Cpl Study 1 Flashcards
- When transporting a prisoner in a vehicle equipped with a security cage, the prisoner shall belted and placed:
A. In the front seat
B. In the rear seat, passenger’s side
C. In the rear seat, driver’s side
D. In the trunk
- B. In the rear seat, passenger’s side (FR 7-2 2.04 D.1)(Bonus information: When one member transports a single prisoner in a Department vehicle not equipped with a security screen, the prisoner shall be secured and seat belted in the front seat, passenger side.)
- Roll call Information which is no longer current or has been disseminated to affected personnel shall be maintained in an inactive file for a period of _____ months. The contents of the inactive file shall be purged _____:
A. 6 months, monthly
B. 6 months, annually
C. 3 months, monthly
D. 12 months, biannually
- C. Maintained in the inactive file for 3 months, purged monthly (FR 5-9, 5.07 D.2)(Bonus information: The contents of the roll call and staff meeting files shall be retained in the active file as long as necessary to ensure that affected personnel have access to the information, or until the information is no longer current.)
- According to the Operations Manual, where would you ideally locate the command post at the scene of a high-risk incident?
A. It should be located outside the Kill Zone, but inside the Inner perimeter so that the TOPCOM has rapid access to the scene.
B. It should be located outside of the inner perimeter, but inside the buffer perimeter.
C. It should be located in the outer perimeter in a position which provides safe, rapid access, and is far enough away from the actual scene to allow Command personnel to remain emotionally detached.
D. It should be located outside of the outer perimeter but within a reasonable distance (within 2 miles) to the scene.
- Answer: C. It should be located in the outer perimeter in a position which provides safe, rapid access, and is far enough away from the actual scene to allow Command personnel to remain emotionally detached (OM 7-18, Chapter 4 C.2)
.This question pertains to Internal Investigations
Which of the following statements regarding citizen complaint processing is false?
a. Complainants requesting to file a complaint shall not be turned away in the absence of a supervisor.
b. Complainants shall not be required to appear at a Department installation to initiate a complaint.
c. Complainants may not remain anonymous, except in cases of reported sexual misconduct by Department personnel.
d. Complainants should not be instructed to contact BIPS directly.
4.C. is false, Complainants may remain anonymous; however, a reasonable effort to obtain identification should be made. AR 4-25.06 B 3
- This question pertains to Work Zone Management.
As a shift supervisor you are required to provide supervision to members assigned to work zone details to ensure patrol vehicles are properly positioned. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the positioning of patrol vehicles?
a. While stationary and conducting queue monitoring protection, members shall position the patrol vehicle approximately one quarter mile prior to the last vehicle in the queue.
b. While stationary and conducting queue monitoring protection, members shall position the vehicle with emergency lights activated, and headlights on during nighttime hours.
c. While stationary and conducting queue monitoring protection, members shall not park or position patrol vehicles behind a Truck Mounted Attenuator (TMA) within the activity area of a work zone, nor shall they park or position patrol vehicles within 100 feet in front of the TMA.
d. While stationary and conducting queue monitoring protection, members shall position the patrol vehicle either on the berm or in the median, facing traffic when practical.
5.B is not true, headlights are to be turned off during nighttime hours. (FR 6-17.05 A 1) While stationary and conducting queue monitoring protection, members shall position the patrol vehicle approximately one quarter mile prior to the last vehicle in the queue, either on the berm or in the median, facing traffic when practical, with emergency lights activated, and headlights on during daytime hours and off during nighttime hours
- Which of the following statements pertaining to the Notification of Line-of-Death or Serious Injury of Personnel is true?
a. When possible, the notification team shall consist of the Troop Commander or Bureau/Office Director of the deceased or injured personnel and a peer contact.
b. Notification team members shall travel together in a vehicle to ensure the team is not separated, delaying the notification.
c. Notifications of death or serious injury shall be made in person and as quickly as possible.
d. Notification team members shall not provide details of the incidents or occurrence during initial contact of family members. - All statements are accurate
- b & c, are accurate, a & d, are not.
- a & c, are accurate, b & d, are not.
- b, c, & d, are accurate, a, is not.
- b & d, are accurate, a & c, are not.
- Answer: 3 is correct (a & c, are accurate, b & d, are not)
AR 4-29.06 Procedures
* Notifications of death or serious injury shall be made in person and as quickly as possible.
* A team approach shall be utilized. Whenever possible, the notification team shall consist of the Troop Commander or Bureau/Office Director of the deceased or injured personnel and a peer contact.
Notification team members shall travel in separate vehicles to afford them the opportunity of conducting separate tasks.
* Provided as many details that are available.
NOTE:
The individual’s name shall be used when making the notification. Do not use terms such as your husband, daughter, etc.
If the individual is deceased, that information shall be relayed. NEVER give a false sense of hope. Use words such as died, dead, or was killed. Do not use phrases such as passed away, is gone, or is no longer with us
- Generally, a PIT maneuver executed under favorable conditions at speeds not exceeding _____ mph will cause a controlled and predictable spin of the fleeing vehicle, resulting in a safe termination of the pursuit.
A. 50
B. 45
C. 60
D. 35
. B. 45 MPH (FR 6-10)
- Which of the following scenarios qualifies to have a member escort assigned for security purposes?
A. A local bank making an night deposit in excess of $10,000.
B. Pennsylvania Farm show money drop of $1000.
C. Pennsylvania Lottery transport of funds exceeding $25,000.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
F. B only.
G. B & C only.
B only - Currency: Escorts for businesses and banks shall not be provided for the routine transfer of currency, unless the Department is directly responsible for the secure transport of such currency; i.e., Pennsylvania Farm Show money drops. (note that there is no mandate regarding $$ amount) (AR 7-2 2.03D)
Necessary, personal security/drivers will be provided to candidates for the Offices of Governor and Lieutenant Governor:
A. For a period of 90 days immediately prior to the primary election, provided the candidates have properly filed a petition for nomination.
B. At such time and locations as the respective candidates feel it is necessary to prevent any attempt to inflict bodily harm upon them.
C. Services will be provided on an equitable basis in terms of manpower and equipment to each qualified candidate, regardless of party affiliation.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
F. A & C only.
G. A & B only.
G – A & B only - State Candidates: Necessary, personal security/drivers will be provided to candidates for the Offices of Governor and Lieutenant Governor, at such times and locations as the respective candidates feel is necessary to prevent any attempt to inflict bodily harm upon them. This service will be available to candidates for a period of 90 days immediately prior to the primary election, provided the candidates have properly filed a petition for nomination. (AR 7-2 2.05 D)
. According to FR 1-5 (Officer Involved Shootings/Serious Police Incidents), the purpose of the Public Safety Statement (PSS) from the involved member(s)/enforcement officer(s) is to:
A. Obtain critical information regarding the nature of the event at hand.
B. Ascertain injuries, any dangers that might still exist for the community and for law enforcement members, and to prevent further harm.
C. Communicate essential investigative information such as the status and/or location of the suspect(s); the location of evidence which needs to be protected; the name(s)/location of witness(es) who needs to be isolated and interviewed; and the parameters of the incident scene.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above (FR 1-5 5.04 E.3)
- Criminal/Administrative interviews of an involved member/enforcement officer shall not be conducted during the ___ hours following the incident unless circumstances warrant an earlier interview as authorized by the _____________; or the involved member/enforcement officer requests an earlier interview:
A. 24 hours; Commanding Officer or Bureau/Office Director
B. 48 hours; Area Commander
C. 48 hours; PSTA Representative
D. 72 hours; Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility
D. 72 hours; Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility (FR 1-5 5.06 A.2)
. Normally, a preliminary report completed by CARS shall be submitted ____ days from receipt of assignment:
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
C. 60 days (FR 6-11 11.08 6.B)
There are several steps listed on the Search and Rescue Checklist in Chapter 12 of OM 7-1. After conducting a thorough initial investigation to determine all essential facts and determining the last known position of the missing person, members are to conduct a ____________ of the immediate area where the person was last seen.
A. Methodical search
B. Systematic search
C. Hasty search
D. Examination of topographical features
Answer C, Hasty search. Although this is not to suggest the search is done without planning or deliberation. Hasty searches are aimed at high-probability areas where the subject might easily be found. For example, if a child is reported missing from their home, search the entire house, including basement, yard, and surrounding areas. Similarly, if a person is reported missing from a park area, immediately search the area where they were last seen and other nearby locations such as concession stands, restrooms, etc. Marked trails and roadways are other examples of prime areas to search during the initial, hasty search. (Chapter 12 and the Search and Rescue Checklist would be a good one to study if you are fortunate enough to move on to the oral boards)
- True or False: Requests for school searches will only be accepted by correspondence from the principal of the school, or the superintendent of the school district involved, to the Troop Commander where the school is located.
Answer False, Requests for school searches will only be accepted by correspondence from the principal of the school, or the superintendent of the school district involved, to the Director, Bureau of Emergency and Special Operations. The canine handler, in conjunction with their supervisor, will evaluate the legitimacy of the request in accordance with policy developed by the Bureau of Emergency and Special Operations, and in accordance with all applicable Department directives, regulations, and guidelines and all applicable law and court decisions. The request will only be honored when it has been determined that a demonstrated need has been established. Public relations type of requests cannot be honored. AR 7-7.08 D 3
- AR 4-5 permits three days sick bereavement leave for the death of a niece. True or false?
A. True
B. False
B. False- (AR 4-5 5.07 B 3.b) Death, as follows: Brother, sister, grandparent, grandchild, son in law, daughter in law, brother in law, sister-in-law, parent in law, grandparent in law, aunt, uncle, step grandparent, step grandchild, or any other relative residing in the individual’s household, for which a maximum of three days may be granted per occurrence. NOTE: Sick bereavement leave cannot be used for an aunt-in-law, uncle-in-law, cousin, niece, nephew, or any other relative not specified above unless the relative resides in the individual’s household
- According to AR 4-26, If immediate action is taken by an Equal Employment Opportunity Office Liaison prior to contacting the Director, EEO Office, notification shall be made to the Director as soon as practicable, but ________________.
A. Prior to the conclusion of your shift.
B. Within 48 hours.
C. No later than 1600 hours on the next business day.
D. Within 5 business days.
C. No later than 1600 hours on the next business day. (AR 4-26 26.06 G3) Consult with the Director, EEO Office before taking any action in response to any report of prohibited conduct, unless immediate action is necessary. NOTE: Certain situations may require immediate action against an alleged offender (e.g., physical contact, abuse). Immediate action may include, but is not limited to, the following: change of work location, change of shift, or a change of duty assignment. If immediate action is taken prior to contacting the Director, EEO Office, notification shall be made as soon as practicable, but no later than 1600 hours on the next business day.
- According to AR 7-18, a completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted directly to the DWC no less than ____________ prior to the commencement of certain law enforcement operations:
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 2 hours
D. 24 hours
C. 2 hours (FR 7-18 18.03 C) The completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted directly to the DWC no less than two hours prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation, to ensure there is sufficient time for the DWC to enter the data into the RISSafe system and notify all affected parties in the event of a conflict. If circumstances occur during the course of an investigation which makes it impractical to meet this time frame, the completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted to the DWC as soon as possible. (Reminder, these are the categories for which a submission is required: Service of a search warrant, excluding administrative warrants for business records, safe-deposit boxes, etc.; Purchase or sale of controlled substances, or any other undercover transaction; Service of an arrest warrant for felony drug offenses. Submissions MAY be forwarded for: Security event/dignitary security or Extended surveillance at a fixed location.)
- According to AR 9-3, the following minimum criteria must be met in order for the PA Amber Alert Plan to be activated:
A. The abducted person must be a child as defined by this regulation.
B. A photograph of the abducted child must be readily available.
C. Law enforcement must have reason to believe that the abducted child is in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or death.
D. A complainant must be present to sign the Missing Person Declaration Form.
- All of the above.
- A & C only.
- C only.
- A, C, and D only.
A & C only (AR 9-3 3.03 E) PA Amber Alert Plan: The PA Amber Alert Plan is a child abduction alert notification that alerts citizens and law enforcement of a child abduction through established transmissions, broadcasts, and/or other forms of public communications. The emergency alert provides descriptive information about the child and the perpetrator, if known, to law enforcement and the public, with the goal of enlisting support in the search efforts and safe recovery of the child. In order for the PA Amber Alert Plan to be activated, the following minimum criteria must be met:
1. The abducted person must be a child as defined by this regulation.
2. Law enforcement must have reason to believe that the abducted child is in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or death.
NOTE: Additional factors are considered in decisions regarding PA Amber Alert Plan activation. These factors include, but are not limited to: availability of descriptive information that could assist in the recovery of the child, time since the child was last seen, and the reliability of witnesses.
- There are certain phases to high risk incidents (e.g. barricaded gunmen, hostage) which should be identified and controlled as part of the police response. They are:
A. Immediate Assessment, Necessary action(s), Isolation, Containment, Evacuation, Planning, Negotiation, Resolution
B. Immediate Action, Identification, Containment, Evacuation, Planning, Negotiation, Resolution
C. Immediate Assessment, Isolation, Containment, Evacuation, Planning, Negotiation, Resolution
D. Immediate Action, Isolation, Containment, Evacuation, Planning, Negotiation, Resolution
D. Immediate Action, Isolation, Containment, Evacuation, Planning, Negotiation, Resolution (OM 7-18 Chapter 3 B.2)
- Firearms Instructors shall conduct a ___________ inspection of all Department weapons maintained in the Troop Weapons lockers and in the Troop Procurement and Supply inventory.
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Quarterly
C. Monthly (FR 9-2 2.04 C.4*) Conduct a monthly inspection of all Department weapons maintained in the Troop weapons lockers and in the Troop procurement and supply inventory. Upon completion of the inspection, Firearms Instructors shall sign the Weapons Maintenance Log, Form SP 6-301, in accordance with Department regulations. NOTE: Any weapon found to be dirty shall be properly cleaned by a Firearms Instructor. Any weapon found to be unsafe or in need of repair shall be forwarded to the applicable Troop Procurement and Supply Officer or the Procurement and Supply Division, Bureau of Staff Services, for its repair or replacement. Any weapon found to be missing shall be reported to the Staff Services Section Commander, who shall be responsible for ascertaining its location.
*FR 9-2 is only on the Corporal Reading List. Sergeant candidates can get this question wrong with no penalty, for those keeping score…
- Service attempts shall be made at least once every __ days for each warrant held by the Department.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
C. 60 days (AR 7-1 Appendage A B.45) SERVICE ATTEMPTS: Service attempts shall be made at least once every 60 days.
- Trooper Jones obtains an arrest warrant for an individual that resides in another Troop’s area. He transmits that warrant to that Troop for service. In doing so, which of the following step(s) are necessary?
A. The warrant and original copy of the report shall be forwarded directly to the applicable Station for service.
B. The Due Diligence of Warrant Service Report shall be prepared by the officer assigned to serve.
C. One copy shall be attached to the applicable investigative report or citation and filed.
D. A second copy shall be maintained alphabetically in the Central Warrant File at the serving Station
- All steps are necessary
- All except D
- All except C & D
- All except B & D
- All except B & D (AR 7-1 1.06 B.1) The Due Diligence of Warrant Service Report shall be prepared by the prosecuting officer. The warrant and original copy of the report shall be forwarded directly to the applicable Station for service. One copy shall be attached to the applicable investigative report or citation and filed. A second copy shall be maintained alphabetically in the Central Warrant File at the originating Station.
An offense under Section 5503, Disorderly Conduct, is a __________________, if the intent of the actor is to cause substantial harm or serious inconvenience, or if he persists in disorderly conduct after reasonable warning or request to desist.
a) Summary
b) Misdemeanor of the first degree
c) Misdemeanor of the second degree
d) Misdemeanor of the third degree
An offense under Section 5503, Disorderly Conduct, is a (d) misdemeanor of the third degree, if the intent of the actor is to cause substantial harm or serious inconvenience, or if he persists in disorderly conduct after reasonable warning or request to desist.
Under Section 5503, Disorderly Conduct: a public place would include which of the following?
a) Interstate 80
b) Walmart during normal business hours
c) Monroe County prison
d) Martz Trailways station
e) a, c and d
f) a and d
g) All of the above
(g) All of the above. The definition of the word “public” means affecting or likely to affect persons in a place to which the public or a substantial group has access; among the places included are highways, transportation facilities, schools, prisons, apartment houses, places of business or amusement, any neighborhood, or any premises which are open to the public.
According to AR 8-6, the sites for Selective Traffic Enforcement Program (STEP) are selected by:
A. Station Commander or Patrol Section Commander
B. Patrol Section Supervisor
C. Supervisor in charge of the detail
D. Troop Commander
D. Troop Commander (AR 8-6 6.03 C.2) Troop Commanders select sites for selective traffic enforcement, consistent with the goals of the selective traffic enforcement program. Site selection should be based, in part, on statistical analyses and visual surveys. However, consideration must also be given to the safety of the members involved and the motoring public.
The Non-Traffic Death Investigation Report shall be submitted within ______ of the initiation of the investigation.
A. 10 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
B. 14 days (OM 7-2 Chapter 46 F.) The report shall be submitted to the Criminal Investigation Section Commander within 14 days of the initiation of the investigation. (Homicide Report is 30 days)
A. Entered into evidence. (OM 7-2 Chapter 21 F)The original Custodial Written Statement and any continuation sheets shall be __________.
A. Entered into evidence.
B. Submitted with original DHQ copy of report.
C. Submitted with station copy of report.
D. Shredded.
A. Entered into evidence. (OM 7-2 Chapter 21 F)
Under the Corruption of Minors section of the Pennsylvania Crimes Code (Section 6301), An individual 18 years and older, by any act corrupts or tends to corrupt the morals of any minor less than 18 years of age, or aids, abets, entices or encourages any such minor in the commission of any crime, commits a misdemeanor of the first degree.
It is no defense that the actor did not know the age of the minor or reasonably believed the minor to be older than 18 years, if the minors actual age is under _________ .
a) 16 years
b) 14 years
c) 12 years
d) It does not matter how old the minor is, it is the actor’s responsibility to inquire about age
e) The affiant must prove the actor knew the individual was a minor
(a) 16 years is correct. Whenever in this section the criminality of conduct depends upon the corruption of a minor whose actual age is under 16 years, it is no defense that the actor did not know the age of the minor or reasonably believed the minor to be older than 18 years.
Under FR 7-2, Prisoner Security and Transportation: Members shall provide which of the following information to the Station when transporting a prisoner in a Department vehicle?
a) Destination
b) Sex of prisoner(s)
c) Arrest location
d) Starting and ending time
e) a and b
f) All of the above
.(f) All of the above is correct (But there is more information required). Members shall provide the following information to the Station when transporting a prisoner in a Department vehicle:
a) Arrest location and destination.
b) Number and sex of prisoners.
c) Starting and ending time.
d) Starting and ending mileage.
According to AR 4-4, reporting of work-related injuries (which result in leave usage of one or more days) shall occur within _____ days of the injury:
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
A. 2 days (AR 4-4 4.07 H. 5. B) Indemnity Claims: Injuries resulting in leave usage of one or more days. REPORTING SHALL OCCUR WITHIN TWO DAYS OF THE INJURY. Information sent via FAX will be received 24 hours a day, seven days a week
According to FR 6-11, Troop Collision Analysis and Reconstruction Specialists (CARS) shall schedule ___________ operational meetings for the Troop CARTs (Collision Analysis and Reconstruction Team):
A. Monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Semiannual
D. Annual
C. Semiannual (FR 6-11 11.07 B) Collision Analysis and Reconstruction Team (CART): CARSs and Technical Collision Investigators specializing in the investigation, analysis, reconstruction, and forensic mapping of vehicle crashes.
1. Meetings shall be structured in cooperation with the Collision Analysis and Reconstruction Unit, Bureau of Patrol.
2. Content and proficiency levels shall be preset.
3. Members incapable of maintaining proficiency shall lose their CARS/TCI status from the Department and shall no longer be a CART member.
4. The CARS conducting the meeting shall prepare correspondence to the Troop Commander advising of any member’s inability to maintain proficiency. A copy of the correspondence shall be forwarded, through channels, to the Collision Analysis and Reconstruction Unit, Bureau of Patrol.
According to AR 8-3, Operation CARE (Combined Accident Reduction Effort) activities shall be conducted during the following enforcement periods:
- Buckle Up America Week and Memorial Day.
- Independence Day.
- Labor Day.
- Thanksgiving.
- Operation CARE Lifesaver Weekend (weekend before Christmas).
A. All of the above.
B. 1 & 2.
C. 2, 3, and 5.
D. None of the above, Operation CARE is conducted at the discretion of the Troop Commander.
A. All of the above (AR 8-3 3.06B)
In determining whether an indoor marijuana growing operation is hazardous, which of the following conditions is not considered according to AR 9-1:
- Presence of unknown and/or improperly stored chemicals.
- Electrocution threat through the combined presence of standing water or wet conditions, grow lights, or other electrical devices.
- Prior law enforcement history with the resident(s) and/or locale.
- Visible mold or fungi, whether on walls, ceilings, plants, or other objects in the room.
- Prior law enforcement history with the resident(s) and/or locale. (AR 9-1 1.01 B)
In determining whether an indoor marijuana growing operation is hazardous, members shall determine whether the following conditions exist: - Presence of unknown and/or improperly stored chemicals.
- Electrocution threat through the combined presence of standing water or wet conditions, grow lights, or other electrical devices.
- Presence of warm, humid, wet, and/or improperly ventilated environments which significantly increase the possibility of fungi, toxic mold, bacteria, or other unhealthy air quality.
- Visible mold or fungi, whether on walls, ceilings, plants, or other objects in the room.
- Suspected countermeasures directed towards law enforcement personnel.
Which of the following information are Members REQUIRED to provide to the Station when transporting a prisoner in a Department vehicle?
A. Transport reason and destination, Number and sex of prisoners, Starting and ending time, Starting and ending mileage.
B. Arrest location and destination, Number and sex of prisoners, Starting and ending time, Starting and ending mileage.
C. Arrest location and destination, Number and last name(s) of prisoners, Starting and ending time, Starting and ending mileage.
D. Arrest location and destination, Number and names of all occupants, Starting and ending time, Starting and ending mileage.
B. Arrest location and destination, Number and sex of prisoners, Starting and ending time, Starting and ending mileage. (FR 7-2 2.04 B)
Weapons/Equipment Maintenance Logs shall be retained ______ and purged annually.
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Five years
D. Ten years
B. Two years. (AR 3-9 9.07 B)
Except for situations where it is impractical during the course of an investigation to meet the required time frame, the completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted directly to the DWC no less than ___________ prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation, to ensure there is sufficient time for the DWC to enter the data into the RISSafe system and notify all affected parties in the event of a conflict.
a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 2 hours
d) 2 hours – Is the correct answer: AR 7-18.03 C, The completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted directly to the DWC no less than two hours prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation, to ensure there is sufficient time for the DWC to enter the data into the RISSafe system and notify all affected parties in the event of a conflict. If circumstances occur during the course of an investigation which makes it impractical to meet this time frame, the completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form shall be submitted to the DWC as soon as possible.
The Regional Information Sharing System Officer Safety Event Deconfliction System (RISSafe) is a computer software application which records and stores information submitted by participating agencies concerning the location and time of pre-planned law enforcement operations, and automatically detects when two or more operations are planned within the same time period, at the same location, or in close proximity to each other.
- When shall members and enforcement officers submit a completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form, to the DWC for deconfliction purposes prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation:
a) When serving a search warrant, excluding administrative warrants for business records, safe-deposit boxes, etc.
b) When serving an arrest warrant for felony drug offenses
c) When serving an arrest warrant for a misdemeanor or above on a government official
d) When conducting the purchase or sale of controlled substances, or any other undercover transaction
e) All of the above
f) a, b and d
g) b and d
f) a, b and d – Is the correct answer: AR 7-18.03 A, Members and enforcement officers conducting the following law enforcement operations shall submit a completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form, Form SP 5-505 (Appendage A), to the DWC for deconfliction purposes prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation:
1. Service of a search warrant, excluding administrative warrants for business records, safe-deposit boxes, etc.
2. Purchase or sale of controlled substances, or any other undercover transaction.
3. Service of an arrest warrant for felony drug offenses.
NOTE: EXCEPTION: The requirements set forth in this regulation may be waived in instances when deconfliction is impractical due to exigent circumstances, or when it is reasonably believed that the deconfliction process would compromise an investigation. In either instance, the affected member or enforcement officer must first obtain the concurrence of the Troop Criminal Investigation Section Commander or operational Bureau/Office Section Commander or, in their absence, the Officer of the Day or next higher-ranking Commissioned Officer in the chain of command.
You have been designated by the Troop Commander to monitor a member who has been placed into the Early intervention Program. As such, some steps you should take include:
A. Meet with the identified member and discuss the behavioral factors which appear problematic. Afford him/her the opportunity to review the documentation that is relevant to their inclusion in the EIP.
B. Meet with the identified member and discuss the behavioral factors which appear problematic. Verbally summarize the documentation that is relevant to their inclusion in the EIP but do not allow direct review.
A. (AR 4-36 36.04 C.1 c) Meet with the identified member/enforcement officer and discuss the behavioral factors which appear problematic. During this meeting, the supervisor shall share with the member/ enforcement officer information relevant to the inclusion of the member/enforcement officer into the EIP. The member/enforcement officer shall also be afforded the opportunity during this meeting to review documentation that is relevant to the inclusion of the member/enforcement officer into the EIP.
According to FR 5-5, subpoenas shall only be accepted for personnel currently assigned to the location where the personal service attempt occurs.
A. True
B. False
A. True. (FR 5-5 5.09 A.1) Subpoenas shall only be accepted for personnel currently assigned to that location. If the person named in the subpoena is not currently assigned to the location where the subpoena is served, the server should be directed to the current process server location of the person named in the subpoena. Subpoenas for the Commissioner or Custodian of Records may be accepted at any location and shall be immediately forwarded to Department Headquarters, Right-to-Know/Subpoena Section. Subpoenas for separated personnel may be accepted at the former installation of such personnel.
You have been assigned to be the new Station Commander at the Troop X, Jabip station. According to Administrative Regulation 3-3, Storage and Security of Property, you must conduct and inventory of all property storage with the Custodial Officer, _______________ .
a) Immediately
b) Within 30 days
c) Within 60 days
d) Prior to the next scheduled line inspection
e) as soon as practicable
.b) within 30 days is the correct answer: According to AR 3-3.06, Upon assignment of a new Custodial Officer or a newly assigned Commander, an inventory of all property storage areas shall be made by the Custodial Officer and Commander within 30 days.
. 6 months after being assigned to be the Troop X, Jabip station Commander, your Custodial Officer comes to your and tells you that it appears that someone has been tampering with evidence in the station’s property room.
According to Administrative Regulation 3-3, Storage of Property, you must conduct and inventory of all property storage with the Custodial Officer, _______________ .
a) Immediately
b) Within 30 days
c) Within 60 days
d) as soon as practicable
e) after an Internal Investigation has been initiated and completed.
b) within 30 days is the correct answer: According to AR 3-3.06, If there is an indication of evidence being tampered with, an inventory of all property storage areas shall be made by the Custodial Officer and the appropriate Commander within 30 days.
According to Administrative Regulation 3-3, Storage and Security of Property, As the Troop X, Jabip Station Commander you shall conduct _________________, unannounced inspection(s) of all Jabip station property storage areas.
a) An annual
b) Two semiannual
c) Quarterly
d) Trick question, there are no unannounced inspections
.b) two semiannual is the correct answer: According to AR 3-3.06, Two semiannual, unannounced inspections of all property storage areas shall be conducted by the appropriate Commander in accordance with this regulation.
. If notice of cancellation is communicated to a member two or more hours prior to the start time of a work zone detail, the member will_____________________________. A telephone message left at the member’s telephone number of record with the Department two or more hours prior to the beginning of the member’s scheduled overtime assignment shall constitute notice of cancellation.
A. be entitled to compensation equal to 30 minutes at the members regular hourly rate, less deductions.
B. be entitled to compensation equal to 3 hours at the members regular hourly rate minus deductions.
C. be entitled to compensation equal to 1 hour at the members regular hourly rate minus deductions.
D. not be entitled to work or compensation.
.D. not be entitled to work or compensation. (FR 6-17 17.02 H.1)
Bonus Information: When notice of cancellation is not communicated to the member in accordance with the aforementioned provision, the member shall promptly be advised the overtime assignment has been cancelled. The member shall then elect to do one of the following:
a. Decline to work and be compensated for 30 minutes of the member’s regular hourly rate of pay, less applicable deductions.
b. Work four hours within the work zone providing queue monitoring or enforcement efforts as outlined in paragraph 17.01 of this regulation, and be compensated at the rate of time and one half of the member’s regular hourly rate of pay, less applicable deductions
According to AR 6-2, Right-to-Know Law, which of the following is not included in the definition of “Record”?
A. training materials
B. text messages
C. voice messages
D. emails
E. None of the above
E. None of the above (all are considered ‘records’) (AR 6-2 1.03 J) The term “record” includes without limitation written, printed, photocopied and electronically-generated documents, memoranda, reports, emails, correspondence, voice and text messages, audio and video recordings, photographs, images, diagrams, books, manuals, regulations, training materials, and other publications.
According to AR 3-3, Custodial Officers shall also sign the Receiving Officer-Badge No. block on the Property Record when accepting evidence from another member:
A. True
B. False
B. False (OM 7-2 Chapter 10 (Property Record) E.8) RECEIVING OFFICER—BADGE NO.: The member/enforcement officer receiving the property shall type or print their name and badge number. Custodial Officers shall not sign in this block; enter N/A if appropriate. (Custodial Officers receiving property will sign the item(s) directly into the PMS by placing their initials/badge number within block 26-CUSTODIAL OFFICER’S INIT./BADGE NO.).
According to FR 6-10, Police Pursuits, Legal Intervention, Roadblocks, Pennsylvania Police Pursuit Reporting System and Pursuit Analysis, if a police pursuit continues into another state and the appropriate agency has joined the pursuit:
A. pursuing members shall maintain the lead role in the pursuit.
B. pursuing members shall reduce their role to that of a secondary unit or support unit.
C. pursuing members from the appropriate agency shall maintain a unified command.
D. pursuing members shall disengage their pursuit and allow the appropriate agency to pursue.
B. pursuing members shall reduce their role to that of a secondary unit or support unit (FR 6-10 10.04 B.4) If a pursuit continues into another state and the appropriate agency from that state has joined the pursuit, the pursuing member(s) shall reduce their role to that of a secondary unit or a support role, as conditions permit.
SPECIAL ORDER DATED 10/25/24: PSP will not continue pursuits into NJ, DE, or MD, and will not join Pursuits from NJ, DE, or MD unless a PA Violation has occurred that would allow pursuit
If a supervisor has __________________ to believe that a member/enforcement officer reporting for work is under the influence of alcohol, the appropriate Commander/Director shall be notified; a ___________ shall be prepared/submitted; and an internal investigation shall be initiated.
A. Probable cause, Incident report
B. Reasonable suspicion, 201 to the member/enforcement officer’s Troop Commander/Bureau Director outlining the circumstances
C. Reasonable grounds, Blue Team Entry
D. Probable Cause, 201 to affected member placing them in a restricted status
C. Reasonable grounds, Blue Team Entry (FR 1-6 1.03 B) If a supervisor has reasonable grounds to believe that a member/enforcement officer reporting for work is under the influence of alcohol, the appropriate Commander/Director shall be notified; a Blue Team Entry shall be prepared/submitted; and an internal investigation shall be initiated. The member/enforcement officer shall be requested to submit to a breath/blood test.
EXCEPTION: If the member/enforcement officer uses a commercial driver’s license (CDL) in the performance of their duties, chemical testing and subsequent actions shall be conducted in accordance with AR 4-27, Drug and Alcohol Testing of Commercial Driver Licensed Personnel. If the member/enforcement officer refuses to take the test as requested, the member/enforcement officer shall be ordered to take the appropriate test. If the member/enforcement officer continues to refuse, the refusal shall be addressed during an internal investigation.
AR 6-1 states that the ___________________ shall initiate the Emergency Public Information Alert during situations that create immediate safety concerns for the public.
A. Press Office
B. Public Information Officer
C. Troop Commander/Officer of the Day
D. Deputy Commissioner of Operations
C. Troop Commander/Officer of the Day (AR 6-1 1.05 A.1) EMERGENCY PUBLIC INFORMATION ALERT: The Department recognizes that whenever incidents such as mass prison breaks, chemical or nuclear accidents, or terrorist activities occur, it is essential to immediately notify the public in order to provide a warning or elicit assistance. The Emergency Public Information Alert has been established to address these issues by requiring immediate notification of the Associated Press (AP) during emergency situations. Notification shall be made to the AP newsroom in Philadelphia, at 215-561-1133 to provide information about the emergency. The AP newsroom in Philadelphia is staffed 24 hours a day. The Troop Commander/Officer of the Day may delegate a spokesperson to initiate the alert process and provide additional information to the media, as it becomes available.
According to AR 4-41, the __________________ shall notify the Commander, Heritage Affairs Section (HAS), of any pre-planned community events involving minority and/or underserved community organizations that will be occurring in their assigned area, including any meetings with leaders from these communities. Notification to HAS shall be made no later than __________ prior to such events via email at ra-pspheritageaffair@pa.gov.
A. Troop Commander/Bureau Director; 24 hours
B. Troop Staff Services Section Commander; 72 hours
C. Troop Community Services Officer; 48 hours
D. Affected Recruitment Unit Supervisor; 5 days
C. Troop Community Services Officer; 48 hours (AR 4-41 41.04 D.1)
According to AR 6-1 (Department Information) personnel shall, upon request, provide information pertaining to a) any statement made by an accused; b) a refusal to give a statement or take a polygraph test; and c) results of any test(s) taken by the defendant.
A. True
B. False
.B. False (AR 6-1 1.04 A.1 g) Ensure information furnished to the public and news media does not include the existence of: (1) any statement made by the accused (2) a refusal to give a statement of take a polygraph test (3) results of any test(s) taken by the defendant. Note: In accordance with OM 7-2, Field Reporting, blood alcohol content (BAC) results, or a statement that an accused refused to submit to chemical testing, shall not be included from alcohol-related traffic incidents.
According to AR 4-9, a Pre-Disciplinary Conference (PDC) shall be held within ______ working days from the date a completed investigation or notification from a supervisor of performance deficiencies is reviewed by the Commander or Director.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
B. 10 days (AR 4-9 9.03 E.1)
According to AR 5-2, Commanders/Supervisors shall endeavor to recommend members who have volunteered to be an FTO and have at least _____ _____ of Patrol Unit experience.
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
C. 2 years (AR 5-2 2.04 F. 1)
Trooper Jones is assigned to investigate the theft of a 2007 Acura. As a result, a(n) _______________________________________ .
A. CLEAN Message is required to be sent to the Director, BCI, Attention Special Investigations Division/Auto Theft Section
B. CLEAN Message is required to be sent to the Commissioner, Deputy Commissioner of Operations, and Crime Section Commander
C. E-mail is required to be sent to the CLEAN administrative section requesting the vehicle be listed on the Hot Sheets
D. CLEAN Message is required to be sent to Director BCI, Attention Organized Crime Division
A. CLEAN Message is required to be sent to the Director, BCI, Attention Special Investigations Division/Auto Theft Section (AR 9-6 6.14 A) MOTOR VEHICLE THEFT/RECOVERY A. General: A CLEAN Message shall be sent to terminal “BCI221,” “ATTENTION: SPECIAL INVESTIGATIONS DIVISION/AUTO THEFT SECTION,” as soon as practicable, on all motor vehicle theft investigations and/or stolen vehicle recoveries. NOTE: Members assigned to the Bureau of Criminal Investigation, Special Investigations Division, Auto Theft Task Forces are exempt from this section.
As the primary Custodial Officer, you shall ensure the submitting member/enforcement officer has contacted the appropriate Financial Investigation/Asset Forfeiture Unit member for money seizures of __________ or more.
A. $1,000.00
B. $10,000.00
C. $100.00
D. $15,000.00
B. $10,000 (AR 3-3 3.03 B.6) Custodial Officers: Ensure the submitting member/enforcement officer has contacted the appropriate Financial Investigation/Asset Forfeiture Unit member for money seizures of $10,000 or more
Within a Troop, the Report Correction Notice original shall be attached to the report being returned. When received, appropriate corrections shall be made on the report. The corrected report and the notice shall be returned ________________________________________ .
A. upon completion of the shift during which the notice is received.
B. within two (2) days.
C. within five (5) business days.
D. covered in your tears.
A. upon completion of the shift during which the notice is received (OM 7-2 Chapter 32 D.1)
According to AR 9-30 (Sexual Offender Registration), a “neighbor” is defined as: Persons occupying both residences and places of employment within a _________ radius of a sexually violent predator’s residence, a sexually violent delinquent child’s residence, or a transient’s location; or the ______________ residences and places of employment in proximity to the sexually violent predator’s residence, a sexually violent delinquent child’s residence, or a transient’s location, whichever is greater.
A. 100-foot; 10 most immediate
B. 250-foot; 25 most immediate
C. 500-foot; 50 most immediate
D. 1,000-foot; 100 most immediate
B. 250-foot; 25 most immediate (AR 9-30 30.03 I)
According to FR 1-1, Members may enlist, reenlist, or accept a commission in any federal or state military organization only with the approval of ________________.
A. their Commanding Officer/Bureau/Office Director.
B. the Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility.
C. the Commissioner.
D. the Director, Bureau of Human Resources.
C. the Commissioner (FR 1-1 1.12 MILITARY ORGANIZATIONS) Members may enlist, reenlist, or accept a commission in any federal or state military organization only with the approval of the Commissioner.
O.M. 7-2, Chapter 7, states that during Operation Safe Highways Initiative through Effective Law Enforcement and Detection (SHIELD)/criminal enforcement vehicle stops in which evidence of a crime is discovered and prosecution is anticipated block 2 (Location – Zone) of the Incident Report/Incident Report – Part II shall include ______________________.
A. a description of the vehicle.
B. the direction of travel.
C. the color/make/model of vehicle stopped.
D. the applicable mile marker.
B. the direction of travel (OM 7-2 Chapter 7, D.10a.)
Supervisors have __________ from the time a member/employee submits a premium time entry(s) via the Systems, Applications, and Products (SAP) Cross-Applications Time Sheet (CATS) reporting system to approve or reject the entry(s). After ________, approvals/rejections can be done by either the supervisor or the reviewing officer.
A. 24 hours, 48 hours
B. 48 hours, 48 hours
C. 48 hours, 72 hours
D. 24 hours, 24 hours
B. 48 hours, 48 hours (FR 5-2 2.05 B) Supervisors have 48 hours from the time a member/employee submits a premium time entry(s) via the SAP CATS reporting system to approve or reject the entry(s). After 48 hours, approvals/rejections can be done by either the supervisor or the reviewing officer. *If the premium time entry(s) is not approved or rejected after 96 hours, it is automatically routed via SAP to the Time Advisor in the Personnel Services Office for appropriate action.
All recordings uploaded to MVR servers will be automatically deleted ________ after the date the recording was uploaded to the server. Therefore, recordings required to be duplicated/retained in accordance with FR 6-12 must be duplicated within ________ of the incident/recording. A request for duplication/retention of a recording after the automatic ______ deletion period cannot be processed.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 90 days
C. 45 days (FR 6-12 12.06 D) *NOTE: It is the responsibility of the requesting member to ensure that any MVR recording required to be duplicated/retained has been duplicated within 45 days of the incident/recording.
The Pennsylvania Department of Public Welfare ChildLine shall be contacted by the investigating officer at 1-800-932-0313 for assistance as soon as it becomes apparent that an accused delinquent in the custody of a member/enforcement officer may be held securely at a Department installation or elsewhere in excess of _________.
A. four hours
B. six hours
C. eight hours
D. 16 hours
B. six hours (FR 7-7 7.05 E.7) The Pennsylvania Department of Public Welfare ChildLine shall be contacted by the investigating officer at 1-800-932-0313 for assistance as soon as it becomes apparent that an accused delinquent in the custody of a member/enforcement officer may be held securely at a Department installation or elsewhere in excess of six hours. The secure holding of an accused delinquent in excess of six hours is a violation of Title 42, Section 6326(c). Therefore, no accused delinquent in custody shall be held in excess of six hours. Violations of the six hour limitation on holding accused delinquents in secure custody shall be reported to the Pennsylvania Department of Public Welfare ChildLine. If ChildLine cannot be reached, the PCCD back-up telephone number, 1-800 692 7292, is available Monday through Friday, 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. There is voice-mail coverage on this line. Provide the investigating officer’s name, telephone number, Station/District Office name and location, and the circumstances preventing the release or transfer of the juvenile. Once this information is received, assistance will be provided to resolve the situation.
Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs) between the PSP and school entities shall be retained _____________________.
A. for one year and purged annually.
B. for two years and purged annually.
C. for five years and purged biannually.
D. until renewed or cancelled.
D. until renewed or cancelled (OM 7-1 Chapter 15 E.2 Incidents Occurring on School Property).
The Department shall provide a copy of an investigative report, minus attachments, to the immediate family or department of a _______________, who has been killed in the performance of their duties. Members shall provide a copy of the investigative report for municipal police departments and fire departments within their Troop or Station area.
A. Police officer
B. Firefighter
C. Ambulance service or rescue squad member
D. A & B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above (AR 6-1 1.07 Release of Information B 3.e) NOTE: For the purpose of this regulation, immediate family includes parents, siblings, children, and spouse.
According to AR 8-6, Selective Traffic Enforcement Programs, civilian clothes patrol shall not be instituted without the prior authorization of the __________________________.
A. Patrol Section Supervisor or Station Commander
B. Patrol Section Commander
C. Troop Commander
D. Director, Bureau of Patrol
A. Patrol Section Supervisor or Station Commander (AR 8-6 6.09 B)
*Bonus Information:
Civilian clothes patrol may be utilized for the purpose of enforcing the provisions of the Vehicle Code in those areas where aggravated conditions exist which could be addressed by this method of enforcement.
A. Implementation: A civilian clothes patrol consists of a uniformed member operating an unmarked vehicle while temporarily concealing their uniform with civilian clothing. The civilian attire used shall be of a type that is easily and safely removed. In all cases, the member shall be in full uniform prior to exiting the vehicle and approaching the violator.
B. Authorization: Civilian clothes patrol shall not be instituted without the prior authorization of the Patrol Section Supervisor or Station Commander.
C. Documentation: Members issuing TraCS Traffic Citations or TraCS Philadelphia Traffic Citations as a result of enforcement action taken during civilian clothes patrol shall enter “Civilian Clothes Patrol” in the “Special Activity” block on each citation issued.
At all times, when visible while directing traffic or on the roadway controlling traffic, members shall:
A. Use the Department-issued flashlight with cone adapter.
B. Hold a flare to assist with traffic control.
C. Wear gloves to make your appearance more professional.
D. Wear the Department-issued high-visibility vest as the outermost garment.
D. Wear the Department-issued high-visibility vest as the outermost garment. (FR 6-13 13.04 A.9)
According to OM 7-2, Block 58 (A&B) of the Traffic Citation/TraCS Traffic Citation shall be marked “yes” if the Traffic Citation is issued to a juvenile for a violation of Section ________of the Vehicle Code and their parent or legal guardian have been notified.
A. 3362 (Maximum Speed Limits)
B. 3714 (Careless Driving)
C. 1543 (Driving While Operating Privilege Is Suspended or Revoked)
D. All of the above
C. 1543 (Driving While Operating Privilege Is Suspended or Revoked) (OM 7-2 Chapter 18 E 58A&B)
When a defendant has been arrested without a warrant in a criminal case and released per Rule 519, a complaint shall be filed within how many days?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days
B – Rules of Criminal Procedure, Rule 519
A suspect who is 18 years old has consensual sex with a 15 year old. Does this fit the requirement for statutory sexual assault?
a. Yes
b. No
B – Title 18, Section 3122.1 – if the victim is less than 16 years old, the defendant must be four years older than the victim to satisfy the requirements
A defendant is arrested for criminal mischief of a residential shed. The damage is estimated at $650. What grading is this crime?
a.Misdemeanor 1
b.Felony 3
c.Summary
d.Misdemeanor 3
D – Title 18, Section 3304 – Criminal mischief is a Misdemeanor 3 if the value is between $501 and $1,000.
A defendant steals a firearm valued at $250. What grading is this theft crime?
a. Felony 2
b.Felony 1
c.Misdemeanor 1
d.Misdemeanor 2
A – Title 18, Section 3903 – Grading is F2 if property stolen is a firearm
You are the shift supervisor and a Trooper approaches you and states that his nephew died and he would like to take Sick Bereavement days. How many days of SB is he eligible for?
a) None
b) 3 Days
c) 5 Days
d) 2 Days
A (none)– AR 4-5
. Interim EPRs shall be prepared for all individuals who receive a rating of:
a) Needs Improvement on any one factor on their EPR
b) Unsatisfactory on any one factor on their EPR
c) Overall rating of Needs Improvement on their EPR
d) Both B and C
.D – AR 4-22
Are you able to PIT a violator’s vehicle at speeds greater than 45 MPH?
a) Yes
b) No
A – FR 6-10 but greater caution should be considered
A Department pursuit statistic shall be submitted electronically via the PA Police Pursuit Report (PPPRS) no later than ____________ hours after the pursuit:
a) 48 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 72 hours
d) One week
.B (24 Hours)– FR 6-10
If you are supervising a member enrolled in the Early Intervention Program, how often must you complete the Early Intervention Program Evaluation Report?
a. Once a month
b. Semiannual
c. Quarterly
d. Yearly
(A) ONCE A MONTH– AR 4-36 – Early Intervention Program
Under no circumstances shall a sobriety checkpoint consist of less than ______________ members.
a. 3
b. 8
c. 5
d. 7
C (5)– FR 6-3 – Traffic Safety Checkpoints
A copy of the Public Information Release Report shall be kept on a clipboard in the Communications Unit for a period of __________ days, and then destroyed.
a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 45
B (30 days)– OM 7-2 – Public Information Release Report
Whenever the driver of a vehicle approaches an oncoming vehicle within _________ feet, the driver shall use the low beam of light. Whenever the driver of a vehicle approaches another vehicle from the rear within ______ feet, the driver shall use the low beam of light.
a. 300, 100
b. 300, 500
c. 500, 300
d. 100, 300
C -(500 oncoming, 300 rear)Title 75, Chapter 4306, Use of multiple-beam road lighting equipment
If you arrest someone for a violation (contempt) of a PFA in Judicial District A but the violation occurred in Judicial District B, what Judicial District should he be taken to first for arraignment if available?
a. Judicial District A (where you arrested him)
b. Judicial District B (where the violation occurred)
c. Either one, it doesn’t matter
B - Title 23, Chapter 6113, Protection from Abuse – Subsequent to an arrest, the defendant shall be taken by the police officer without unnecessary delay before the court in the judicial district where the contempt is alleged to have occurred.
If a member or a group of members is/are involved in a Critical Incident by definition and take(s) part in a Defusing session, who is this with?
a. A MAP Peer contact
b. A Mental Health Professional
c. Station Commander
d. Troop Commander
A (MAP peer Contact)– AR 4-28, Critical Incident Stress Management (A Debriefing is with a Mental Health Professional)
When badges, identification cards, and Department weapons are lost, stolen or damaged, personnel shall immediately submit what?
a. Department Correspondence, Form SP 3-201
b. Loss or Damage to Commonwealth Property or Equipment Report
c. A & B
C. – FR 4-1, Loss of or Damage to Commonwealth Property or Equipment
If you arrest someone for the charge of Strangulation for applying pressure to the throat or neck of another and the suspect strangled one of his/her family member, what is the grading? (No other higher grading stipulations are met)
a. Felony 2
b. Misdemeanor 2
c. Misdemeanor 3
d. Summary
A (felony 2)– Title 18, Chapter 2718, Strangulation
There are four levels of Personal Protective Equipment (A-D). What does level D consist of?
a. Normal Duty Uniform
b. Normal duty uniform with air-purifying respirator (APR).
c. Normal duty uniform with a chemical protective overgarment and APR.
A (normal duty uniform)– OM 7-3, Chapter 5, Personal Protective Equipment and Measures
Where do Troop members send Preliminary Breath Testing (PBT) Devices to get serviced and calibrated?
a. Outside vendor
b. Bureau of Patrol
c. Bureau of Criminal Investigations
d. Office of Chief Counsel
B (BOP) – OM 7-15, Chapter 6, Preliminary Breath Testing (PBT) Devices
By definition, a riot occurs if a suspect participates with _________ or more others in a course of disorderly conduct with intent to commit a felony or misdemeanor, prevent or coerce official action, or uses or plans to use a firearm or other deadly weapon.
a. Three
b. Five
c. Two
d. Seven
C (two)– Title 18, Chapter 55, Riot, Disorderly Conduct and Related Offenses (read carefully on this question)
When a person with a driver’s license moves from the address named on the license, such person shall within ___________ days notify PennDot of the change.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 10
d. 15
D (15 DAYS)– Title 75, Chapter 15, Section 1515
Perishable evidence, such as blood, physiological samples, tissue, and biological material, shall be submitted for laboratory analysis within ___________ hours after collection and shall be refrigerated prior to submission.
a) 24 hours
b) 72 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 5 days
C (48 hours)– OM 7-7, Chapter 4
When two members transport a single prisoner in a Department vehicle not equipped with a security screen, the prisoner shall be secured and seat belted____________.
a) In the front seat, passenger side with the accompanying member seated in the rear seat, passenger side.
b) In the rear seat, passenger side with the accompanying member seated in the rear seat, driver side.
c) In the rear seat, passenger side with the accompanying member seated in the front seat, passenger side.
B (rear seat passenger side, member in rear drivers side)– FR 7-2
You are assigned as the weapons/equipment locker supervisor upon your promotion. How often must you perform a Weapons/Equipment Maintenance Log to document weapons maintenance?
a) Once a year
b) Each month
c) Each quarter
d) Semiannual
B (each Month)– AR 3-9
As soon as practical, supervisors shall complete a BlueTeam entry for subordinates when any of the following occur:
a) The issued ECD is deployed
b) The issued pepper mace is deployed
c) The issued baton is used on any person
d) All of the above
D (all of the above) – FR 7-3
In order for the PA Amber Alert Plan to be activated, the following minimum criteria must be met:
1. The abducted person must be a child as defined by this regulation.
2. Law enforcement must have reason to believe that the abducted child is in imminent danger of serious bodily injury or death.
What is the definition of a child for the Amber Alert Plan?
a. Less than 16 years of age
b. Less than 21 years of age
c. Less than 18 years of age.
C (less than 18)– AR 9-3, Amber Alert Plan Child Abduction Notification System
You are the supervisor of a member who has been directly involved in a use of deadly force incident. In monitoring this member for possible signs of PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder), you need to be aware of the following;
A. Symptoms typically begin four to six months after a traumatic incident.
B. Symptoms should be present for at least a one month duration.
C. Symptoms may include numbing, withdrawal and avoidance.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
F. B & C only
F. B & C only (AR 4-28 28.04 E) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): The medical diagnosis of a post-traumatic stress disorder characterized by at least a one-month duration of all the following symptoms, which typically begin two to three months after a critical or traumatic incident:
1. Excessive excitability and arousal.
2. Numbing, withdrawal, and avoidance.
3. Repetitive intrusive memories or recollections of the trauma and/or events related to the trauma.
A Critical Incident Stress Debriefing focuses on the facts of the critical incident.
A. True
B. False
B. False (AR 4-28 28.04 B) Critical Incident Stress Defusing and Debriefing Process (CISD): A process involving defusings and debriefings which are based on crisis intervention theory and educational intervention theory. This process is designed to mitigate the psychological impact of a traumatic event, thus preventing the subsequent development of post-traumatic stress disorder. In addition, the CISD serves as an early identification mechanism for individuals who will require additional intervention subsequent to the traumatic event.
NOTE: The defusing or debriefing is not to be confused with an after-action review or an incident critique. While these types of debriefings focus on the finding of fact, the CISD is conducted to address the emotional and psychological needs of affected personnel. The events of a CISD are highly confidential. Therefore, only affected personnel may attend. Notes or records shall not be made by any personnel present during the CISD, except that a record of attendance shall be prepared by MAP personnel. At no time will information divulged in the course of the CISD be requested by, or provided to, any other Department personnel.
When a DUI offense is investigated, and the BAC of the subject is determined to be 0.00 percent, and/or all other drug tests are negative, the incident disposition shall be documented as ___________ in the appropriate fields on the corresponding Incident Report/Incident Report—Part II or Continuation Sheet/Supplemental Investigation Report.
A. Cleared by Arrest
B. Unfounded
C. Exceptionally Cleared
D. DUI Only
B. Unfounded (OM 7-2 Chapter 28 D.5 Intoxication Work Sheet)
You assist a trooper in transporting a prisoner from the county correctional facility to District Court for a preliminary hearing.
According to FR 7-2, when would you take off a prisoner’s handcuffs?
A. Prior to entry into the court facility
B. Do not take off the handcuffs unless directed to by authorized court personnel (e.g. MDJ)
C. Prior to the beginning of the hearing inside the courtroom
D. Upon request of defense counsel
E. Never
B. Do not take off the handcuffs unless directed to by authorized court personnel (e.g. MDJ) (FR 7-2 2.04 H.1)Court Facilities: When a prisoner is transported to a court facility, members shall not remove handcuffs/restraints upon arrival at the facility unless directed to do so by authorized court personnel; e.g., a Magisterial District Judge.
The following statements regarding checkpoints may or may not be accurate:
A. Regulatory checkpoints require a minimum of three members and a supervisor.
B. Regulatory checkpoints shall stop traffic in one direction only.
C. Sobriety checkpoints shall only be conducted at PennDOT approved sites.
D. Sobriety checkpoints shall consist of no less than five members.
- All statements are accurate
- A & D are accurate, B & C are not
- D is accurate, all others are not
- C is accurate, all others are not.
- B is accurate, all others are not.
D is accurate, all others are not. Regulatory checkpoints require a minimum of 2 members and supervisor; traffic may be stopped in both directions; Patrol Section/Station commanders chose sites of sobriety checkpoints. (FR 6-3)
Copies of Public Information Release Reports disseminated as advance notice of a Sobriety Checkpoint are retained for:
A. 30 days
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
2 years (FR 6-3 3.04 G) (Copies of the Public Information Release Report, Form SP 1-518, listing the media sources to which the information was released, and newspaper clippings/articles shall be retained for a period of two years to document that advance notice was provided. It shall be attached to the Station copy of the Traffic Safety Checkpoint Report.)
Which of the following is NOT a priority that shall always be addressed by the Incident Command System in an emergency response situation:
A. Incident Stabilization
B. Life Safety
C. Incident Resolution
D. Property Conservation
E. All are priorities
C. Incident resolution is not one of the priorities, OM 7-1, Chapter 4, G (Incident Priorities)
Members and enforcement officers conducting WHAT law enforcement operations shall submit a completed RISSafe Event Deconfliction Form, Form SP 5-505 (Appendage A), to the DWC for deconfliction purposes prior to the commencement of the law enforcement operation:
A. Service of a search warrant, excluding administrative warrants for business records, safe-deposit boxes, etc.
B. Purchase or sale of controlled substances, or any other undercover transaction.
C. Service of an arrest warrant for felony drug offenses.
D. Security event/dignitary security.
E. Extended surveillance at a fixed location.
A, B, C are shall / D and E is may
RISSafe =
A. Ready to Ignite Some Safety
B. Read all Instruction before Shit Show
C. Regional Information Sharing System Officer Safety Event Deconfliction System
D. Nothing… It’s made up
Regional Information Sharing System Officer Safety Event Deconfliction System
A _____________________________ is the preferred method when responding to emergencies of a multiagency or multi-jurisdictional nature.
A. Unified Command Structure
B. Single Command
C. Incident Command System
D. Free for All
Unified Command Structure
ICS requires all plans to address ___________ and _______________.
A. Lunch and television
B. Strategic Goals and Tactical Objectives
C. Organizational Structure and Emergency Activities
D. MAP and SEAP
Strategic goals and tactical objectives
Prison Riot……. What would be the Strategic Goal? What is the Tactical Objective(s)?
A. Regain Control
B. Activate SERT
C. Provide Aid
D. Secure Outer Perimeter
Goal = regain control / objectives = SERT Aid and Perimeter
TRUE or FALSE - The Major Components of the Incident Command System are… Common Terminology / Modular Organization / Integrated Communications / Command Structure / Span of Control / Consolidated Action Plan / Designated Incident Facilities / Comprehensive Resource Management
- Incident priorities are…
A. Life Safety is the first priority
B. Life Safety / Lunch / Property Conservation
C. Life Safety / Incident Stabilization / Property Conservation / Restore traffic flow
D. Pass along to the relieving shift
Life Safety / Incident Stabilization / Property Conservation / Restore traffic flow
You are assigned as the new primary Custodial Officer… How much time do you have to complete a joint inventory of all property storage with the appropriate Commander?
A. 60 Days
B. 90 Days
C. 30 Days
D. 6 months
30 days
TRUE or FALSE - The Major Components of the Incident Command System are… Common Terminology / Modular Organization / Integrated Communications / Command Structure / Span of Control / Consolidated Action Plan / Designated Incident Facilities / Comprehensive Resource Management
True
You are the primary Custodial Officer at your station… How much time do you have to complete a joint inventory of all property storage with your brand new Station Commander?
A. 30 days from the new Commanders assignment
B. 6 months
C. Strelish Time
D. 90 Days from the new Commanders assignment
30 days
You are assigned as a Patrol Supervisor at Troop K Philadelphia. You have been assigned to manage the active and inactive roll call folders. You know that information that is no longer active shall be retained for _________ month(s) in the inactive folder and purged __________.
a. 2, monthly.
b. 1, monthly.
c. 3, weekly.
d. 3, monthly.
D AR 5-9
Subpoena Duces Tecum are handled by _________.
A. Right-to-Know Law/Subpoena Section (Bureau of Records and Identification)
B. Your immediate Supervisor
C. Troop Commanding Officer / Bureau Director
D. The Shredder
RTKL/Subpoena Section Bureau of R and I
A subpoena were the parties are identified as “Plaintiff” and “Defendant” is considered a __________ subpoena.
A. Criminal
B. Federal
C. Civil
D. Administrative
C civil
Subpoenas received by fax shall be rejected unless it is faxed on behalf of the prosecuting attorney… True or False
True (FR 5-5: Subpoenas and Court Appearances
File Integrity - Section and Station Commanders shall designate a Noncommissioned Officer to ensure the Central Warrant File is spot checked at least ______ for accuracy.
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Every 60 days
D. Whenever Brislin feels like it
A. Monthly
UCR code numbers are a guide to severity, with ___ being the most serious, and ___ the least serious.
A. 010 / 999
B. 01A / 260
C. 000 / 999
D. 999 / 260
B. 01A / 260 OM 7-2 Chapter 3
Interstate Warrants: It is the policy of the Pennsylvania State Police (PSP) to honor requests for warrant service from law enforcement agencies outside the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania only when received via _____________ or ____________________.
A. CLEAN Message / United State Postal Service
B. CLEAN Message / telephone
C. USPS / telephone
D. E-Mail / PSP Form ID10T
A. CLEAN and USPS AR 7-1 Warrant Service
AR 4-28, Critical Incident Stress Management, requires all Department personnel who participate in any manner with a critical or serious police incident to attend a _______ facilitated by a Member Assistance Program (MAP) Peer Contact.
A. Debriefing
B. Meeting
C. After Action Review
D. Defusing
D. Defusing
Affected personnel may also be required to attend a _______ with a qualified mental health professional and/or a certified critical-incident stress counselor at the discretion of the MAP Peer Contact or as otherwise directed in AR 4-28.
A. Debriefing
B. Meeting
C. After Action Review
D. Defusing
A. Debriefing
Normally, the defusing/debriefing should occur within ______ following the incident.
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 5 working days
B 72 hours
Following a serious police incident… A member involved shall be placed on Administrative Duty and to the oversight of MAP…
Criminal/Administrative interviews of an involved member/enforcement officer shall not be conducted during these ______ unless circumstances warrant an earlier interview as authorized by the Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility; or the involved member/enforcement officer requests an earlier interview.
A. 72 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. No set time limit
A. 72 hours
A Critical Incident Stress Debriefing focuses on the facts of the critical incident.
A. True
B. False
. B. False (AR 4-28 28.04 B) Critical Incident Stress Defusing and Debriefing Process (CISD): A process involving defusings and debriefings which are based on crisis intervention theory and educational intervention theory. This process is designed to mitigate the psychological impact of a traumatic event, thus preventing the subsequent development of post-traumatic stress disorder. In addition, the CISD serves as an early identification mechanism for individuals who will require additional intervention subsequent to the traumatic event.
NOTE: The defusing or debriefing is not to be confused with an after-action review or an incident critique. While these types of debriefings focus on the finding of fact, the CISD is conducted to address the emotional and psychological needs of affected personnel. The events of a CISD are highly confidential. Therefore, only affected personnel may attend. Notes or records shall not be made by any personnel present during the CISD, except that a record of attendance shall be prepared by MAP personnel. At no time will information divulged in the course of the CISD be requested by, or provided to, any other Department personnel.
According to OM 7-15, in the event that a Portable Breath Test (PBT) device malfunctions, it shall be placed in its original case and returned to _________________ for service.
A. Central Supply
B. Troop Procurement & Supply (P&S) Officer
C. Bureau of Patrol
D. the manufacturer
C. Bureau of Patrol (OM 7-15 Chapter 6 C.2) In the event that an instrument malfunctions, it shall be forwarded to the Bureau of Patrol for service. The device shall be packaged in the original case and sent through Department mail.
True or False. As per the definition of “dwelling” in Title 18, any building or structure, including any attached porch, deck or patio which is for the time being the home or place of lodging of the actor is defined as a “dwelling?”
a. True.
b. False , this definition is that of a “residence.”
A-True Title 18 Chapter 5
Trooper Abbondanza is assigned to take a theft from vehicle report where he meets Joseph Brown. Mr. Brown advises he is temporarily staying with his sister because his home is being renovated following a flood. Where should the temporary address should be listed on the report?
A. The narrative of the report
B. Block 5 (NAME – ADDRESS – HOME PHONE) of the initial report
C. Block 6 (EMPLOYER NAME – ADDRESS – WORK PHONE) of the initial report
D. Temporary addresses do not need to be listed in the report
A (narrative of report) (OM 7-2 Chapter 1 page 6)
Reports that include juveniles listed as ________________ must contain the word “”JUVENILE” shall be stamped/printed in red, in the upper
Right hand corner or an “X” shall be placed in the Juvenile box.
A. Suspect
B. Accused
C. Runaway
D. Victim
E. All of the above
F. A and B only
G. A, B, C only
G (A,B, C: not victim) (OM 7-2 Chapter 1 page 10)
What would the appropriate race code be for a person who is from the country of India?
A. W (White)
B. I ( Indian)
C. A (Asian or Pacific Islander)
D. B (Black)
C (OM 7-2 Chapter 1 page 7)
You are assigned as the criminal investigation supervisor and you receive a request from the NTSB to have PSP criminal investigator’s interview survivors of a plane crash who have been flown to a hospital near your station. What report would you document the interviews on?
A. Assignment Report
B. Initial Report
C. General Investigation Report
D. Crash Report
C (OM 7-2 Chapter 23, page 1)
. At the same crash(plane crash) Cpl Jones is requested by the NTSB to provide four members to assist the airport police with securing the scene. What report should be completed for this assignment?
A. Assignment Report
B. Initial Report
C. General Investigation Report
D. Crash Report
A (OM 7-2 Chapter 6, page 1) (Again a change due to CAD/RMS but this is what the manual currently reads)
In cases where a shield trained member conducts a vehicle search and no contraband is found, a copy of the assignment report shall be sent to ____?
A. Director, BCI
B. Director, Bureau of Patrol
C. The member’s Troop Commander/ Bureau Director
D. Director, Early Intervention Office
E. Director, DDLE
B (director BOP) (OM 7-2 Chapter 6, page 13)
Trooper Canepa is assigned to investigate a string of Criminal Mischief incidents that occurred over the weekend. There were 15 incidents where garage door windows had been damaged with BB’s in North Whitehall Township and there were 7 incidents where garage door windows had been damaged with BB’s less than a mile away in Washington Township. All the crimes occurred within 2.5 miles of each other. According to the Operations Manual How many incident numbers should Trooper Canepa take to document these crimes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Twenty-two
D. Three
B (two) (OM 7-2 Chapter 7 page 4)
Trooper Judge is a criminal investigator assigned to investigate a report of a Missing Person. Upon further investigation he determines that Jane Brown is being reported missing by her husband who reports he has not seen his wife since yesterday. The marital property has obvious signs of a struggle. Trooper Thomas of FSU points out that there is an outline of dust in the basement which suggests a rug was recently removed from the basement and three droplets of blood are located on the edge of the area just beyond where the rug was. According to the Operations Manual what report would be used to document Trooper Judge’s investigative actions?
A. Homicide Investigation Report/ Homicide Action Report
B. Initial Report
C. Assignment Report
D. None of the above
A (homicide action report) (OM 7-2 Ch 7 & 45)
A Felony Crimes Against the Person checklist is required for all of the below except_________________?
A. Rape
B. Aggravated Assault
C. Robbery
D. Homicide
E. All of the above are required to have a FCAP checklist
D Homicide (OM 7-2 Chapter 8)
. Trooper Colleen Shelly is assigned to investigate the disappearance of Mr John Bean. After two years of investigation and documenting her efforts the trail has gone cold. Lt Charles Rodgers who is the Crime section Commander has refused to allow the investigation to be terminated. How often must this report be supplemented?
A. At least every 60 Days
B. At least every 6 months
C. At least every year
D. None of the above
C (yearly) (OM 7-2 Chapter 12.1 and FR 7-1)
According to the OM 7-2, all active investigations require submission of a supplemental report by the investigator within ___days after assignment, and within each ______ days thereafter until the investigation is terminated.
A. 60/ 60
B. 60/ 120
C. 30/ 60
D. None of the above
A (60/60) (OM 7-2 Chapter 12)
When preparing the 10 Day Daily report, The Daily Report of Activities automatically defaults to the member’s primary Job Code. Members who are designated as alternates in a specialty position shall use the alternate Job Code whenever _____________ is spent perform specialty function.
A one hour or more of any shift
B two hours or more of any shift
C one half or more of any shift
D their entire shift
Answer C (half of shift or more) (OM 7-2 Chapter 14.2)
Under which of the following situations may a Non-Traffic Citation be prepared?
A. When a summary offense is committed in conjunction with another offense amounting to a misdemeanor or felony and filed in
the same complaint.
B. When a private complaint has been filed for a crime reported to, and being investigated by, a member or enforcement officer
who has not instituted criminal proceedings.
C. When a private complaint is filed, the summons is subsequently ignored, and the district justice requests that a member or enforcement officer serves the warrant
D. None of the above
Answer D (OM 7-2 chapter 30) Each is specifically mentioned when listing when not to prepare an NTC
Trooper Holland is assigned to investigate a report of a juvenile wandering in a busy street on a 3-11 shift. As Trooper Holland approaches the juvenile, he sees the juvenile throw two rocks at a mail box. Upon making contact with the juvenile, Trooper Holland determines that the juvenile is 13 years old and has a BAC of 0.02%. Trooper Holland confers with his supervisor and a decision is made to handle the criminal mischief of the mail box and the Under Age Drinking investigations internally with no prosecution (Handled within the Department). How many NTCs shall Trooper Holland Prepare for the criminal mischief and underage drinking offenses?
A. One (total)
B. Two (total)
C. None –no report is necessary
D. None of the above
A (OM 7- chapter 30) The regulation reads in part:
3. When the defendant is a juvenile and a juvenile disposition code is selected from categories 1 through 5, only one Non Traffic Citation shall be prepared for multiple offenses. The additional incident numbers and/or charges shall be listed in Block 56.
What is put in Block 51 (Victim’s Name) on a Non-Traffic Citation when a Commonwealth agency is the victim?
A. Commonwealth of PA
B. Pennsylvania State Government
C. Pennsylvania
D. The agency name
Answer: D (OM 7-2 Chapter 30)
According to the AR when a super load will be delayed as a result of the company not being ready to move at the date and time specified on the permit, the company must:
A. Contact the station assigned to do the escort and reschedule the move
B. Contact the Bureau of Patrol and reschedule the move
C. Contact PENNDOT and apply for a supplemental permit
D. Pay a fine equal to one half the cost of the permit and then reschedule the move with the Bureau of Patrol
Answer: C (contact PENNDOT and apply for supplemental permit) AR 8-10, page 2
According to AR 8-10, motorcycles ___________________ used to escort a super load.
A. shall not
B. should not routinely be
C. may be used
D. may be used only with the approval of the troop commander
E. B & D
A AR 8-10, page 4 SHALL NOT
According the AR, the sites for Selective traffic enforcement programs are selected by:
A. The station commander or patrol section commander
B. The patrol section supervisor
C. The supervisor in charge of the detail
D. The troop commander
D (troop commander) AR 8-6, page 2
Trooper Ryan is investigating a 2 vehicle crash. He obtains a statement from Joe Johnson, the brother of operator 1. Joe Johnson tells Trooper Ryan that his brother was racing another car on the interstate. When they rounded the curb, his brother lost control and they crashed into a disabled vehicle on the shoulder. At one point Joe Johnson looked at the speedometer and it indicated a speed of 120 MPH. Trooper Ryan gets Joe Johnson to write this on a victim/ witness statement form. Trooper Ryan is informed by the hospital that the occupant of the disabled vehicle died as a result of the injuries she sustained in the crash. Where should the original statement go when the initial submission of the crash report is corrected?
A. Attached to the Police copy of the crash report
B. Forwarded to DHQ with the PENNDOT copy of the crash report
C. Placed in the crash attachment file
D. Placed in evidence
E. Attached to the General Investigation Report
D (evidence) OM 7-2 Chapter 44
Patrol Unit members Trooper Everk and Trooper Green are dispatched to the report of gunshots inside the residence at 123 Main Street. They arrive at 1100 hours and find the front door to the residence open. Inside the doorway, they find the body of the victim with multiple gunshot wounds to the head. The victim is dead. Crime unit members Trooper Getz and Trooper McFadden arrive at the scene at 1122 hours. Trooper Judge arrived at 1125 hours, and Sgt Skelton assigns Trooper Judge to be the lead investigator in the case. According to the OM 7-2 what time would be entered on the Homicide investigation report in the block “Date/ Time Investigator Arrived?
A. 1125
B. 1122
C. 1100
D. None of the above
A (1125) (OM 7-2 Chapter 45 page 3)
Within how many days must a Homicide Investigation Report be submitted to the Criminal Investigation Section Commander?
A. 30 days from the date of offense
B. 30 days from the initiation of the investigation
C. 15 days from the initiation of the investigation
D. 60 days from the initiation of the investigation
Answer B (30 days) (OM 7-2 Chapter 45 page 6)
Trooper Webb is assigned to investigate an assault where the victim was severely beaten. Trooper Webb completes an incident report documenting his investigative actions into this aggravated assault. Approximately 6 weeks after the initial assault the victim dies as a direct result of the beating received in the assault. How should Trooper Webb continue to document his investigative efforts?
A. The case shall be reported on a Homicide Investigation Report, with the original Incident Report as an attachment.
B. A new Incident Report Part I shall be prepared listing Criminal Homicide as an offense
C. Since the death occurred more than 30 days from the date of the incident, it shall be referenced on a supplemental report to the aggravated assault.
D. None of the above.
A (Homicide Investigation Report, with the original Incident Report as an attachment) (OM 7-2 Chapter 45)
According to the Operations Manual who may determine which checklists are required for homicides originally reported on a Non-Traffic Death Report?
A. The Primary Investigator
B. The Criminal Investigation Section Commander
C. The Director, BCI
D. The supervisor in charge of the investigation
D (OM 7-2 Chapter 45) Note this is the case for both deaths originally reported on Non-Traffic Deaths as well as assaults reported as aggravated assaults that later become homicides.
The Non-Traffic Death Investigation Report shall be submitted to the Criminal Investigation Section Commander within ____?
A. One day
B. Two Days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
D 14 days (OM 7-2 chapter 46)
. In a reportable crash, what must be on the Public Information Release Report according to the operations manual?
A. Information on the use of safety restraint systems by all drivers & front seat passengers.
B. Information on the use of safety restraint systems by children under four years of age.
C. Information on the use of safety restraint systems by children four years of age and younger.
D. A & B
E. A & C
D (A&B, all drivers and front seat passengers, and children under 4)
According to the Operations Manual, requests from television and radio stations for the services of a member to broadcast live or record routine road and weather conditions shall be____?
A. honored, whenever possible, with the approval of the Troop Commander, Station Commander, or designee.
B. referred to the troop Public Information Officer when available and the Officer of the Day outside normal business hours. The Officer of the Day shall evaluate the appropriateness of the request and determine whether or not to honor the request. C. politely declined
D. honored; however, the interviews shall not be done inside Commonwealth property
A honored when possible with approval of commander (OM 7-2 Chapter 48 page 2)
A copy of the Public Information Release Report shall be kept on a clipboard at the communications desk for a period of______?
A. one week and then destroyed
B. 15 days and then destroyed
C. 30 days and then destroyed
D. 60 days and then destroyed
C 30 days
When an offense occurs within what distance may you file charges in either Magisterial District Court?
a. 100 yards
b. 100 feet
c. 1000 yards
d. 1000 feet
A PA Rules of Criminal Procedure Rule 130 (5)
You have arrested a person for forgery and have brought him back to the station. You sit down to interview the person and he tells you he wants a lawyer, he is not willing to speak with you about the forgery. According to the FR, when may you begin to question him?
A. Once an individual has asserted his right to remain silent, you may not interrogate him without counsel.
B. After a period of 2 hours, you may re-approach the person and ask if he is now willing to answer questions. If he is willing to answer questions re-advise him of his Miranda Rights.
C. If the individual explicitly and independently express a willingness to answer questions, after initially indicating a desire to remain silent, must be re-advised of their Miranda Rights.
D. Only with the concurrence of the Assistant District Attorney assigned to the case and after the individual is re-advised of their Miranda Rights.
C (FR 1-4)
Trooper Jones is involved in a pursuit on I-95. Who is responsible for completing the pursuit report?
A. Trooper Jones
B. Trooper Jones’ immediate supervisor
C. The shift supervisor during the pursuit.
D. Trooper Jones or a supervisor in Trooper Jones’ chain of command
E. Either A or C.
D FR-6-10
A vehicle is taken into custody through official action of the Department. You are the supervisor supervising the member taking custody of the vehicle.
The Trooper asks you where in the vehicle he should search as part of his custodial inventory search. You should tell him:
A. All areas within the wingspan of the driver
B. All areas in plain view
C. All areas where valuables may be found in the passenger compartment of the vehicle
D. All areas where valuables may be found in the vehicle that can be searched without causing damage to the vehicle
D OM 7-2 Chapter 10
You have just completed the annual EPR of your subordinate. You shall provide a copy of the EPR to the subordinate at least _______ days prior to the rating interview.
a. 2
b. 7
c. 5
d. 3
A (2 days)AR 4-22
Trooper Jones has arrested Michael McFadden for Simple Assault because McFadden punched his wife twice in the head and caused severe swelling. Trooper Jones is aware that the Vice Unit has received several anonymous complaints regarding McFadden for selling heroin. Trooper Jones relates that he would like to conduct a strip search of Michael McFadden. As the supervisor you follow the FR and tell Trooper Jones:
A. Go ahead and do the strip search, and notify Vice if any drugs are found.
B. A strip search needs the approval of the station/ section commander or in their absence the Officer of the Day.
C. Absent probable cause that McFadden is concealing a weapon or controlled substances on his person, you are disapproving his request.
D. Since Trooper Jones has reasonable suspicion that McFadden has drugs on his person, proceed with the search once he has two members who are the same sex as McFadden to do the search.
C FR 7-2,
According to the Operations Manual, where would you ideally locate the command post at the scene of a barricaded gunman?
A. It should be located outside the Kill Zone, but inside the Inner perimeter so that the TOPCOM has rapid access to the scene
B. It should be located outside of the inner perimeter, but inside the outer perimeter
C. It should be located inside the outer perimeter in a position which provides safe, rapid access to the scene
D. It should be located outside of the outer perimeter but within a reasonable distance (within 2 miles) to the scene
C OM7-18 Chapter 4, page 7
You are the supervisor working the 3-11 shift when you hear Trooper Smith&Trooper Becker respond to a PFA violation call. An hour later Trooper Smith
arrives at the station and tells you that the defendant is the defendant listed on an active PFA order. While at the protected person’s house, the defendant discharged two rounds into the air outside the protected person’s house while shouting if she doesn’t open the door the next one will be for her. Trooper Smith asks you what should be done with the gun. You should tell him:
A As soon as it is reasonably possible, all weapons seized as a result of a violation of a PFA order shall be delivered to the office of the sheriff.
B. Process the gun as you would any other firearm evidence in accordance with department regulations
C. Place the gun in evidence and notify the custodial officer that the gun may be listed for Escheats.
D. Return the gun to the defendant if he posts bail.
B FR 7-6 (This was the same type of question asked previous tests. You have to read from the question that a crime of domestic violence has occurred and now the gun is evidence in a criminal case, so we would keep the gun as evidence.)
Seizure of Weapons: Subsequent to an arrest, members shall seize all weapons used during an incident of domestic violence, violation of a PFA order, or during prior incidents of abuse, pursuant to Title 18, Section 2711(b) and Title 23, Section 6113(b). As soon as it is reasonably possible, all weapons seized as a result of a violation of a PFA order shall be delivered to the office of the sheriff, pursuant to Title 23, Section 6113(b). Weapons seized as a result of an incident of domestic violence shall be processed as evidence in accordance with established Department regulations
What must a member or an employee who is named as the plaintiff in a PFA order do upon their next scheduled shift?
A. Nothing
B. Provide their supervisor with a copy of the PFA order
C. Nothing, until a final order is issued, and they he/ she must provide a copy of the PFA order.
D. Send correspondence to the CO/ Bureau director explaining the circumstances of the order and whether or not any accommodations are
needed.
A FR 7-6 Personnel who are plaintiffs are encouraged, but not required to provide a copy of the order to their supervisor the next work day. Once notified the supervisor has specific obligations.
According to the AR, what statement/ information should not be included in a press release?
A. The names of defendants
B. The names of victims
C. The names of witnesses
D. Prior arrests for similar offenses
E. Both C & D
E (both C&D)(AR 6-1)
According to the AR and the OM the following may be included in a press release except what?
A. A statement that is accurate and sufficiently detailed to provide an overall summary and current status of the incident.
B. Seatbelt information for juvenile passengers
C. Defendant’s refusal to submit to chemical testing.
D. A statement that alcohol or drugs was a factor in the crash
E. All of the above may be included
C (AR 6-1 and OM 7-2 Chapter 48)
According to the OM 7-2, what value would you use in Block 48 of the incident report when listing the value of a vehicle stolen in your station’s primary coverage area?
A. The conservative estimate of the victim or investigator should be used
B. The purchase price if purchased in the past two years
C. The value given by the victim
D. The value assigned by the insurance company
E. An average retail value of the vehicle
E (average retail value)(OM 7-2 Chapter 1. Page 1.8 For most other property the conservative estimate of the victim or investigator is used)
According to the AR what should you do with marked cars on holidays such as Thanksgiving?
A. Position them in central locations to allow for quick responses with minimum manpower
B. Assign them stationary patrols to the greatest extent possible to conserve fuel
C. Position them in highly visible positions at high crash areas
D. Position them near interstate on ramps to allow for easy access to interstates, but off the road to avoid distracting motorists
C (AR 8-3)
Operation C.A.R.E. activities shall be conducted during all of the following periods except:
A. Christmas
B. Labor Day
C. Thanksgiving
D. Independence Day
E. All of the above.
A AR 8-3- Operation C.A.R.E. Lifesaver Weekend is the weekend before Christmas. OPERATION CARE (Combine Accident Reduction Effort)
What authority is needed to grant approval for members to work as a single person patrol car on a regularly scheduled night shift?
A. Commissioner
B. Deputy Commissioner of Operations
C. Area Commander
D. Troop Commander
E. Troop Commander or his delegate
B Deputy Commissioner OPS
The Officer of the day assignment begins and ends at what time?
A. 0900
B. 0700
C. 0800
D. 1200
A 0900
According to the FR, a parent of a juvenile shall be notified as soon as possible and the date and time of the notification shall be included on the applicable report when a juvenile is charged via
A. Juvenile Petition/ allegation
B. Non-Traffic Citation
C. Traffic Citation for a serious traffic offense, as enumerated in Title 75, Vehicle Code, Chapter 37, Miscellaneous Provisions
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
D all of the above
According to the FR, who is responsible for selecting the locations, dates and times of traffic safety checkpoints?
A. Troop Commander
B. Station/ Patrol Section Commander
C. NCO assigned to supervise the checkpoint
D. None of the above
B (FR 6-3)
According to the FR, the site selection process for a traffic safety checkpoint shall be based upon several factors including each of the following except:
A. Statistical data from PROphecy.
B. DUI-related crash lists provided by the Pennsylvania Department of Transportation (PennDOT).
C. Alcohol-related crash “spot maps” provided by PennDOT.
D. Data from any source which identifies a particular location, date, and/or time as having a high incidence of DUI-related activity, e.g., complaints, traffic/non-traffic citations, DUI arrests/contacts.
E. None of the above
E (FR 6-3)- Trick question as the listed criteria is for a DUI checkpoint, traffic safety checkpoint is as follows:
1. Significant number of license, equipment, registration, and inspection violations over a period comparable to the hours of operation.
2. Statistical data of traffic arrests during crash investigations, as well as other Selective Traffic Enforcement Programs.
3. Data from any other source which identifies a particular location, date, and/or time as having a high incidence of license, equipment, registration, and inspection violations, including data from previously conducted regulatory checkpoints and Station copies of citations.
4. Maximum visibility from both directions. Unless extenuating circumstances exist, regulatory checkpoints shall be conducted only during daylight hours.
5. Low to medium traffic flow. If a non divided highway is selected, consideration should be given to stopping traffic in both directions, thereby preventing high speed traffic near the site.
6. The ability to stop traffic in the traffic lane for preliminary observation.
7. Sufficient adjoining space available off the traveled portion of the roadway (e.g., wide shoulders, rest or parking areas) for further questioning of the motorist when reasonable suspicion of a violation has been developed.
According to the FR, a sobriety check point shall never consist of less than how many members including any supervisors?
A. six
B. five
C. nine
D. eight
A (6)(FR 6-3)
What is the maximum amount of time a juvenile arrested for a non-status offense can be held before an outside agency must be notified according to the FR?
A. 6 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours
E. 24 hours
A six hours (FR7-7)
When a juvenile arrested for a non-status offense has been held for a period of time in excess of 6 hours, the investigating officer shall notify
_______________________. If no one can be reached, there is a backup agency to be contacted. The backup agency is_______________.
A. Department of Public Welfare ChildLine/ Pennsylvania Commission on Crime and Delinquency
B County Children and Youth/ Pennsylvania Department of Public Welfare
C. Department of Public Welfare ChildLine/ Pennsylvania Department of Health and Human Service
D Department of Public Welfare ChildLine/ Pennsylvania Department of Housing and Urban Development
A (F 7-7 page 11) (Childline / Commission on crime and delinquency)
According to the FR when one member transports a single prisoner in a department vehicle with no security screen, the prisoner shall be seated where?
A. Rear passenger side seat
B. Rear seat on the driver’s side
C. Front Passenger seat
D. None of the above
C (FR 7-2)
According to AR 3-3, the Staff Services Commander must designate who to be the primary custodial officer at Troop Headquarters?
A. A non-commissioner officer or a commissioner officer
B. A non-commissioned officer
C. A non-commissioned officer or a member
D. None of the above
B (AR 3-3)
When a new station commander is assigned to a station, within what period must a joint inventory of the evidence room be conducted?
A. six months
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. one quarter
B (30 days)AR 3-3
When a preprinted evidence container is not practical to be used, other containers may be used. Trooper Jones takes evidence from defendant D. Pezzano and places the following on a large brown bag to be used to package evidence: CAD or incident number, Inventory number, investigator’s name, list of item numbers, and a description of items exactly as entered on the Property Record shall be placed on the container. What is he missing that must be there?
A. Investigator’s Badge Number
B. Date and time of collection
C. Offense
D. All of the Above
D (AR 3-3 Page 18)
Trooper Cuttitta of PSP Hamburg calls Fogelsville and explains that he is investigating a shooting and one of the people involved are currently at Lehigh valley Hospital in Lehigh County. All available Hamburg members will be tied up for hours. Trooper Everk of Fogelsville responds to the hospital to collect the victim’s clothing for evidence at the request of Trooper Cuttitta. At which state police station must the evidence be entered by Trooper Everk?
A. Hamburg
B. Fogelsville
C. Either A or B
D. None of the above
C (AR 3-3)
When evidence is being transferred from one state police station to another what is done on the property records?
A. The original property record shall accompany the property to the new property management system. At the new location a single line shall be drawn through the original identifier and inventory number, and the new identifier and inventory number shall be entered immediately above it.
B. A copy of the original Property Record shall accompany the property to the new property management system. At the new location, a single line shall be drawn through the original identifier and inventory number, and the new identifier and inventory number shall be entered immediately above it.
C. The original property record shall have blocks 31-32 completed by the member taking custody of the property at the original station. The member shall complete a new property record with a new identifier and inventory number at the new property management system.
D. None of the above
B (AR 3-3)
At Troop Headquarters, how long are master escheats reports retained?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
E. None of the above
D (AR 3-3 Page 18)
The evidence custodian must remove evidence from the receiving locker and placed into the proper storage area _______
A. At least daily
B. At least weekly
C. At least daily, or no later than the next shift worked
D. At least weekly, or no later than every 10 days
E. None of the above
: C (weekly, no later than every 10 days) AR 3-3
During quarterly inspections (of the evidence room) inquiries shall be made any time evidence is signed out for more than ___________.
A. three months
B. one month
C. six months
D. 72 hours
E. 24 hours
A (AR 3-3)
Property rooms shall have an additional level of security for certain items. Which of the below would be required to have extra security?
A. Cocaine
B. Diamond engagement ring
C. Toy pistol
D. Two one dollar bills turned in as found property
E. A and B
F. A, B, and D
F (AR 3-3) The regulation reads in part: Property rooms shall have an additional level of security for firearms, drugs, money, jewelry, or other exceptional, valuable, or sensitive items requiring extra security measures
While travelling home, Cpl. Wagner was not able to avoid a traffic accident which was blocking his path. The driver came up to him and advised she was drunk, operated the vehicle in an unsafe manner and thinks she should be arrested. A uniformed Trooper subsequently performed field sobriety tests and Cpl. Wagner was left with no other choice but to make said arrest. A copy of the MVR needs to be requested within _____ days.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 61
C.(FR 6-12 Mobile Video/Audio Recording Equipment)
Tpr. Simmons is under an internal investigation for failure to file criminal charges in a domestic violence incident. Tpr. Simmons transfers from Troop M to Troop K while the investigation is being conducted. Who is the adjudicating officer for the internal affairs investigation?
A. Troop Commander from Troop M
B. Troop Commander from Troop K
C. Area Commander
D. Director, BIPS
A- (original troop commander) AR 4-25 page 2
In most cases (internal investigations), the reviewing officer is the Area Commander, director/Office Director or supervisor of the Adjudicating Officer. Who can assign someone other than these individuals to be the reviewing officer?
A. Commissioner
B. Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility
C. Director, BIPS
D. There are not exceptions as to who may be the reviewing officer
C- Director, BIP in consultation with the Deputy Commissioner of Administration and Professional Responsibility
Tpr. Rowan is returning from questioning a suspect reference an investigation he is conducting. He notices a Dublin Borough officer on a traffic stop and stops to provide assistance. As Tpr. Rowan approached the car, the Dublin officer draws his weapon while giving commands for the operator to drop the gun. Dublin officer subsequently fires two shots causing non-life threatening injuries. Bucks County District Attorney’s office is handling the investigation. No BlueTeam entry is required as Tpr. Rowan was not directly involved and did not fire his weapon?
A. True
B. False
B- False- Intentional weapon discharge: Incident involving the intentional discharge of a weapon by a member/enforcement officer, or the discharge of a weapon by another law enforcement officer in the presence of a member/enforcement officer
Which of the following would require BlueTeam entry?
A. Suspect is tackled, strikes nose on pavement causing a bloody nose, paramedics respond but he refuses treatment
B. Prisoner falls asleep in holding cell and strikes head on ground requiring hospital evaluation
C. Trooper taking part in Taser transition training has an accidental discharge during training session.
D. None of the above
B-
Tpr. Clinton is cleaning her personal weapon after recently qualifying during fall qualifications. She is blaming Tpr. Trump for her failure to get pistol master and forgets to check the chamber causing an accidental discharge into her basement wall. Tpr. Clinton is required to:
A. Immediately notify a supervisor of the accidental discharge
B. Notify shift supervisor during next scheduled shift
C. Ensure a BlueTeam entry for accidental discharge is completed
D. None of the above
D- None of the above for accidental discharge of a personal weapon, only for Department firearm
Tpr. Rowan, Troop M, is assigned to assist at a riot in Troop K. While in this capacity, Tpr. Rowan uses his baton to strike a rioter causing a broken arm. Cpl. Griffith is notified of this incident and in order to comply with the regulations must immediately notify:
A. Troop Commander, Troop M
B. Troop Commander, Troop K
C. Area Commander
D. Deputy Commissioner of Operations
B- Troop Commander where the incident occurred.
Cpl. Griffith is required to ensure entry into the Use of Force Module: (trooper strikes actor with baton causing broken arm during riot)
A. As soon as practical
B. Within 24 hours of incident occurring
C. Immediately upon return to station
D. Prior to end of the shift
C
Cpl. Tason Jroutman is testing his Taser and an accident discharge occurs. Cpl. Jroutman must:
A. Report accidental discharge to his supervisor
B. Complete a BlueTeam entry on himself
C. No action is necessary as no injury occurred
D. Both A and B
D- Supervisory personnel shall also report self-initiated use-of-force and weapon-discharge incidents involving themselves as soon as practical to their supervisor, and also complete the required BlueTeam entry.
As outlines in AR 4-25, IAD shall retain primary responsibility for investigating allegations of:
A. Domestic violence
B. Sexual harassment
C. Corruption
D. Ethics violations
E. All of the above
F. A, C, D
F- IAD shall retain primary responsibility for investigating allegations of serious misconduct, sexual impropriety, domestic violence, corruption, and ethics violations. (sexual harassment is EEO)
Tpr. Webb stops a car for speeding and cites the operator for said violation. The operator a lowly Ravens fan alleges to Cpl. Johnson that the only reason he was stopped was because he displayed a Ravens bumper sticker and Tpr. Webb is known to have a Ravens bias. Cpl. Johnson completes the alleged BlueTeam. How is this matter handled?
A. Immediately assigned to an investigator so they can witness the summary hearing
B. Deferred to after prosecution for investigation
C. Deferred to after all appeal periods expire
D. Tpr. Webb never wrote speeding citations so this is false.
C- - Complaints received from citizens or Department personnel, who are the subject of a criminal investigation or prosecution, alleging bias or misconduct by investigators or personnel involved in the investigation or prosecution, shall be brought to the attention of the prosecuting attorney when applicable. Unless otherwise directed by the Director, BIPS, the Department shall defer investigation of the complaint until after the investigation and prosecution are concluded, and the complainant has exhausted all remedies provided for by the criminal justice system.
In the case of female members who become pregnant, members shall request limited duty status __________
A. No later than the end of the second trimester
B. As soon as the member becomes aware of the pregnancy
C. No later than the fifth month of pregnancy
D. None of the above
D AR 4-4 (limited duty is not mandatory during pregnancy, made available provided physician and SPMO concur)
Cpl Sparich stops a vehicle for speeding and observes indicators of drug possession. Cpl Sparich explains to the operator that he would like to get his
Permission to search the vehicle and the operator tells him that there is nothing in the vehicle. Cpl Sparich reads the operator the Waiver of rights and consent to search form. The operator tells Cpl Sparich that his friend who is a lawyer told him never to sign anything, but because there is nothing in the vehicle, the operator tells Cpl Sparich to feel free to search. What should Cpl Sparich do?
A. Attempt to develop probable cause for a search warrant, if he cannot develop probable cause do not conduct a search.
B. Document in his initial report or assignment report that the operator gave consent. He should not complete Waiver of Rights and Consent to Search Form
C. Document in his initial report or assignment report that the operator gave consent. Complete the Waiver of Rights and Consent to Search Form. In the block for the consenter’s signature write “VERBAL CONSENT”
D. Document in his initial report or assignment report that the operator gave consent. Complete the Waiver of Rights and Consent to Search Form. In the block for the consenter’s signature write “REFUSED TO SIGN”
C OM 7-2 Chapter 34 (document and write verbal consent)
Trooper Dooling is dispatched to 123 Main Street where he is informed that Jeffrey Jones (19 years of age) has been missing from the residence for 18 hours by Jones’ mother. In speaking with Ms Jones, there is no indication that Jeffrey Jones would fall into the missing person categories of endangered, disabled, catastrophe, or involuntary. What should Trooper Dooling do?
A. Send an attempt to locate message and do an assignment report.
B. Enter Jeffrey Jones into NCIC under the juvenile category, and initiate a missing person investigation
C. Advise Ms Jones that since Jeffery Jones is 18 years and there is no indication that he is endangered or the victim of a crime he cannot be entered as a missing person
D. Advise Ms Jones to call back once Jeffrey Jones has been missing for 24 hours
B (OM 7-2 Chapter 39) (juvenile is under 21 for this)
According to the operations manual, members shall initiate a follow-up contact with the complainant within __________ of the report of a missing person to determine if additional information is available that would necessitate supplementary searches, interviews, or other investigatory measures
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 1 week
A (OM 7-2 Chapter 39)
According to the operations manual there must be how many Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical (NBC) Officers in a troop?
A. One
B. One and one alternate
C. Two
D. Two and up to two alternates are authorized
B (OM 7-3 Chapter 2) one and an alternate
What color rubber stoppers should be used when collecting a vial of blood for chemical analysis to determine a BAC?
A. Red
B. Purple
C. Grey
D. White
C (OM 7-15 Chapter 5)
Trooper Jones responds to a bomb threat at Central middle School. Trooper Jones in consultation with his supervisor and the school principal determine that evacuation is the best course of action to take. The principal asks Trooper Jones if he has any suggestions on where to put the evacuated people. According to the Operations Manual, Trooper Jones should advise the principal______
A. He cannot make such a recommendation
B. Anywhere at least 100 yards from the building is fine
C. To avoid areas where children normally assemble during fire drills
D. To evacuate people to locations they would normally go in a fire drill to minimize the traumatic effect on the children as long as it is over 500 yards away.
C (OM 7-13 Chapter 4)
Department Level _____ Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is intended to protect against the danger of inadvertent exposure to contamination
being spread from an incident scene by movement of air, or contaminated people.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
C (OM 7-3 Chapter 5) (level C is issued to members, APR and protective overgarment)
BONUS: Level D is normal duty uniform, Level A is a positive pressure full face “moon suit”, Level B is similar to A (positive pressure supplied air), but w/out full suit, protects from liquid, not vapor
According to the Operations manual when setting up a command post at the scene of a bomb threat, the command post should be a minimal of ______
From the scene/ target.
A. 100 feet
B. 300 feet
C. 500 feet
D. 1000 feet
B (OM 7-13 chapter 6) 300 ft
Trooper Thomas is assigned to respond to a bomb threat at Alvernia College. A decision is made by the incident commander to evacuate the building. What would be a good method of evacuating the building?
A. Pull the fire alarm
B. Announce there is a gas leak in a nearby building and that this building is being evacuated
C. Go through each classroom closing all windows and ordering the people out
D. Announce there is an electrical problem while at the same time searching with a metal detector.
B OM 7-13 Chapter 6
Lt Rogers responds to a hostage scene in Norristown Borough to assist the Norristown Police Department with a hostage situation. Lt Rogers offers the assistance of the PSP and 5 members from Skippack respond to assist. Lt Rogers offers to take command of the incident, and the Norristown Police Chief declines but asks that PSP continue to assist with the perimeter. At this point Lt Rogers would be ___________________
A. The TOPCOM
B. The SITECOM
C. The PLANCOM
D. The UNIT LEADER
B OM 7-18 Chapter 1 (SITECOM, command of PSP at Site),
Which of the following would not be a situation when SERT members would perform their specialized functions
A. Human Remains Detection Canine operations
B. High risk warrant services.
C. Ceremonies.
D. None of the above (all would be appropriate uses for SERT)
D OM 7-18 Chapter 5 page 1
Members of PSP Reading respond to a barricaded gunman call. The call is at the far end of the patrol zone. SERT is activated and responds. While SERT is en route the TOPCOM learns that the gunman is a 2nd cousin of Trooper Jones of Reading who is working and has responded to the scene. What should the TOPCOM do with regard to Trooper Jones according to the Operations Manual?
A. Not tell him, and ensure the shift supervisor assigns Trooper Jones to handle normal calls away from the barricaded gunman call.
B. Ensure Trooper Jones is advised and then ensure the shift supervisor assigns Trooper Jones to handle normal calls away from the barricaded gunman call.
C. Trooper Jones should be kept in a nearby location so they are available to command personnel for intelligence or other appropriate reasons
D. Ensure that Trooper Jones is removed from the perimeter and escorted back to Station and not allowed to re-enter until the situation is resolved.
C OM 7-18 Chapter 1
According to the Operations Manual, with regard to a SERT callout the circumstances of the situation shall determine
the operational makeup of the team and the assignment of its members. What is the minimal amount of SERT
members who shall respond to a SERT callout?
A. one Negotiation Unit member and one Tactical Unit member.
B. one Negotiation Unit member and two Tactical Unit members.
C. one Negotiation Unit member and three Tactical Unit member.
D. The minimum number of members who shall respond to a callout is at the discretion of the SERT Coordinator for the incident, and in direct relation to the identified task..
D (OM 7-18 Chapter 5 page 7) discretion of SERT Coordinator
In addition to the below criteria, what conditions/ criteria must be met for a barricaded suspect or hostage situation prior to initiating any request for a SERT callout during an in progress situation which involves barricaded suspects and/or hostages, the following criteria must be met:
o The suspect is possibly armed.
o The suspect is secreted in a position of advantage affording them cover and/or concealment.
o There is a potential threat to the lives and safety of citizens or police.
o The suspect refuses to submit to arrest. Any verbal or physical act indicating or implying refusal is sufficient.
A. A suspected criminal act committed, or advisability of a mental health commitment.
B. A citizen or law enforcement member must have been injured
C. The station or requesting agency does not have sufficient trained members to handle the incident
D. None of the above (no additional requirements are needed)
: A OM 7-18 Chapter 5 page 7
With regard to SERT, according to the Operations Manual the authority to give authorization to utilize explosive breaching techniques in a pre-planned incident is vested with ____________?
A. The SERT Unit Leader or designee, or higher authority
B. The SERT Coordinator or designee, or higher authority
C. Director, Bureau of Emergency and Special Operations, or designee, or higher authority.
D. The SERT Assistant Unit Leader
C (OM 7-18 Chapter 7) Note: Approval of the TOPCOM is required in all situations.
. Except in situations involving emergency reaction, diversionary devices such as Flash Bangs shall not be used without the prior authorization of _____________________?
A. the SERT Coordinator or a Tactical Unit Leader.
B. The TOPCOM or his designee
C. The Director, Bureau of Emergency and Special Operations, or designee, or higher authority
D. the SERT Assistant Unit Leader
A (OM 7-18 Chapter 7)
Except in emergency reaction, chemical agents shall only be used when authorization Is received from _______.
A. the SERT Coordinator.
B. The TOPCOM
C. The Director, Bureau of Emergency and Special Operations, or designee, or higher authority
D. No special authorization is required
A (OM 7-18 Chapter 7, this was changed in 2010 from TOPCOM to SERT Coordinator)
Trooper Pezzano would like to get a search warrant for Medical Records for which are at Montgomery Hospital in Norristown Borough, Montgomery County. The search warrant is not to be sealed. According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, he must________________?
A. Only go to the appropriate magisterial district judge who is assigned to the magisterial district where the hospital is located
B. Go to the appropriate magisterial district judge who is assigned to the magisterial district where the hospital is located or the magisterial district judge covering if the magisterial district judge for Norristown is unavailable.
C. Go to any magisterial district judge in the judicial district for Montgomery County (or higher authority)
D. Go to any Common Pleas Court judge for Montgomery County –and not a magisterial district judge—to get the application approved.
C (Title 234 Rule 200)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure the purpose of a search warrant is to search for and seize_____________________?
A. contraband, the fruits of a crime, or things otherwise criminally possessed
B. property that is or has been used as the means of committing a criminal offense
C. property that constitutes evidence of the commission of a criminal offense.
D. A & C only
E. All of the above
E (Title 234 Rule 201)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, a nighttime search warrant shall not be issued unless the affidavit shows:
A. Probable cause for such nighttime search
B. Reasonable Cause for such nighttime search
C. Clear and Convincing that the investigative efforts of law enforcement will be harmed by a delay
D. Probable Cause that the investigative efforts of law enforcement will be harmed by a delay
B (Title 234 Rule 203)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, who may serve a search warrant?
A. A law enforcement officer
B. Only a police officer
C. An officer of the court
D. None of the above
: A (Title 234 Rule 204)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, the term daytime for a search warrant means the hours of_______________ ?
A. daylight
B. 0600-2200
C. 0600-2300
D. 0600-2400
B (Title 234 Rule 205)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, a search warrant signed by an issuing authority must include all of the following except________?
A. specify the date and time of issuance
B. identify specifically the property to be seized
C. name or describe with particularity the person or place to be searched
D. designate by title the judicial officer to whom the warrant shall be returned
E. None of the above—A, B, C, and D are required.
E (Title 234 Rule 205)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, who can seal a search warrant?
A. Philadelphia Bail Commissioner
B. Municipal Court Judge
C. Magisterial District Judge
D. Common Please Court Judge or Appellate Court Judge/ Justice
D (Title 234 Rule 211)
According to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, a showing of what is needed to seal a search warrant?
A. Good Cause
B. Probable Cause
C. Reasonable grounds
D. Harm to the investigation
A (Title 234 Rule 211)
Upon motion for good cause shown, the justice or judge may grant ___________ extensions of the time that the affidavit(s) of a search warrant shall remain sealed. Each extension shall be for a period of not more than ______.
A. not more than 2/ 60 days
B not more than 3/ 30 days
C an unlimited amount of / 30 days
D. an unlimited amount of/ 60 days
C (Title 234 Rule 211)
If the fine/ costs on a citation are not specified, according to the Rules of Criminal Procedure, the defendant shall remit the sum of _____ as collateral for appearance at trial. If the defendant cannot afford this amount the defendant shall appear before the issuing authority to enter a plea.
A. $50.00
B. $75.00
C. $100.00
D. $150.00
A (Title 234 Rule 403)
Within how long after a citation is issued to the defendant, shall the citation be filed with the proper issuing authority?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
A (Title 234 Rule 406)
Trial in a court case in which a written complaint is filed against the defendant, when the defendant is incarcerated on that case, shall commence no later than ________ from the date on which the complaint is filed. Trial in a court case in which a written complaint is filed against the defendant, when the defendant is at liberty on bail, shall commence no later than ______ from the date on which the complaint is filed.
A. 180 days / 270 days
B. 180 days / 365 days
C. 270 days / 365 days
D. 365 days / 720 days
B (Title 234 Rule 600)
Several members of Troop K Philadelphia have adopted the Under 16 soccer team that plays for the Fox Chase Soccer Club. The team is trying to raise money to play at the USA cup held in Minnesota. As part of a fund raising plan the members would like to sell clothing articles with the name Pennsylvania State Police embroidered. Who has the authority to provide a written approval to sell PSP merchandise for a fund raising effort?
A. The Commissioner
B. The Deputy Commissioner of Operations
C. The Deputy Commissioner of Administration
D. The Troop Commander
A (FR 1-1)
Trooper Ramos is conducting a multi-year and multi agency drug investigation. He is scheduled to meet with a target that he has been working for months to meet. Just prior to the meeting the target’s associate demands that Trooper Ramos smoke a marijuana cigarette to prove that he is not a cop. Under what circumstances may Trooper Ramos intestinally ingest this marijuana?
A. There are no circumstances that would justify the intentional ingestion of marijuana.
B. If all other means of convincing a target that he is not a law enforcement officer fail, Trooper Ramos may intentionally ingest the marijuana; however he must shall immediately submit correspondence, through channels, to their Commander/Director
C. Trooper Ramos may intentionally ingest the marijuana cigarette if his personal safety is in immediate jeopardy.
D. Trooper Ramos may intentionally ingest the marijuana cigarette only after his life is explicitly threatened.
C (FR 1-1)
Police allege Paul J. Evanko had a blood alcohol content of 0.183 percent following a minor accident about 10:05 p.m. on December 14th at Linglestown and North Mountain roads. What tier is Paul J Evanko’s BAC in??
A) General Impairment
B) High
C) Highest
C An individual may not drive, operate or be in actual physical control of the movement of a vehicle after imbibing a sufficient amount of alcohol such that the breath is .16% or higher within two hours after the individual had driven, operated or been in actual physical control of the movement of the vehicle.
Reference 75 Pa.V.C. Section 3802
MEPA is a missing person advisory notification that alerts citizens and law enforcement of a missing endangered person through established transmissions, broadcasts, and/or other forms of public communications. MEPA provides descriptive information about the missing endangered person to law enforcement and the public, with the goal of enlisting support in the search efforts and safe recovery of the missing endangered person. Which of the following criteria must be met in order for the MEPA system to be activated?
1. The subject of the advisory must be entered into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) database under the Wanted: MEPA designation.
2. The person is missing under unexplained, involuntary, or suspicious circumstances, or the person is believed to be in danger because of age, health, mental or physical disability, environmental or weather conditions, or is known to be in the company of a potentially dangerous person, or some other factor is present that puts the person in peril of serious bodily injury or death.
3. There is sufficient information that could assist in the safe recovery of the missing endangered person if it is distributed to the public.
4. The incident does not meet the criteria for an Amber Alert.
A. All of the above
B. All except 4
C. All except 3 &4
D. All except 1
D. All except 1-In order for the MEPA System to be activated, the subject of the advisory must be entered into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) database under the Disability, Endangered, or Involuntary categories (AR 9-35 35.03 B)
With respect to Storage and Release of Vehicles Taken Into Custody, if final disposition of a vehicle has not been determined upon termination of an investigation where no prosecution was initiated, or by the court within 30 days after the adjudication of the court case, the affected Section/Station/Office Commander shall ensure the _______________________ is contacted and apprised of the circumstances.
A. Troop Commander
B. Criminal Investigation Section Commander
C. County District Attorney
D. Office of Chief Counsel
D. Office of Chief Counsel (FR 7-5 5.06 B Disposal of Vehicles)
Rapid Response and Deployment to an Active Shooter dictates that the first PSP member on scene who is ___________________shall assume the role of Incident Commander, and shall remain the Incident Commander until the member delegates this responsibility, or a higher-ranking member assumes the role of Incident Commander.
A. Armed with a long gun
B. A non-commissioned officer
C. Not part of a Contact or Rescue Team
D. Equipped with a Mobile Data Terminal (MDT)
C. Not part of a Contact or Rescue Team (OM 7-18 Chapter 8 F.)
According to Title 35, Health and Safety, the local law enforcement agency shall take possession of sexual assault evidence within ______ of receiving notice from a health care facility.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 5 days
C. 72 hours (35 P.S. Health and Safety Section 10172.3 Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Program (c)(1) Bonus Information: Upon receipt of written consent to test the evidence it must be submitted to an approved lab within 15 days.
According to AR 3-4, if an Official ID Card is lost or damaged, the individual to whom the ID was issued shall immediately report it in accordance with FR 4-1, Loss of or Damage to Commonwealth Property or Equipment. The individual’s immediate supervisor shall then notify the ____________________ of the lost/damaged card.
A. Help Desk
B. Troop/Bureau Administrative Manager
C. Troop Commander or Bureau/Office Director
D. DHQ Security System Administrator
D. DHQ Security System Administrator (AR 3-4 4.14 A) Bonus Information: If an Official ID Card is lost or damaged, the cardholder shall, in addition to the requirements of Section 4.14.A of this regulation, submit Department Correspondence, a sample of which can be found in Appendage C of this regulation, to their Troop Commander or Bureau/Office Director, describing the damage to the card or circumstances surrounding its loss, and requesting a replacement card
Property Records that are considered inactive after final disposition of evidence are retained for ______________ and purged ____________.
A) 3 Years, annually
B) 5 years, annually
C) 10 years, annually
C 10 years, anually
When is an escheatable property report due to the Staff Services Section Commander each year?
A) February 10th
B) June 1st
C) May 15th
D) December 31st
A February 10
Your subordinate has been involved in a Department vehicle crash that you are investigating during the PM shift with no injuries reported. A patrol vehicle exited the roadway striking a house causing major damage with the patrol unit as Unit # 1. You know you have to notify immediately the Troop Staff Services Section Commander or Officer of the Day when property damage is in excess of what amount that resulted from a collision?
a. $10,000
b. $20,000
c. $15,000
d. $25,000
A FR 6-4 $10,000
A General Investigation Report has been created to forensically map a collision at a particular station in the Troop by the CARS Unit. The original General Investigation Report is filed where?
a. Station General Investigation Report File.
b. Crash Attachment File at Station.
c. Crash Attachment File for General Investigations at Troop Headquarters.
d. Filed at Bureau of Patrol.
B FR 6-11
You are assigned as the Station Conducted Electrical Weapon (CEW) Maintenance Officer. You shall conduct a time synchronization check in the months of?
a. January, April, July, October.
b. January, March, July, October.
c. January, April, September, December.
d. February, April, July, October.
A (January, April, July, October) FR 9-1 Per Reading List ( Now FR 9-4 due to recent e-library alert change, CEW’s)
Radio Frequency (RF) is hazardous when introduced in the area of a suspected explosive device. In addition to cell phones, portable radios, etc. your mobile office must also be turned off if you are within __________ feet of the explosive device.
a. 250
b. 300
c. 750
d. 500
D OM 7-13 500 ft
Per Title 23, Chapter 61, namely Section 6105, Responsibilities of Law Enforcement; subsection (b) notice of services and rights; PSP shall provide the abused person ____________________ of a safe shelter and of domestic violence services in the community, including the hotline number for domestic violence services. Additionally, when an arrest is made, notification to the victim shall be made not later than ________________.
a. oral and written notice; 48 hours after preliminary arraignment.
b. written notice; 24 hours after arrest.
c. oral notice; 24 hours after preliminary arraignment.
d. oral and written notice; 24 hours after preliminary arraignment.
D Title 23 Chapter 61 Domestic Relations
While reviewing Incident Reports you notice a subordinate has arrested a subject for numerous non-traffic related criminal offenses including DUI, though all relating to the same course of conduct and incident. You observe that (3) or more offenses have lower UCR coding and are more serious than the DUI offense. Where does the member enter the DUI offense for tracking purposes on the reporting documents?
a. The DUI offense is listed first on the Incident Report followed by the non-traffic related criminal offenses.
b.The DUI offense is listed on the first line in the narrative of the Intoxication Work Sheet.
c.The DUI offense is listed in the first line of the Traffic Arrest Data Section of the Intoxication Work Sheet.
d. The DUI offense is listed in order of UCR coding on a continuation of the Part I Incident Report.
C OM 7-2
A member under your supervision was exposed to blood-borne pathogens. You complete the injury packet and forward to the Troop Commander under confidential cover. What do you do with the copy you have maintained?
a. Place the copy in the supervisory file.
b. Discard, there shall be no copies maintained by the supervisor.
c. Discard, the TAM/BAM will make necessary copies.
d. Place the copy in the supervisory file, under miscellaneous documents.
B AR 5-10
A member has made a seizure of controlled substances with unique markings. As per Department regulations you advise the member, as the shift supervisor, to do what with this information and photographs taken of these marked controlled substances after the evidence has been logged?
a. All information and photographs regarding markings on controlled substances shall be forwarded to the appropriate Intelligence Officer via fax. The investigating officer shall ensure the fax is scanned, uploaded, and electronically stored within the Records Management System (RMS) upon completion, and the original(s) shall immediately thereafter be maintained in an attachment file in a manner sufficient to ensure the security of the information contained therein, unless the document(s) constitutes formal evidence which would normally require custodial storage in accordance with this regulation.
b. All information and photographs regarding markings on controlled substances shall be forwarded to the appropriate Vice Unit Supervisors via e-mail. The investigating officer shall ensure the email is scanned, uploaded, and electronically stored within the Records Management System (RMS) upon completion, and the original(s) shall immediately thereafter be destroyed in a manner sufficient to ensure the security of the information contained therein (e.g., utilizing the Station shredder), unless the document(s) constitutes formal evidence which would normally require custodial storage in accordance with this regulation.
c. All information and photographs regarding markings on controlled substances shall be forwarded to Drug Law Division Supervisor via e-mail. The investigating officer shall ensure the email is scanned, uploaded, and electronically stored within the Records Management System (RMS) upon completion, and the original(s) shall immediately thereafter be destroyed in a manner sufficient to ensure the security of the information contained therein (e.g., utilizing the Station shredder), unless the document(s) constitutes formal evidence which would normally require custodial storage in accordance with this regulation.
d. All information and photographs regarding markings on controlled substances shall be forwarded to the appropriate Intelligence Officer via e-mail. The investigating officer shall ensure the email is scanned, uploaded, and electronically stored within the Records Management System (RMS) upon completion, and the original(s) shall immediately thereafter be destroyed in a manner sufficient to ensure the security of the information contained therein (e.g., utilizing the Station shredder), unless the document(s) constitutes formal evidence which would normally require custodial storage in accordance with this regulation.
. D AR 3-3 (this is out of date, upload picture to ODIN, as soon as practicable, within 24 hours. Document in narrative)
As a Sergeant Station Commander or Corporal DUI checkpoint coordinator, you are interested in conducting a joint checkpoint with a neighboring municipal police department in their municipality. You need permission from the __________________ and the checkpoint must __________________.
a. Troop Commander, meet the guidelines of FR 6-3.
b. Area Commander, meet the guidelines of FR 6-3.
c. Troop Commander, be conducted within the municipality requesting.
d. Deputy Commissioner of Operations, meet the guidelines of FR 6-3.
A FR 6-3 (troop commander)
An operators driving privilege was recalled for a Class C license. This operator was involved in collision, at fault, resulting in death of another motorist. This operator commits what graded offense?
a. M1
b. F3
c. F2
d. M2
B Title 75 Chapter 37 FELONY 3
As the PM shift patrol supervisor on a Saturday, a member responds to a residence to check on the welfare of a subject. With no answer at the front door, which is locked, the member peers through a window and observes suspicious items, including a large amount of extension cords leading to a room as well as mold and fungi growing on the walls and ceiling along with many large green leafy plants contained within a room. The member contacts you believing they have identified a potential marijuana grow operation. After necessary approvals, you as a supervisor would request assistance from the _____________ and notify them through ______________.
a. Special Emergency Response Team, PACIC
b. Hazardous Device Explosive Section , Department Watch Center
c. Clandestine Laboratory Response Team, Department Watch Center
d. Marijuana Eradication Team, Department Watch Center.
C AR 9-1
You are the PM supervisor and a member has been involved in a serious police incident, an officer involved shooting and a suspect is at large. As the first member and supervisor on scene you shall immediately __________________ and must obtain without delay __________________ from the involved member.
a. assume the role of incident commander, the Department issued weapon
b. assume the role of incident commander, the Department issued microphone
c. assume the role of SITECOM, a Public Safety Statement
d. assume the role of incident commander, a Public Safety Statement
D FR 1-5
A Crime Trooper and a VFI Unit Trooper are in a disagreement in regards to allotted patrol-related overtime assignments that were posted. The VFI Unit member is used when there is a manpower shortage for zone coverage. As per FR 5-1, who receives preference with regards to this patrol-related overtime?
a. Crime Trooper.
b. VFI Unit Trooper.
c. To be decided by enlistment date.
d. To be decided by overtime hours earned to date.
B FR 5-1
You are a supervisor and two of your subordinates are interrogating a juvenile who is in custody. You are responsible to ensure the interrogation is no longer than _______________ hours, unless approved by the DA or AG, and that breaks should be provided at least every ________ hours.
a. 6, 2
b. 6, 1
c. 4, 2
d. 6, 3
D FR 7-7
. As a Corporal, you have conducted an EPR on a subordinate and your reviewing officer, your Sergeant disagrees with your ratings. You discuss with your supervisor and changes will be made on the EPR. How are these changes made?
a. The supervisor shall draw a horizontal line through the item to be changed and the supervisor and reviewing officer shall initial those changes.
b. The supervisor shall create a new EPR.
c. The supervisor shall draw a horizontal line through the item to be changed and the supervisor only shall initial those changes.
d. The supervisor shall draw a horizontal line through the item to be changed and the reviewing officer’s supervisor shall initial those changes.
B AR 4-22
A civilian clerk was the subject of an investigation and discipline may occur. Civilian employees are entitled to a PDC or Preliminary Disciplinary Conference prior to the issuance of discipline. The investigation was recently completed. As their supervisor, you have how many days to conduct this PDC from the completion date of the investigation?
a. 5 days.
b. 2 days.
c. 10 days.
d. 7 days.
C AR 4-9 10 days
In Missing Person investigations where there is a strong likelihood of foul play, the investigator shall ________ obtain dental records with the assistance of the Troop CIA Officer for entry into the National Dental Image Repository (NDIR).
a. within 48 hours
b. immediately
c. at the discretion of a supervisor
d. within 72 hours
B OM 7-2
You are the PM supervisor at PSP Media. A patrol member has requested a DRE to respond to PSP Media for a DRE evaluation. There are no DRE’s on-duty in the Troop and you have to utilize the callout procedures. You authorize a DRE to respond who is off-duty. In accordance with Department Regulations you must also do what?
a. The supervisor who approved the activation of the DRE shall notify the appropriate Patrol Section Commander or affected Bureau/Office Director via email of the date/time of the request, location of the incident, and pertinent details, including the criteria used to determine which DRE to contact/assign.
b. The supervisor who approved the activation of the DRE shall notify the appropriate Officer of the Day or affected Bureau/Office Director via email of the date/time of the request, location of the incident, and pertinent details, including the criteria used to determine which DRE to contact/assign.
c. The supervisor who approved the activation of the DRE shall notify the Director, Bureau of Patrol, via email of the date/time of the request, location of the incident and pertinent details, including the criteria used to determine which DRE to contact/assign.
d. The supervisor who approved the activation of the DRE shall notify the DRE Program Coordinator, via email of the date/time of the request, location of the incident and pertinent details, including the criteria used to determine which DRE to contact/assign.
A OM 7-15 patrol section commander via email
According to statute, once a health care facility notifies a local law enforcement agency that evidence has been collected in reference to an alleged sexual assault, the local law enforcement agency shall take custody of said evidence within _____________ hours.
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. 36
C Title 35 Chapter 54
As a Station Commander, a member under your command lost Department property and has been found negligent in their action causing the loss of said property. The member advises you that they are going to appeal the decision of negligence to the Director, Bureau of Staff Services for consideration by the appeal board. You remind the member they have _________ days to appeal the decision from the date of determination of negligence.
a. 60
b. 30
c. 14
d. 45
D FR 4-1 45 days
As a supervisor at Troop K Media, you have been assigned to complete a Supervisory Resolution. While beginning to discuss the incident with the involved member, the member requests a PSTA representative present prior to proceeding. As the supervisor assigned, you shall?
a. Stop discussing the incident and grant the request of a PSTA representative.
b. Advise the member they are not entitled to PSTA representation as they are not the subject of an IA investigation.
c. Advise the member they are not entitled to PSTA representation, however, provide Administrative Warnings prior to proceeding.
d. Advise the member they are not entitled to PSTA representation, however, provide the Notification of Inquiry.
B AR 4-25
According to AR 3-3, the Station Commander/Office Commander/Staff Services Section Commander may not serve as the third Alternate Custodial Officer.
A. True
B. False
B. False (The Station Commander/Office Commander/Staff Services Section Commander may serve as the third Alternate Custodial Officer) (AR 3-3 3.03 A.2) Note: When the Station Commander/Office Commander/Staff Services Section Commander serves as the third Alternate Custodial Officer, the Troop Commander or Bureau Director shall assign a supervisor who is not routinely or directly connected with the property management function at the inspected location to conduct all semiannual inspections.
