CPR ALL EXAMS Flashcards

1
Q

The greatest benefit in knowing first aid is

-Yourself
- Others
- There’s no benefit to knowing first aid
- All the above

A

YOURSELF DUHHH

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2
Q

_________ is the initial care provided for an acute illness or injury.

  • Emergency room
    -Urgent care center
    -First Aid
    -None of the above
A

first aid

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3
Q

What are the two types of consent

A

informed and implied

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4
Q

An alert person who does not resist the administrations of a first aid provider has given.

A

implied consent

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5
Q

Duty to act applies to

A

everyone

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6
Q

If you move someone from a safe scene who has a suspected spinal injury and permanently paralyze them, it is an act of

A

commisson

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7
Q

What is the first step in an emergency?

A

Recognize that it is an emergency

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8
Q

Why might a bystander decide not to help?

A
  • Situation could be dangerous
    Might not be worth it
    Skill necessary to administer first aid could be too advanced
    {All the above}
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9
Q

Which one is an example of PPE?
(Personal protective equiptment)

A

A. Adhesive bandages
B. Gloves
C. Face mask
{B and C}

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10
Q

Posterior means

A

back

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11
Q

Why are children and infants more prone to choking?

  • They eat more candy, grapes and hotdogs
  • They’re always running around
  • Their airways are smaller
  • They don’t have enough experience eating
A
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12
Q

A(n)________ brings oxygenated blood away from the heart.
Artery
Vein
Capillary
There’s no such thing as oxygen

A

artery

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13
Q

The largest vein in the body is the inferior ___________. It returns deoxygenated blood to the heart from the lower half body.

Vena cava
Aorta
Carotid artery
All the above

A

vena cava

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14
Q

The largest artery in the body is the ________.
Vena cava
Aorta
Carotid artery
All the above

A

Aorta

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15
Q

The passage of air into and out of the lungs is called ________.

Inhalation
Exhalation
Ventilation
None of the above

A

none of the above

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16
Q

The liquid portion of blood is called ________.
Red blood cells
White blood cells
Plasma
None of the above

A

plasma

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17
Q

Hypoperfusion is another word for ________.
Shock
Enlightenment
Happy
None of the above

A

shock

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18
Q

Where is the headquarters of the nervous system?
Liver
Appendix
Brain
Diaphragm

A

brain

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19
Q

If broken ribs are suspected, there is risk of damage to the _________.
Appendix
Brain
Lungs
All the above

A

lungs

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20
Q

The outer layer of skin is called the _________.
Epidermis
Dermis
Large intestine
All the above

A

epidermis

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21
Q

Snoring, gurgling and wheezing are signs of _________.
CNS problem
Severe bleeding
Respiratory problem
All the above

A

Respiratory problem

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22
Q

If an unresponsive person is breathing, what should you do?

  • Leave them alone
  • Immediately start CPR
  • Monitor them and continually reassess
  • Call a friend
A

Monitor them and continually reassess

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23
Q

Cyanosis means

Fainting
Nausea
Turning blue
Dizziness

A

turning blue

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24
Q

Responsive victims should be placed in the _________ position.
Recovery
Fetal
Legs crossed
No special position

A

no special position

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25
Q

When performing a physical exam, you should always begin at the _________.
Site of injury
Head
Feet
Abdomen

A

head

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26
Q

If someone is complaining of abdominal pain, that is a _________.
Sign
Symptom
Indication
None of the above

A

symptom

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27
Q

When should a primary check be interrupted?

When the person wakes up
When a life threatening condition is identified
When your cellphone rings
When you feel like it

A

When a life threatening condition is identified

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28
Q

Delivery of blood and Oxygen to all cells in the body tissues and organs is known as
a. Syncope
b. Perfusion
c. Fracture
d. All the above

A

perfusion

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29
Q

How long does it take for permanent brain damage to occur?
a. 2-3 min
b. 45 min
c. 4-6 min
d. All the above

A

4-6 min

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30
Q
  1. Early stage of shock when body can make up for blood loss is called
    a. Compensated
    b. Decompensated
    c. Irreversible
    d. All the above
A

compensated

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31
Q

Late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling is called
a. Compensated
b. Decompensated
c. Irreversible
d. All the above

A

decompensated

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32
Q

Final stage of shock, when there is nothing that can be done to save the patient’s life
is called
a. Compensated
b. Decompensated
c. Irreversible
d. All the above

A

irreversible

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33
Q

Fainting is which kind of shock?
a. Cardiovascular
b. Anaphylactic
c. Psychogenic
d. All the above

A

Psychogenic

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34
Q

Best place to administer an epinephrine auto-injector is in the
a. Upper arm
b. Thigh
c. Foot
d. All the above

A

thigh

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35
Q
  1. What is hemorrhage?
    a. Profuse sweating
    b. Recovery
    c. A large amount of bleeding in a short time
    d. All the above
A

large amount of bleeding in a short time

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36
Q

Arterial bleeding, blood
a. Spurts
b. Flows
c. Oozes
d. All the above

A

spurts

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37
Q

Venous bleeding, blood
a. Spurts
b. Flows
c. Oozes
d. All the above

A

flows

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38
Q
  1. Capillary bleeding, blood
    a. Spurts
    b. Flows
    c. Oozes
    d. All the above
A

oozes

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39
Q
  1. If a wound bleeds through the sterile dressing, you should
    a. Remove it an apply a clean one
    b. Get help immediately
    c. Let it bleed
    d. All the above
A

remove it and apply a clean one

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40
Q
  1. After applying direct pressure for 10 minutes, the bleeding doesn’t stop you should
    a. Apply a tourniquet
    b. Apply ice
    c. Apply harder pressure
    d. All the above
A

a. Apply a tourniquet

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41
Q
  1. Wound where top layer of skin is removed with little or no blood loss
    a. Avulsion
    b. Amputation
    c. Incision
    d. Laceration
    e. Puncture
    f. Abrasion
A

abrasion

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42
Q
  1. Wound where skin has jagged, irregular edges, usually caused by a forceful tearing
    away of skin tissue.
    a. Avulsion
    b. Amputation
    c. Incision
    d. Laceration
    e. Puncture
    f. Abrasion
A

lacteration

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43
Q

Wound that has smooth edges and resembles a surgical or paper cut.
a. Avulsion
b. Amputation
c. Incision
d. Laceration
e. Puncture
f. Abrasion

A

incision

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44
Q
  1. Deep, narrow wound in the skin and underlying organs such as a stab wound from a
    nail or a knife.
    a. Avulsion
    b. Amputation
    c. Incision
    d. Laceration
    e. Puncture
    f. Abrasion
A

puncture

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45
Q
  1. Wound where a piece of skin and possibly underlying tissue is torn loose and is
    hanging from the body or completely removed.
    a. Avulsion
    b. Amputation
    c. Incision
    d. Laceration
    e. Puncture
    f. Abrasion
A

avulsion

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46
Q

Wound that involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part such as a finger, toe,
hand, foot, arm or leg.
a. Avulsion
b. Amputation
c. Incision
d. Laceration
e. Puncture
f. Abrasion

A

amputation

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47
Q
  1. ________ ________ is the best way to begin to control bleeding.
    a. Leaving alone
    b. Wet heat
    c. Direct pressure
    d. All the above
A

direct pressure

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48
Q
  1. What is the most important factor in preventing infection in an open wound?
    a. Direct pressure
    b. Irrigation with water
    c. Leaving it alone
    d. All the above
A

irrigation with water

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49
Q
  1. Why should cleaning with soap and water only be done on a shallow wound?
    a. It usually restarts bleeding
    b. Water contains chemicals that could be harmful
    c. Makes it smell nice
    d. All the above
A

it usually restarts bleeding

50
Q
  1. How large should a dressing be?
    a. Dressings should never be used
    b. Large enough to extend beyond the edges of the wound
    c. Smaller than the wound
    d. All the above
A

large enough to extend beyong the edges of a wound

51
Q

Burn caused by contact with hot objects, flammable vapors, steam or hot liquids are
what kind of burns?
a. Thermal
b. Chemical
c. Electrical
d. All the above

A

thermal

52
Q

Burn caused by a chemical agent is what kind of burn?
a. Thermal
b. Chemical
c. Electrical
d. All the above

A

chemical

53
Q

Burn caused by an electrical current can cause
a. Nails to fall off
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Nose to fall off
d. All the above

A

ventricular fibreillation

54
Q

A _______ degree burn affects the skin’s epidermis
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fifth

A

first

55
Q
  1. A _______ degree burn is a severe burn that penetrates through all layers of skin and
    into the underlying fat and muscle
    a. First
    b. Second
    c. Third
    d. Fifth
A

third

56
Q
  1. A _______ degree burn extends through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin
    layer.
    a. First
    b. Second
    c. Third
    d. Fifth
A

second

57
Q
  1. The least painful type of burn is a _______ degree burn.
    a. First
    b. Second
    c. Third
    d. Fifth
A

third

58
Q

The first thing you do as part of the first aid for 1st and 2nd degree burns is
a. Cool it for 5 min only
b. Cool it for 1 min only
c. Cool it for at least 10 minutes
d. Don’t cool it at all, person should know better

A

cool it for at least 10 minutes

59
Q

What do burn blisters serve as?
a. Burn dressings
b. Do not serve purpose at all
c. Cushioning
d. Both A and C

A

burn dressings and cusioning A and C

60
Q
  1. Alcohol poisoning can cause death when
    a. Paralyzing the lower extremities
    b. Slowing the pulse until death occurs
    c. Paralyzing the respiratory center in the brain
    d. All the above
A

Paralyzing the respiratory center in the brain

61
Q
  1. Best position for poisoning victim is
    a. Seated with legs up and head down
    b. Lying on their back
    c. Recovery position
    d. All the above
A

recovery position

62
Q
  1. Why is the above position important for a poisoning victim?
    a. Won’t choke on their own vomit
    b. Delays digestion
    c. Both A & B
    d. None of the above
A

Both A & B

63
Q
  1. Main concern with bee sting is
    a. Hives
    b. Anaphylaxis
    c. Uncontrolled laughter
    d. All the above
A

Anaphylaxis

64
Q
  1. Best know early symptom of Lyme disease is
    a. Bullseye rash
    b. Arthritis
    c. Loss of memory
    d. None of the above
A

bullseye rash

65
Q
  1. When are stitches necessary?
    a. Edges of skin don’t fall together
    b. Cut is more than 1” long and is deep
    c. Both A & B
    d. None of the above
A

Both A & B

66
Q
  1. How can you identify a coral snake?
    a. You can’t
    b. Alternating yellow band
    c. Hear the rattle
    d. All the above
A

alternating yellow band

67
Q
  1. What is an inexpensive and effective way to reduce the severity of snake bites?
    a. Use repellent
    b. Wear denim jeans
    c. Smile at the snake
    d. All the above
A

wear denim jeans

68
Q
  1. An incomplete fracture that commonly occurs in children
    a. Greenstick
    b. Comminuted
    c. DOTS
    d. Huh. Fractures don’t occur in children
A

greenstick

69
Q

A fracture that cuts across the bone at right angles to its long axis and is often caused
by direct injury
a. Greenstick
b. Transverse
c. DOTS
d. Huh. Fractures don’t occur from direct contact

A

transverse

70
Q

A fracture where the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces-splintered or
crushed.
a. Oblique
b. Comminuted
c. DOTS
d. Huh. Fractures only involve two pieces

A

comminuted

71
Q
  1. What is the acronym that you should use to determine if a broken bone is suspected?
    a. CPR
    b. EPA
    c. DOTS
    d. CIA
A

dots

72
Q

After checking _______ you can determine the severity of the fracture.
a. CPR
b. EPA
c. CSM
d. FBI

A

csm

73
Q

If a broken bone is suspected, what should you do while you wait for help to arrive?
a. Stabilize the part and RICE
b. Massage the part
c. Drive them to the ER
d. None of the above

A

stabilize the part and RICE

74
Q
  1. If a fracture is suspected, you should always stabilize the part

a. In a straight position
b. In the most painful position. No pain, no gain.
c. In the position it was found
d. All the above

A

in the position it was found

75
Q

When the joint comes apart and stays apart
a. Sprain
b. Strain
c. Dislocation
d. Huh. Joints NEVER comes apart

A

dislocation

76
Q
  1. When a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion and the
    ligament is either partially or completely torn
    a. Fracture
    b. Strain
    c. Sprain
    d. Huh. Ligaments NEVER tear
A

sprain

77
Q
  1. When a muscle and/or tendon is torn as a result of stretching beyond its normal range
    of motion
    a. Fracture
    b. Strain
    c. Sprain
    d. Huh. Muscle and tendons NEVER tear
A

strain

78
Q
  1. A bruise is also known as a
    a. Blood blister
    b. Contusion
    c. Anaphylaxis
    d. No such thing as a bruise
A

contusion

79
Q
  1. What is the best treatment for bone, muscle, and joint injuries?
    a. RICE within 24-72 hours
    b. More activity and high intensity training
    c. Heat immediately
    d. No need for treatment
A

RICE within 24-72 hours

80
Q
  1. You should move the body part if the bone is fractured
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

81
Q
  1. The body’s natural way of keeping warm and can be lifesaving in extreme cold
    a. Metabolism
    b. Shivering
    c. Sweating
    d. Body has no way of dealing with cold temps
A

shivering

82
Q
  1. Susceptibility to cold injuries can be minimized by
    a. Avoiding caffeine
    b. Avoiding alcohol
    c. Avoiding nicotine
    d. All the above
A

all the above

83
Q
  1. The tightening/narrowing of the blood vessels is

a. Vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilation
c. Normal body temp
d. Huh. Blood vessels don’t tighten/narrow

A

Vasoconstriction

84
Q
  1. A balance of heat production and heat loss maintains
    a. Vasoconstriction
    b. Vasodilation
    c. Normal body temp
    d. All of the above
A

normal body temp

85
Q
  1. A freezing injury that extends through the skin and into the flesh is
    a. Frostnip
    b. Frostbite
    c. Dislocation
    d. Cold is a figment of the imagination
A

frostbite

86
Q
  1. A freezing injury that is limited to the skin surface is
    a. Frostnip
    b. Frostbite
    c. Dislocation
    d. Cold is a figment of the imagination
A

frostnip

87
Q
  1. Hypothermia can occur
    a. Indoors, near the equator
    b. Indoors, in Bergen County, during august
    c. Outdoors in Antarctica
    d. None of the above
A

Outdoors in Antarctica

88
Q
  1. Heat loss occurs primarily through the ________ and varies because of ________ to
    different parts of the body.
    a. Feet, nerve stimulation
    b. Hands, fat deposition
    c. Skin, blood flow
    d. All of the above
A

skin, bloow flow

89
Q
  1. Hyponatremia is another name for
    a. Alcohol intoxication
    b. Caffeine withdrawal
    c. Water intoxication, low levels of sodium in the blood
    d. Happiness
A

Water intoxication, low levels of sodium in the blood

90
Q
  1. Only ________ is life threatening
    a. Chilblain
    b. Heat stroke
    c. Heat cramps
    d. Dworkin’s class
A

heat stroke

91
Q
  1. Painful muscle spasms that occur suddenly during or after vigorous exercise or
    activity

a. Heat cramps
b. Heat stroke
c. Hypothermia
d. None of the above

A

heat cramps

92
Q
  1. Heavy perspiration with a normal or slightly above normal body temperature that
    causes water and electrolyte losses, sometimes called severe dehydration.
    a. Heat cramps
    b. Heat exhaustion
    c. Heat stroke
    d. None of the above
A

Heat exhaustion

93
Q
  1. Two electrolytes that are essential for controlling the movement of water in and out
    of the body’s cells.
    a. Hydrogen & Oxygen
    b. Sugar & Salt
    c. Coke & Pepsi
    d. Sodium & Potassium
A

Sodium & Potassium

94
Q
  1. Two ways that the body rids itself of excess heat
    a. Stress & anxiety
    b. Perfusion & depression
    c. Evaporation & radiation
    d. All the above
A

Evaporation & radiation

95
Q
  1. When you are thirsty, you are already dehydrated?
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

96
Q
  1. When you suspect frostbite, you should vigorously massage the effected area with
    your hands
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

97
Q
  1. A compound or OPEN fracture is treated by
    a. Call 911
    b. Control bleeding
    c. Cover with sterile dressing and bandage
    d. All the above
A

all the above

98
Q
  1. Approximately 1/3 of all heart attack victims experience ___________.
    a. Severe pain.
    b. Excess sweating.
    c. No Pain.
    d. All the above.
A

no pain

99
Q

Angina pectoris is ___________.
a. Chest pain usually lasts less than 10 min.
b. Blow flow to heart muscle restricted but not completely blocked.
c. Treated with nitroglycerin.
d. All the above.

A

all the above

100
Q
  1. What four things should you check if you suspect that someone has had a stroke?
    a. Arms, legs, fingers, toes
    b. Arms, nails, hair, mouth
    c. Face, arms, speech, time
    d. No check needed, just guess
A

face,arms,speech,time

101
Q

Breathing faster than 40 breaths per minute is known as ___________.
a. Normal respiration
b. Hyperventilation
c. Asthma
d. Not necessary to be concerned with breathing

A

hyperventilation

102
Q

In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, A stands for:
a. Person awake, aware, and can respond to their surrounding environment.
b. Person is asthmatic and can’t breathe
c. Person is acting
d. No such scale

A

a. Person awake, aware, and can respond to their surrounding environment.

103
Q

In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, V stands for:
a. Violent
b. Violet
c. Verbally responsive
d. No such scale

A

verbally respnsive

104
Q
  1. In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, P stands for:
    a. Pinterest
    b. Purple
    c. Pimple
    d. Painfully responsive
A

d. Painfully responsive

105
Q
  1. In the AVPU scale to measure person’s mental status, U stands for:
    a. Unresponsive
    b. Unresponsive
    c. Unresponsive
    d. All the above
A

all the above

106
Q

If someone is staring, confused or inattentive, they could be having a __________.
a. Fracture
b. Heart attack
c. Seizure
d. None of the above

A

seizure

107
Q
  1. What does asthma do to the airways?
    a. Enlarges them and creates more mucus
    b. Collapses them
    c. Inflames them and narrows them
    d. None of the above
A

inflames and narrows them

108
Q
  1. Syncope is
    a. Lack of oxygen
    b. Turning blue
    c. Fainting
    d. None of the above
A

fainting

109
Q
  1. A person who is experiencing hypoglycemia should
    a. Eat some simple sugar (fruit juice)
    b. Get some exercise
    c. Take insulin
    d. None of the above
A

Eat some simple sugar (fruit juice)

110
Q

What are the three main reasons for a decrease in a person’s alertness and
responsiveness?
a. Brain injury, lack of oxygen, low blood glucose
b. Cell phones, internet, Dworkin’s lectures
c. Fractures, dislocations, heart attack
d. All of the above

A

Brain injury, lack of oxygen, low blood glucose

111
Q
  1. A heart attack is caused by a decreased blood flow to the heart.
    a. True
    b. False
A

true

112
Q
  1. A sudden cardiac arrest is caused by increased flow to the heart.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

113
Q
  1. When should an AED be used?
    a. As soon as one arrives
    b. As soon as one arrives
    c. As soon as one arrives
    d. All the above
A

All the above

114
Q
  1. Why should you perform 5 sets of CPR before calling 911 for an infant if you are alone?
    a. Usually infants have airway obstructions, not heart conditions.
    b. EMS reacts faster when an infant is involved.
    c. It’s easier to restart an infant’s heart with CPR versus an adult.
    d. All the above
A

a. Usually infants have airway obstructions, not heart conditions

115
Q
  1. When performing back blows and chest compressions on a choking infant, the infant’s
    head should always be __________.
    a. Below their heart
    b. On firm, flat surface
    c. Above their heart
    d. You never do back blows on an infant
A

below their heart

116
Q
  1. What is one difference between adult and child CPR?
    a. Adult compressions are deeper than child
    b. Two finger compressions with adult versus child
    c. Rate of compressions are faster with child
    d. One hand compressions could be used with child
A

Adult compressions are deeper than child

117
Q
  1. How can you identify whether a child has hit puberty for purposes of CPR?
    a. They have a mobile phone.
    b. Armpit hair in boys and breast development in girls.
    c. Their size.
    d. You can’t tell, just got to guess.
A

b. Armpit hair in boys and breast development in girls.

118
Q
  1. Push ___________on the __________, __________ on the __________.
    a. Up, forehead, across, chin
    b. Down, forehead, up, chin
    c. Up, neck, down, legs
    d. Down, legs, across, forehead
A

b. Down, forehead, up, chin

119
Q
  1. It should take no more than __________ to check for breathing and pulse.
    a. 1 minute
    b. 5 minutes
    c. 10 seconds
    d. You don’t check for a pulse
A

10 seconds

120
Q
  1. In CPR, an infant is described as someone who is
    a. Not able to walk.
    b. Very small
    c. Less than 1 year old
    d. Doesn’t have armpit hair
A

less than a 1 year old

121
Q
  1. A person who is not responsive will
    a. Have eyes closed, but move and/or moan
    b. Not be breathing and have a pulse
    c. Not breathing or have a pulse
    d. All the above
A

not breathing or have a pulse

122
Q
  1. No matter the age or size of the victim, it always _________ compressions and
    __________ breaths for each set of CPR.
    a. 30/2
    b. 10/1
    c. 50/2
    d. No such thing as CPR
A

30/2