vena cava

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The largest artery in the body is the ________.
Vena cava
Aorta
Carotid artery
All the above

Aorta

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The passage of air into and out of the lungs is called ________.

Inhalation
Exhalation
Ventilation
None of the above

none of the above

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The liquid portion of blood is called ________.
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Plasma
None of the above

plasma

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Hypoperfusion is another word for ________.
Shock
Enlightenment
Happy
None of the above

shock

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Where is the headquarters of the nervous system?
Liver
Appendix
Brain
Diaphragm

brain

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If broken ribs are suspected, there is risk of damage to the _________.
Appendix
Brain
Lungs
All the above

lungs

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The outer layer of skin is called the _________.
Epidermis
Dermis
Large intestine
All the above

epidermis

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Snoring, gurgling and wheezing are signs of _________.
CNS problem
Severe bleeding
Respiratory problem
All the above

Respiratory problem

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If an unresponsive person is breathing, what should you do?

Leave them alone
Immediately start CPR
Monitor them and continually reassess
Call a friend

Monitor them and continually reassess

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Cyanosis means

Fainting
Nausea
Turning blue
Dizziness

turning blue

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Responsive victims should be placed in the _________ position.
Recovery
Fetal
Legs crossed
No special position

no special position

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When performing a physical exam, you should always begin at the _________. Site of injury Head Feet Abdomen

head

If someone is complaining of abdominal pain, that is a _________. Sign Symptom Indication None of the above

symptom

When should a primary check be interrupted? When the person wakes up When a life threatening condition is identified When your cellphone rings When you feel like it

When a life threatening condition is identified

Delivery of blood and Oxygen to all cells in the body tissues and organs is known as a. Syncope b. Perfusion c. Fracture d. All the above

perfusion

How long does it take for permanent brain damage to occur? a. 2-3 min b. 45 min c. 4-6 min d. All the above

4-6 min

3. Early stage of shock when body can make up for blood loss is called a. Compensated b. Decompensated c. Irreversible d. All the above

compensated

Late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling is called a. Compensated b. Decompensated c. Irreversible d. All the above

decompensated

Final stage of shock, when there is nothing that can be done to save the patient’s life is called a. Compensated b. Decompensated c. Irreversible d. All the above

irreversible

Fainting is which kind of shock? a. Cardiovascular b. Anaphylactic c. Psychogenic d. All the above

Psychogenic

Best place to administer an epinephrine auto-injector is in the a. Upper arm b. Thigh c. Foot d. All the above

thigh

8. What is hemorrhage? a. Profuse sweating b. Recovery c. A large amount of bleeding in a short time d. All the above

large amount of bleeding in a short time

Arterial bleeding, blood a. Spurts b. Flows c. Oozes d. All the above

spurts

Venous bleeding, blood a. Spurts b. Flows c. Oozes d. All the above

flows

11. Capillary bleeding, blood a. Spurts b. Flows c. Oozes d. All the above

oozes

12. If a wound bleeds through the sterile dressing, you should a. Remove it an apply a clean one b. Get help immediately c. Let it bleed d. All the above

remove it and apply a clean one

13. After applying direct pressure for 10 minutes, the bleeding doesn’t stop you should a. Apply a tourniquet b. Apply ice c. Apply harder pressure d. All the above

a. Apply a tourniquet

14. Wound where top layer of skin is removed with little or no blood loss a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

abrasion

15. Wound where skin has jagged, irregular edges, usually caused by a forceful tearing away of skin tissue. a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

lacteration

Wound that has smooth edges and resembles a surgical or paper cut. a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

incision

17. Deep, narrow wound in the skin and underlying organs such as a stab wound from a nail or a knife. a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

puncture

18. Wound where a piece of skin and possibly underlying tissue is torn loose and is hanging from the body or completely removed. a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

avulsion

Wound that involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part such as a finger, toe, hand, foot, arm or leg. a. Avulsion b. Amputation c. Incision d. Laceration e. Puncture f. Abrasion

amputation

20. ________ ________ is the best way to begin to control bleeding. a. Leaving alone b. Wet heat c. Direct pressure d. All the above

direct pressure

21. What is the most important factor in preventing infection in an open wound? a. Direct pressure b. Irrigation with water c. Leaving it alone d. All the above

irrigation with water

22. Why should cleaning with soap and water only be done on a shallow wound? a. It usually restarts bleeding b. Water contains chemicals that could be harmful c. Makes it smell nice d. All the above

it usually restarts bleeding

23. How large should a dressing be? a. Dressings should never be used b. Large enough to extend beyond the edges of the wound c. Smaller than the wound d. All the above

large enough to extend beyong the edges of a wound

Burn caused by contact with hot objects, flammable vapors, steam or hot liquids are what kind of burns? a. Thermal b. Chemical c. Electrical d. All the above

thermal

Burn caused by a chemical agent is what kind of burn? a. Thermal b. Chemical c. Electrical d. All the above

chemical

Burn caused by an electrical current can cause a. Nails to fall off b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Nose to fall off d. All the above

ventricular fibreillation

A _______ degree burn affects the skin’s epidermis a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fifth

first

28. A _______ degree burn is a severe burn that penetrates through all layers of skin and into the underlying fat and muscle a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fifth

third

29. A _______ degree burn extends through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer. a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fifth

second

30. The least painful type of burn is a _______ degree burn. a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fifth

third

The first thing you do as part of the first aid for 1st and 2nd degree burns is a. Cool it for 5 min only b. Cool it for 1 min only c. Cool it for at least 10 minutes d. Don’t cool it at all, person should know better

cool it for at least 10 minutes

What do burn blisters serve as? a. Burn dressings b. Do not serve purpose at all c. Cushioning d. Both A and C

burn dressings and cusioning A and C

34. Alcohol poisoning can cause death when a. Paralyzing the lower extremities b. Slowing the pulse until death occurs c. Paralyzing the respiratory center in the brain d. All the above

Paralyzing the respiratory center in the brain

35. Best position for poisoning victim is a. Seated with legs up and head down b. Lying on their back c. Recovery position d. All the above

recovery position

36. Why is the above position important for a poisoning victim? a. Won’t choke on their own vomit b. Delays digestion c. Both A & B d. None of the above

Both A & B

37. Main concern with bee sting is a. Hives b. Anaphylaxis c. Uncontrolled laughter d. All the above

Anaphylaxis

38. Best know early symptom of Lyme disease is a. Bullseye rash b. Arthritis c. Loss of memory d. None of the above

bullseye rash

39. When are stitches necessary? a. Edges of skin don’t fall together b. Cut is more than 1” long and is deep c. Both A & B d. None of the above

Both A & B

40. How can you identify a coral snake? a. You can’t b. Alternating yellow band c. Hear the rattle d. All the above

alternating yellow band

22. What is an inexpensive and effective way to reduce the severity of snake bites? a. Use repellent b. Wear denim jeans c. Smile at the snake d. All the above

wear denim jeans

1. An incomplete fracture that commonly occurs in children a. Greenstick b. Comminuted c. DOTS d. Huh. Fractures don’t occur in children

greenstick

A fracture that cuts across the bone at right angles to its long axis and is often caused by direct injury a. Greenstick b. Transverse c. DOTS d. Huh. Fractures don’t occur from direct contact

transverse

A fracture where the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces-splintered or crushed. a. Oblique b. Comminuted c. DOTS d. Huh. Fractures only involve two pieces

comminuted

4. What is the acronym that you should use to determine if a broken bone is suspected? a. CPR b. EPA c. DOTS d. CIA

dots

After checking _______ you can determine the severity of the fracture. a. CPR b. EPA c. CSM d. FBI

csm

If a broken bone is suspected, what should you do while you wait for help to arrive? a. Stabilize the part and RICE b. Massage the part c. Drive them to the ER d. None of the above

stabilize the part and RICE

7. If a fracture is suspected, you should always stabilize the part a. In a straight position b. In the most painful position. No pain, no gain. c. In the position it was found d. All the above

in the position it was found

When the joint comes apart and stays apart a. Sprain b. Strain c. Dislocation d. Huh. Joints NEVER comes apart

dislocation

9. When a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion and the ligament is either partially or completely torn a. Fracture b. Strain c. Sprain d. Huh. Ligaments NEVER tear

sprain

10. When a muscle and/or tendon is torn as a result of stretching beyond its normal range of motion a. Fracture b. Strain c. Sprain d. Huh. Muscle and tendons NEVER tear

strain

11. A bruise is also known as a a. Blood blister b. Contusion c. Anaphylaxis d. No such thing as a bruise

contusion

12. What is the best treatment for bone, muscle, and joint injuries? a. RICE within 24-72 hours b. More activity and high intensity training c. Heat immediately d. No need for treatment

RICE within 24-72 hours

13. You should move the body part if the bone is fractured a. True b. False

false

15. The body’s natural way of keeping warm and can be lifesaving in extreme cold a. Metabolism b. Shivering c. Sweating d. Body has no way of dealing with cold temps

shivering

16. Susceptibility to cold injuries can be minimized by a. Avoiding caffeine b. Avoiding alcohol c. Avoiding nicotine d. All the above

all the above

17. The tightening/narrowing of the blood vessels is a. Vasoconstriction b. Vasodilation c. Normal body temp d. Huh. Blood vessels don’t tighten/narrow

Vasoconstriction

18. A balance of heat production and heat loss maintains a. Vasoconstriction b. Vasodilation c. Normal body temp d. All of the above

normal body temp

19. A freezing injury that extends through the skin and into the flesh is a. Frostnip b. Frostbite c. Dislocation d. Cold is a figment of the imagination

frostbite

20. A freezing injury that is limited to the skin surface is a. Frostnip b. Frostbite c. Dislocation d. Cold is a figment of the imagination

frostnip

21. Hypothermia can occur a. Indoors, near the equator b. Indoors, in Bergen County, during august c. Outdoors in Antarctica d. None of the above

Outdoors in Antarctica

22. Heat loss occurs primarily through the ________ and varies because of ________ to different parts of the body. a. Feet, nerve stimulation b. Hands, fat deposition c. Skin, blood flow d. All of the above

skin, bloow flow

23. Hyponatremia is another name for a. Alcohol intoxication b. Caffeine withdrawal c. Water intoxication, low levels of sodium in the blood d. Happiness

Water intoxication, low levels of sodium in the blood

24. Only ________ is life threatening a. Chilblain b. Heat stroke c. Heat cramps d. Dworkin’s class

heat stroke

26. Painful muscle spasms that occur suddenly during or after vigorous exercise or activity a. Heat cramps b. Heat stroke c. Hypothermia d. None of the above

heat cramps

27. Heavy perspiration with a normal or slightly above normal body temperature that causes water and electrolyte losses, sometimes called severe dehydration. a. Heat cramps b. Heat exhaustion c. Heat stroke d. None of the above

Heat exhaustion

28. Two electrolytes that are essential for controlling the movement of water in and out of the body’s cells. a. Hydrogen & Oxygen b. Sugar & Salt c. Coke & Pepsi d. Sodium & Potassium

Sodium & Potassium

30. Two ways that the body rids itself of excess heat a. Stress & anxiety b. Perfusion & depression c. Evaporation & radiation d. All the above

Evaporation & radiation

31. When you are thirsty, you are already dehydrated? a. True b. False

true

32. When you suspect frostbite, you should vigorously massage the effected area with your hands a. True b. False

false

33. A compound or OPEN fracture is treated by a. Call 911 b. Control bleeding c. Cover with sterile dressing and bandage d. All the above

all the above

1. Approximately 1/3 of all heart attack victims experience ___________. a. Severe pain. b. Excess sweating. c. No Pain. d. All the above.

no pain

Angina pectoris is ___________. a. Chest pain usually lasts less than 10 min. b. Blow flow to heart muscle restricted but not completely blocked. c. Treated with nitroglycerin. d. All the above.

all the above

3. What four things should you check if you suspect that someone has had a stroke? a. Arms, legs, fingers, toes b. Arms, nails, hair, mouth c. Face, arms, speech, time d. No check needed, just guess

face,arms,speech,time

Breathing faster than 40 breaths per minute is known as ___________. a. Normal respiration b. Hyperventilation c. Asthma d. Not necessary to be concerned with breathing

hyperventilation

In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, A stands for: a. Person awake, aware, and can respond to their surrounding environment. b. Person is asthmatic and can’t breathe c. Person is acting d. No such scale

a. Person awake, aware, and can respond to their surrounding environment.

In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, V stands for: a. Violent b. Violet c. Verbally responsive d. No such scale

verbally respnsive

7. In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, P stands for: a. Pinterest b. Purple c. Pimple d. Painfully responsive

d. Painfully responsive

8. In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, U stands for: a. Unresponsive b. Unresponsive c. Unresponsive d. All the above

all the above

If someone is staring, confused or inattentive, they could be having a __________. a. Fracture b. Heart attack c. Seizure d. None of the above

seizure

10. What does asthma do to the airways? a. Enlarges them and creates more mucus b. Collapses them c. Inflames them and narrows them d. None of the above

inflames and narrows them

11. Syncope is a. Lack of oxygen b. Turning blue c. Fainting d. None of the above

fainting

12. A person who is experiencing hypoglycemia should a. Eat some simple sugar (fruit juice) b. Get some exercise c. Take insulin d. None of the above

Eat some simple sugar (fruit juice)

What are the three main reasons for a decrease in a person’s alertness and responsiveness? a. Brain injury, lack of oxygen, low blood glucose b. Cell phones, internet, Dworkin’s lectures c. Fractures, dislocations, heart attack d. All of the above

Brain injury, lack of oxygen, low blood glucose

14. A heart attack is caused by a decreased blood flow to the heart. a. True b. False

true

15. A sudden cardiac arrest is caused by increased flow to the heart. a. True b. False

false

17. When should an AED be used? a. As soon as one arrives b. As soon as one arrives c. As soon as one arrives d. All the above

All the above

16. Why should you perform 5 sets of CPR before calling 911 for an infant if you are alone? a. Usually infants have airway obstructions, not heart conditions. b. EMS reacts faster when an infant is involved. c. It’s easier to restart an infant’s heart with CPR versus an adult. d. All the above

a. Usually infants have airway obstructions, not heart conditions

18. When performing back blows and chest compressions on a choking infant, the infant’s head should always be __________. a. Below their heart b. On firm, flat surface c. Above their heart d. You never do back blows on an infant

below their heart

19. What is one difference between adult and child CPR? a. Adult compressions are deeper than child b. Two finger compressions with adult versus child c. Rate of compressions are faster with child d. One hand compressions could be used with child

Adult compressions are deeper than child

20. How can you identify whether a child has hit puberty for purposes of CPR? a. They have a mobile phone. b. Armpit hair in boys and breast development in girls. c. Their size. d. You can’t tell, just got to guess.

b. Armpit hair in boys and breast development in girls.

21. Push ___________on the __________, __________ on the __________. a. Up, forehead, across, chin b. Down, forehead, up, chin c. Up, neck, down, legs d. Down, legs, across, forehead

b. Down, forehead, up, chin

22. It should take no more than __________ to check for breathing and pulse. a. 1 minute b. 5 minutes c. 10 seconds d. You don’t check for a pulse

10 seconds

23. In CPR, an infant is described as someone who is a. Not able to walk. b. Very small c. Less than 1 year old d. Doesn’t have armpit hair

less than a 1 year old

24. A person who is not responsive will a. Have eyes closed, but move and/or moan b. Not be breathing and have a pulse c. Not breathing or have a pulse d. All the above

not breathing or have a pulse

25. No matter the age or size of the victim, it always _________ compressions and __________ breaths for each set of CPR. a. 30/2 b. 10/1 c. 50/2 d. No such thing as CPR

30/2