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CPN > CPN > Flashcards

CPN Flashcards

1
Q

Cephalocaudally

A

Head to toe

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2
Q

Proximodistally

A

Trunk to tips of extremities

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3
Q

Length is measured at what month range

A

0-36 months

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4
Q

Height is measured at what age

A

2

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5
Q

Weight at 6 months

A

Doubled birth weight

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6
Q

Weight at 1 year

A

Tripled birth weight

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7
Q

Overweight BMI and percentile

A

Percentile: 85% to 95%
BMI: 25 to 29.9

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8
Q

Average birth length

A

20 inches

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9
Q

Average increase in height at 1 year

A

10in

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10
Q

Average height increase in 2nd year

A

5in

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11
Q

Average height increase per year after age 3

A

2.5 in

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12
Q

How does height at 4yrs compare to birth length

A

Doubles at 4 yes

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13
Q

Social smile

A

3 months

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14
Q

Laugh

A

4 months

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15
Q

Stranger anxiety emerges

A

4-6months

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16
Q

Peek a boo, look in mirror

A

7-9 months

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17
Q

Claps and waves bye bye

A

10-12 months

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18
Q

Babble

A

3 months

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19
Q

Turns towards rattling noise

A

3 months

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20
Q

Understands cause and effect

A

7- 9months

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21
Q

Able to say 5 words

A

10-12 months

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22
Q

Able to lift head

A

2 months

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23
Q

Posterior fontanel closed

A

2 months

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24
Q

Eyes track in all fields of gaze

A

3 months

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25
Q

Rakes objects

A

4 months

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26
Q

Grasps rattle

A

4 months

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27
Q

Rolls from front to back

A

4 months

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28
Q

Rolls from back to front

A

5-6 months

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29
Q

Transfer objects from hand to hand

A

5 months

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30
Q

Sits with support

A

5 months

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31
Q

Sits without support

A

8 months

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32
Q

Pincer grasp

A

9 months

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33
Q

Crawls

A

9 months

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34
Q

Pulls self to a stand

A

10-12 months

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35
Q

Toddler age range

A

1-2

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36
Q

When does separation anxiety develop

A

Toddler (1-2)

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37
Q

Formula for # of words in a phrase for ages 2-5

A

Age + 1 = words in a phrase

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38
Q

Number of words a 12 month old knows

A

5

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39
Q

Number of words an 18 month old knows

A

50

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40
Q

Number of words a 24 month old knows

A

400

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41
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close

A

12-18 months

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42
Q

Age able to climb stairs

A

21 months

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43
Q

Preschool ages

A

3-5

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44
Q

When is the conscience begin to develop

A

Preschool age (3-5)

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45
Q

When does modesty develop

A

Preschool age (3-5)

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46
Q

Builds tower of more than 6 blocks

A

3 years

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47
Q

Throws ball overhead

A

4 years

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48
Q

What’s ages are school age

A

6-12years

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49
Q

When does morality begin to develop

A

6-9 sense of right and wrong

10-13 more shades of grey

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50
Q

Breast development

A

10years

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51
Q

Pubic hair in females

A

11

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52
Q

Height spurt in females

A

12

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53
Q

Menarche

A

13

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54
Q

Testicular enlargement age

A

11

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55
Q

Pubic hair in males

A

12 years

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56
Q

Height spurt in males

A

13-14

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57
Q

Psychosocial focus for infant 0-12months

A

Trust

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58
Q

Psychosocial focus for toddler (1-2 year old)

A

Autonomy ( new tasks)

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59
Q

Psychosocial focus of preschooler (3-5years)

A

Initiative (dressing self, helping with take, push buttons)

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60
Q

Psychosocial focus of school age child (6- 12)

A

Achievement

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61
Q

Psychosocial focus of an adolescent

A

Identity development

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62
Q

Cognitive development of infant (0-12months)

A

Learns through interaction with the environment

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63
Q

Cognitive development of toddler (1-2)

A

Egocentric focus

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64
Q

Cognitive development of a preschooler (3-5)

A

Thinking is non logical, non linear

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65
Q

Cognitive development of school age child (6-12)

A

Thinking is logical, linear

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66
Q

Cognitive development of adolescent

A

Adaptable, flexible, abstract

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67
Q

Communication considerations for toddlers (1-2)

A

Avoid separation from parents. Allow for autonomy

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68
Q

Communication considerations for preschoolers (3-5)

A

Give choices, DEMONSTRATION (equipment, on dolls)

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69
Q

What supplement is important for breastfed infants

A

Iron, begin at 4 months

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70
Q

How many ounces per day is an infant expected to eat

A

20oz

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71
Q

What is the upper limit for oz of BM/ formula that indicates a switch to purées is appropriate

A

30oz

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72
Q

What is the benefit of whole milk

A

Fats that provide myelination of the brain

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73
Q

What age should purées be introduced

A

4 months

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74
Q

What food should be used in moderation

A

Rice due to arsenic levels

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75
Q

When should a transition to table food be initiated

A

6-12 months

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76
Q

When does teething begin

A

3-4 months

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77
Q

When does the first tooth appear

A

6 months

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78
Q

How many baby(deciduous) teeth are there are 3 years

A

20

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79
Q

When does a child loose their first tooth

A

6

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80
Q

What is the #1 cause of mortality in adolescents

A

Motor vehicle accidents

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81
Q

What are the names of the vision tests used for preschoolers (3-5)

A

LEA symbols

Allen figures

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82
Q

What is the name of the vision test used for school aged kids (6-12)

A

Sloan letters chart

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83
Q

In a toddler what can be an indicator of hearing deficiency

A

Babbling

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84
Q

Live vaccines (4)

A

MMR
Varicella
Rotavirus
Nasal Influenza

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85
Q

When do the side effects of a live vaccine typically occur

A

2-4 weeks after admin

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86
Q

What is unique about the rash that can occur after the varicella vaccine

A

It can be contagious

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87
Q

How long does Rita virus vaccine shed in the stool after vacccine

A

14 days

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88
Q

Until what age should IM injections be given in the Vastus lateralis

A

3 years

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89
Q

How many doses of MMR are there

A

1st dose: 12-15 months

2nd dose: 4-6 years

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90
Q

What is a unique feature of the MMR vaccine

A

A child less than 12 months can get it if there is a local measles outbreak

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91
Q

How many doses of the HPV vaccine are they

A

2

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92
Q

How is pertussis treated

A

Antibiotics

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93
Q

What is the communicability of varicella

A

Contagious 2 days before the rash even appears and until the scabs crust

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94
Q

What are the three stages of lesions in varicella

A

Papule
Vesicles
Crusts

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95
Q

What is the course of treatment of an immunocompromised child after exposure to varicella

A

Give varicella-zoster immune globulin ASAP up to 10 days post exposure

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96
Q

How is mononucleosis transmitted

A

Oropharyngeal secretions

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97
Q

How many weeks of activity restriction should be implemented for kids with mono after the acute phase

A

3 weeks

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98
Q

Classic symptom of TB

A

Night sweats

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99
Q

TB infection means

A

Prior infection

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100
Q

TB disease

A

Active infection with positive culture and X-ray

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101
Q

Fifth disease is caused by what virus

A

Parvovirus

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102
Q

What is a hallmark sign of goth disease

A

Red facial rash (slapped face)

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103
Q

What virus causes hand-foot-mouth

A

Enterovirus

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104
Q

Symptoms of hand foot mouth

A

Malaise
Ulcer in mouth
Rash on palms of hands and feet (sometimes knees elbows and genitalia)

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105
Q

What is the treatment for Lyme disease

A

Antibiotics

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106
Q

Describe juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Autoimmune disease of connective tissues

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107
Q

What routine exam is important for kids with JIA

A

Slit lamp eye exams to look for uveitis

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108
Q

What is the main method of transmission for children with HIV

A

Born to HIV positive mothers

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109
Q

What is a symptom of HIV

A

Recurrent oral candidiasis and yeast in diaper area

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110
Q

Is HIV diagnosed by antibodies or by virologic diagnostic test in babies

A

Virologic test

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111
Q

How does vitiligo testing for HIV in babies work

A

Done over time with multiple tests. Hopefully known by 6months

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112
Q

How are babies born to HIV positive moms treated.

A

All treated with prophylactic antiretrovirals

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113
Q

Is it safe for an HIV positive mother to breastfeed

A

No

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114
Q

What two live vaccines CAN be given to HIV positive kids

A

MMR and varicella

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115
Q

What can be a cause of hypotonic dehydration

A

Water intoxication

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116
Q

Sodium low or high in hypotonic dehydration

A

Low

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117
Q

What is a complication of hypotonic dehydration

A

Cerebral edema and seizures

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118
Q

Best way to treat mild to moderate dehydration

A

Oral rehydration with pedialyte

5-10mls every 5min

119
Q

What do hypertonic IV solutions contain

A

Dextrose! What we give all the time

120
Q

What is the main organism that causes UTI

A

E. Coli

121
Q

When do the testes descend from the abdomen to the scrotum

A

3rd trimester

122
Q

What are assessment findings of nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria
Hypoalbuminemia
Third spacing

123
Q

What treatment is used for nephrotic syndrome

A

Corticosteroids

124
Q

What causes nephrotic syndrome

A

Autoimmune process

125
Q

What causes glomerulonephritis

A

Occurs 1-2 weeks after group A beta hemolytic strep

Antibodies are made that attack the glomerulus

126
Q

What assessment findings do you see with glomerulonephritis

A

Hematuria
Elevated BP
Edema

127
Q

What is the treatment for glomerulonephritis

A

Antibiotics (for strep)

Anti-hypertensives

128
Q

Cause of impetigo

A

Staph or strep

129
Q

Assessment finding of impetigo

A

Honey colored crusts

130
Q

Treatment for impetigo

A

Oral or topical antibiotics

131
Q

What is the treatment for scabies

A

Scabicide below the neck, leave on 8-12 hours and wash, repeat 1 week later

132
Q

What is ringworm (Tinea) caused by

A

Fungus

133
Q

Types of ring worm/ tinea

A

Jock itch

Athletes foot

134
Q

Treatment of ring worm/ tinea

A

Selenium sulfide shampoo
Oral or topical anti fungal
Antifungal powder

135
Q

What causes head lice (pediculosis capitis)

A

Parasites

136
Q

How do you treat head lice

A

Nix (cream rinse)
Pyrethrum (RID)
Manually remove bits with comb

137
Q

Do children need to stay out of school when there is active lice outbreaks

A

No

138
Q

How does a child get Stevens-Johnson syndrome (erythema multiforme exudativum)

A

It is usually a drug reaction to antibiotics or ant seizure meds

139
Q

Symptoms of stevens Johnson syndrome

A

Body rash
Intense sloughing of skin
Ulceration

140
Q

What are treatments for Steven Johnson’s syndrome

A 
Skin care 
Magic mouthwash 
NG feedings if indicated 
Pain management 
** lubricants to prevent corneal damage
141
Q

Definition of anemia

A

Decrease in serum hemoglobin

142
Q

Normal hemoglobin range

A

11.5 - 14.5

143
Q

Symptoms of acute anemia

A

Muscle weakness, fatigue, pallor , HA, light headed, increased HR

144
Q

How do you treat anemia

A

Treat underlying cause
Iron supplements
Blood transfusion

145
Q

What population is at risk for iron deficient anemia

A

Premature infants

146
Q

What is a risk factor for becoming iron deficient

A

Only drinking whole milk with no real food after 12 months

147
Q

Why do red blood cells sickle

A

Dehydration

Hypoxia

148
Q

Treatment for Vado occlusive crisis

A

Hydration
Oxygen (as needed)
Pain management

149
Q

Why are children with sickle cell disease more like to be more affected by illness

A

Do not have a fully functioning spleen

150
Q

If a child with sickle cell disease has a fever what are next steps

A

Think sepsis!
CBC
Blood cultures
IV abx

151
Q

What important teaching point must be included to families with sickle cell disease.

A

They must have a thermometer, know how to use it, and how to know what a fever it.

152
Q

Describe immune/idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Hemorrhagic disorder that results in autoimmune destruction of the platelets in the spleen

153
Q

Normal platelet

A

150,000 -400,000

154
Q

What is a main symptom of immune/idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

Petechiae
Bruises
Bleeding in urine or gums

155
Q

What is the treatment for immune/idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

IVIG to increase platelet count

156
Q

Important teaching point for kids with immune/idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

No contact sports!
Avoid trauma, injections
No ibuprofen

157
Q

What is hemophilia

A

A deficiency in one of the factors necessary for blood coagulation

158
Q

How is hemophilia treated

A

By giving “factor”

159
Q

What causes disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Trauma
Transfusion reaction
Cancer

160
Q

Largo of DIC

A

Consumption of clotting factors that leads to massive bleeding

161
Q

How do you treat DIC

A

FFP

Plasma

162
Q

Describe leukemia

A

Abnormal proliferation of WBC invading the bone marrow

163
Q

Symptoms of leukemia

A

Bone pain
Anemia
Lymphadenopathy
Immunosuppression

164
Q

Two type of leukemia

A

ALL - Acute lymphoid leukemia

AML - Acute myelogenous leukemia

165
Q

What are signs of a brain tumor

A

Headache upon waking
Seizures
Increased ICP
Neuro abnormalities (gait, speech, etc.)

166
Q

Two types of lymphomas

A

Hodgkins (reed-stern berg cells)

Non hodgkins (proliferation of B or T lymphocytes

167
Q

Classic symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Night sweats

168
Q

Symptoms of non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Swelling in abdomen or neck

Also has night sweats

169
Q

What is a Wilma tumor (nephroblastoma)

A

Cancer of the kidney

170
Q

Symptoms of Wilma tumors (nephroblastoma)

A

Hypertension
Hematuria
Anemia
Constipation

171
Q

What is an important consideration with Wilms tumors

A

Do not palpate the abdomen

172
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome

A

Occurs within 72 hours after chemo

Included elevated iron acid, potassium

173
Q

What are the implications of tumor lysis syndrome

A

Cardiac dysthymias
Renal impairment
Seizures

174
Q

If you know a child will soon be receiving chemo, what is important not to give

A

Potassium contains IV fluids

175
Q

What are you very likely to see with leukemia

A

Bruising

176
Q

What’s the most likely cause of diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

177
Q

What acid/base change can diarrhea cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis

178
Q

What acid/base disorder can vomiting cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis

179
Q

What does bile tinge vomit indicate

A

Bloackage

180
Q

What is a hallmark sign of pyloric stenosis

A

Projectile vomiting

181
Q

After outpatient management of GER what are the next types of studies that are done

A

Barium swallow
Upper GI
pH probe

182
Q

What acid/base change can diarrhea cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis

183
Q

What acid/base disorder can vomiting cause

A

Metabolic alkalosis

184
Q

What does bile tinge vomit indicate

A

Bloackage

185
Q

What is a hallmark sign of pyloric stenosis

A

Projectile vomiting

186
Q

After outpatient management of GER what are the next types of studies that are done

A

Barium swallow
Upper GI
pH probe

187
Q

What are the interventions for GER

A

Thickened formula
Upright 30 min after feed
Antacids and proton pump inhibitors

188
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis

A

When bowel mucosa becomes necrotic because blood flow to GI tract is compromised.

189
Q

What assessment finding are common with necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Abdominal distention
Increased gastric residuals
Vomiting
Bradycardia/hypotension (later sign)

190
Q

What are treatments a for necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Bowel rest
NG tube to low suction
Antibiotics
*cluster cares reduce stress

191
Q

When is a cleft lip repair done

A

1-4 months of age

192
Q

When can a cleft palate repair be done

A

When the infant is weened from breast or bottle. 6-12months.
Must be able to drink from cup.
No sucking

193
Q

Nursing care after cleft lip/palate

A

Monitor for bleeding
Elbow restraints
No belly sleeping
Nothing inside mouth

194
Q

What is esophageal atresia

A

When the esaphagus ends in a blind pouch

195
Q

What is tracheoesophageal fistula

A

Connection between esaphagus and trachea

196
Q

What is a sign of Esophageal atresia and tracheoeshapageal fistula

A

Excessive drooling

197
Q

Treatment for esophageal atresia and tracheoesophagel fistula

A

G-tube until other surgical repair can be done

198
Q

What equipment is necessary to be set up for esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula

A

Suction

199
Q

Three possible treatments for appendicitis

A
  1. Immediate removal
  2. IV abx, outpatient PO abx, return for scheduled surgery
  3. Scheduled appendectomy no abx
200
Q

What is a sign of hirshprungs

A

Ribbon like liquid stool

201
Q

Treatment for hirschprungs

A

Surgical removal of aganglionic areas

Possible colostomy

202
Q

What is intussusception

A

Portion of intestine telescopes back on itself for unknown reason

203
Q

What is a sign of intussusception

A

Currant jelly stools
Inconsolable
Knees to chest
Bilious vomiting

204
Q

What is the best way to diagnose intussusception

A

Barium enema

205
Q

Treatment for intussusception

A

Enemas

Might need surgical resection of parts of intestine if gangrenous

206
Q

What is encoparesis

A

Fecal soiling of underwear in child over 4 years
Liquid stool leaks around ball of stool
Usually because of stool holding

207
Q

What parts of the GI tract are affected by ulcerative colitis

A

Colon and rectum

208
Q

What parts of the GI tract are affected by Crohn’s disease

A

Any part

209
Q

What are symptoms of UV or Crohns

A

bloody diarrhea
Abdominal pain and cramps
Weight loss
Growth retardation

210
Q

Treatment for crohns and UC

A 
Analgesics 
Corticosteroids 
Immunomodulators 
Biological like Remicade 
High protein high calorie 
May need total colectomy
211
Q

What are important side effects of remicade

A 
Chills 
Dizziness 
Fatigue 
Chest pain 
Stomach pain 
Infection (TB and fungal) 
Development of rare cancers
212
Q

What is biliary atresia

A

Congenital condition involving obstruction or destruction of extrhepatic biliary structures

213
Q

What are symptoms of biliary atresia

A 
Jaundice (not helped by phototherapy) 
Itching and irritability 
Pale stools 
FTT
Hepatomegaly
214
Q

What vitamins have decreased absorption in biliary atresia

A

Fat soluble ( A,D, E, K)

215
Q

What’s the treatment for biliary atresia

A

Fat soluble vitamins
Kasai procedure (temporary fix)
Liver transplant

216
Q

What is the dosing for acetaminophen

A

10-15mg/kg per dose Q4

217
Q

Why is codeine no longer given to children

A

Codeine normally converts to morphine in the body.

Some children have genetic difference that causes too much morphine creation and they die of morphine OD

218
Q

Normal pH range

A

7.35-7.45

219
Q

Normal CO2

A

35-45

220
Q

Normal HCO3 (bicarbonate)

A

22-26

221
Q

Possible cause of respiratory acidosis

A

Respiratory distress

222
Q

Possible cause of metabolic acidosis

A 
Diarrhea 
Kidney failure (not making bicarbonate)
223
Q

Cause of respiratory alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation

224
Q

Cause of metabolic alkalosis

A

Vomiting

225
Q

How do you asses or put drop in children’s ears from 0-3

A

Down and back

226
Q

How do you asses or put drops in ears for kids greater than 3

A

Up and back

227
Q

What things can help prevent otitis media

A

Breastfeeding
Feeding in upright position
Discontinue pacifier use after 6months

228
Q

What are some defining symptoms of asthma

A

Inflammation
Mucous
Narrowing of airways (bronchospasm)

229
Q

Which vaccine should be avoided in asthmatics

A

Live influenza

230
Q

Use of metered dose inhaler

A

Use spacer and mask

Once older puff, inhale, hold about 8 seconds

231
Q

Teaching point for inhaler use

A

Rinse mouth after use

232
Q

Bronchilolitis is an infection of which part of the respiratory tract?

A

Lower, affects bronchioles

233
Q

What can severe RSV prior in the first year of life out them at risk for

A

Asthma

234
Q

How long is bronchiolitis contagious

A

Up to 14 days after start of symptoms

235
Q

Is albuterol or decencies Eli used in bronchiolotis

A

No

236
Q

What is the patho of CO poisoning

A

RBCs pick up CO molecule quicker and easier than O2

237
Q

Symptoms of CO poisoning

A

Full headache
Dizziness
Fatigue

Eventually LOC
Confusion

238
Q

Explain bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Chronic lung disease maybe caused by injury to premature lung

239
Q

What is symptom that differentiates itself from other repsiratory problems

A

Unable to wean from supplemental O2

240
Q

Some interventions for bronchopulmonary displaysia

A 
O2 
Positive airway pressure (if needed) 
Small frequent feedings 
Lose volume, but higher calorie feeds 
Corticosteroids 
Bronchodilators 
Diuretics
241
Q

Laryngotrqcheobronchitis / croup

Cause

A

Viral inflammation of larynx, trachea, bronchi

Usually caused by parainfluenza virus

242
Q

Treatments for layengetracheobronchitis

A

Keep child calm
IVF
Racemic Epi (evaluate response after 6hrs)
Corticosteroids

243
Q

What is epiglottis

A

Life threatening bacterial infection (h. Influenza) to the epiglottis

244
Q

What are signs of epiglottis

A

Difficulty swallowing
Drooling
Tongue protrusion

245
Q

What shouldn’t you do with epiglottitis

A

Manually assess airway

246
Q

How is epiglottitis diagnosed

A

Lateral neck film

247
Q

Treatment for epiglottitis

A

IV corticosteroids
IV abx
Always have tracheostomy supplies and intubation equipment ready

248
Q

What is a unique fact about epiglottitis

A

It is rarely seen because we vaccine against Hib in childhood

249
Q

What is the pathogen most responsible for tonsillitis

A

Beta hemolytic strep

250
Q

What are assessment findings with tonsillitis

A

Red swollen tonsils with exudate
Foul smelling breath
Snoring
Sleep apnea

251
Q

What is the most important assessment post op tonsillectomy

A

Monitoring for bleeding
Pt side lying
Monitor for frequent swallowing
Vomiting bright red blood

252
Q

Important teaching for tonsillectomies

A

Watch for bleeding 24hrs post op

Watch for bleeding 7 days after (scans fall off)

253
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of exocrine (mucous producing) glands

254
Q

How do young patients with CF present

A

Fatty stools
Frequent resp infections in infancy
FTT

255
Q

How is CF diagnosed

A

On newborn screen

Sweat chloride test

256
Q

Respiratory manifestations of CF

A

Chronic wet cough
Dyspnea
Barrel chest
Easily gets respiratory infections (increased mucous loves bacteria)

257
Q

Treatment of respiratory symptoms in CF

A

Chest percussion

Aerosol used pulozyme

258
Q

What is a GI sign of CF in newborns

A

Not passing meconium stool and having meconium ileus

259
Q

More GI implications of CF

A

Blocked pancreatic ducts (no pancreatic enzymes for digestion)
Impaired nutrient absorption

260
Q

GI management of CF

A

Take pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks.

* take in applesauce before meal*

261
Q

Implication on reproductive system with CF

A

Females: delayed puberty, difficulty getting pregnant

Males: often sterile

262
Q

How do you determine the length of a Cather needed to suction a trach

A

Should be 0.5 cm beyond the end of the trach.

263
Q

Why should sterile saline not be used in trachs

A

Removes normal flora and protea airway colonization and nosocomial pneumonia

264
Q

Where is lead deposited in the body

A

In the brain and bone

265
Q

After surgical repair of a meningocele what is important to assess

A

Assess for neurogenic bladder (post void volumes greater than 20ml

266
Q

Kids with meningoceles will often had what allergy

A

Latex
Banana
Avocado

267
Q

Clinical manifestation of lead poisoning

A

Pallor fatigue tachy
Behavior changes
Anemic

268
Q

Treatment for lead level greater than or equal to 45

A

Oral or IV chelation therapy

269
Q

Treatment for lead poisoning greater than or equal to 70

A

Chelation therapy

Hospitalization to monitor fluid status and kidney function

270
Q

What are some symptoms associated with congenital hypothyroidism

A

Intellectual disability
Enlarged tongue
Hoarse cry
*promot treatment can avoid these

271
Q

Symptoms of thyroid storm

A

Rapid heart rate
High BP
Increased body temp

272
Q

Treatment for thyroid storm

A

Anti thyroid drug

273
Q

Symptoms of Cushing syndrome

A

Central obesity
Moon face
Susceptibility to infection
Osteoporosis

274
Q

How to remember diabetes insipidus

A

Hi and dry

High sodium and dehydrated

275
Q

Treatment of diabetes insipidus

A

DDAVP

Exogenous vasopressin

276
Q

Way to remember syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone

A

Low and too much h2o

Low sodium fluid overload

277
Q

What are negative outcomes of syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone

A

Cerebral edema

Seizures

278
Q

How does exercise affect BG and insulin

A

Decrease blood sugar and decreased insulin needs

279
Q

Oral medication for DM II

A

Metformon (glucophage)

280
Q

When does opioid withdraw and need to wean occur

A

After 5 days of use

281
Q

What happens with tetralogy of fallot

A

Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mixes.

Not enough oxygen systemically

282
Q

What is the issue with ventricular septal defects

A

Heart “pumping” affected. Not enough blood being pumped out

283
Q

How are VSDs treated

A

Use of digoxin and diuretics

May close spontaneously or need surgery

284
Q

Signs of digoxin toxicity

A

Bradycardia, dysrhthmias, nausea and vomiting.

285
Q

Classic symptoms of coarctation of the aorta

A

Bounding UE pulses, weak or absent in LE.

Repaired by surgery

286
Q

What causes rheumatic fever

A

Untreated strep infections.

Antibodies attack heart valves

287
Q

Symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

Recent strep infection
Joint redness and swelling
Fever
Fatigue

288
Q

Treatment for rheumatic fever

A

Anti-inflammatory meds

Must be on penecillin prophylaxis for 10 years or until 25. Whichever is greater

289
Q

What is Kawasaki’s disease

A

Systemic vasculitis

Coronary arteries most at risk

290
Q

Symptoms of Kawasaki’s disease

Acute phase

A

High fever unresponsive to antipyretic
Inflammation of mouth lips tongue
Strawberry tongue
Swollen/red hands feet

291
Q

Symptoms of Kawasaki’s disease subacute phase

A

Resolution of fever

Hands and feet peel

292
Q

Symptoms of Kawasaki’s disease convalescent phase

A

Clinical signs have resolved

ESR, CRP normalize

293
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki’s disease

A

IVIG

High dose aspirin (regardless of age)

CPN (1 decks)

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