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CPJE SECRETS Flashcards

1
Q

Veetids

A

penicillin VK

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2
Q

counseling points for penicillin VK

A

take on an empty stomach

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3
Q

Timentin

A

ticarcillin/clavulanic

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4
Q

Zosyn

A

piperacillin/tazobactam

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5
Q

Principen

A

ampicillin

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6
Q

Unasyn

A

ampicillin/sulbactam

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7
Q

Amoxil

A

amoxiciilin

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8
Q

Augmentin

A

amoxicillin/sulbactam

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9
Q

dosing frequency for amoxicillin

A

Q8-12H PO WITHOUT food

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10
Q

counseling points about augmentin

A
  • REFRIGERATE suspension
  • ok for 14 days at room temperature
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11
Q

DOC for acute otitis media, H. pylori & endocarditis

A

augmentin or amoxicillin

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12
Q

which penicillins covers PSA

A

ticarcillin/clavulanic [Timentin]
piperacillin/tazobactam [Zosyn]

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13
Q

extended spectrum PCNs are used for SSTIs, endocarditis, bone & joint ifx

A

naficillin [Nafcil, Nallpen] IV
oxacillin [Bactocill] IV
dicloxacillin [Dynapen] PO

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14
Q

Nafcil

A

nafcillin

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15
Q

Nallpen

A

nafcillin

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16
Q

Bactobil

A

oxacillin

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17
Q

Dynapen

A

dicloxacillin

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18
Q

penicillins clinical pearls

A
  • renal metabolism/renal toxicity
  • pregnancy category B
  • ↓effectiveness birth control
  • penicillin G salts [K, procaine, benzathine] are given by deep IM injection
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19
Q

which peniciilin G salts are given by deep IM inj?

A

K, procaine, benzathine

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20
Q

1st gen cephalosporins

A
  • cefadroxil [Duricef]
  • cefazolin [Ancef, Kefzol]
  • cephalexin [Keflex]
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21
Q

what are 1st gen cephalosporins used for

A

gram(+), SSTIs

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22
Q

Duricef

A

cefadroxil

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23
Q

cefadroxil dosing

A
  • 1-2 g Q12-24H PO
  • CrCl 30-50: 500mg Q12H
  • CrCl 10-30: 500mg Q24H
  • CrCl <10: 500mg Q36H
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24
Q

Ancef

A

cefazolin

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25
Q

Kefzol

A

cefazolin

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26
Q

cefazolin dosing

A
  • 1-2g Q8H IV/IM
  • CrCl 10-30: Q12H
  • CrCl <10: Q24H
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27
Q

Keflex

A

cephalexin

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28
Q

cephalexin dosing

A
  • 250-500mg PO Q6H
  • CrCl 10-30: Q8-12H
  • CrCl <10: Q12-24H
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29
Q

2nd gen cephalosporins

A
  • cefoxitin [Mefoxin]
  • cefprozil [Cefzil]
  • cefaclor [Ceclor]
  • cefuroxime [Ceftin, Zinacef]
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30
Q

what 2nd gen cephalosporins cover

A

gram (+)/(-), respiratory

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31
Q

Mefoxin

A

cefoxitin

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32
Q

Cefzil

A

cefprozil

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33
Q

Ceclor

A

cefaclor

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34
Q

Ceftin

A

cefuroxime

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35
Q

Zinacef

A

cefuroxime

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36
Q

cefoxitin dosing

A
  • 1-2g Q4-6H IV/IM
  • CrCl 30-50: Q8-12H
  • CrCl 10-30: Q12-24H
  • CrCl <10L Q24-48H
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37
Q

cefprozil dosing

A
  • 250-500mg PO Q12-24H
  • CrCl <30: 1/2 dose
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38
Q

cefaclor dosing

A
  • 250-500mg PO Q8H
  • CrCl <10: 1/2 dose
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39
Q

cefuroxime dosing

A
  • 0.25-1.5g IV/IM/PO Q8-12H
  • CrCl 10-30: Q12H
  • CrCl <10: Q24H
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40
Q

3rd gen cephalosporins

A
  • cefdinir [Omnicef]
  • ceftazidime [Fortaz]
  • ceftriaxone [Rocephin]
  • cefotaxime [Claforan]
  • cefixime [Suprax]
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41
Q

Omnicef

A

cefdinir

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42
Q

Fortaz

A

ceftazidime

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43
Q

Rocephin

A

ceftriaxone

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44
Q

Claforan

A

cefotaxime

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45
Q

Suprax

A

cefixime

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46
Q

cefdinir dosing

A
  • 300-600mg PO Q12-24H
  • CrCl 10-30: Q24H
  • CrCl <10: QOD
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47
Q

ceftazidime dosing

A
  • 1-2g IV/IM Q8H
  • CrCl 30-50: Q12H
  • CrCl 10-30: Q24H
  • CrCl <10: 500mg Q24H
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48
Q

ceftriaxone dosing

A
  • 1-2g IV/IM Q12-24H
  • no renal adjustments
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49
Q

cefotaxime dosing

A
  • 1-2g IV/IM Q6-8H
  • CrCl <10: Q24H
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50
Q

cefixime dosing

A
  • 200-400mg PO Q12-24H
  • CrCl 30-50: decrease by 25%
  • CrCl <30: decrease by 50%
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51
Q

4th gen cephalosporins

A

cefepime [Maxipime]

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52
Q

Maxipime

A

cefepime

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53
Q

cefepime dosing

A
  • 0.5-2g IV/IM Q8H
  • CrCl <50: Q24H
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54
Q

5th gen cephalosporin

A

ceftaroline [Teflaro]

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55
Q

Teflaro

A

ceftaroline

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56
Q

ceftaroline dosing

A
  • 400-600mg IV Q12H
  • CrCl 10-30: 300mg
  • CrCl <10: 200mg
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57
Q

which cephalosporins cover PSA

A

ceftazidime & cefepime

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58
Q

cephalosporins clinical pearls

A
  • renal metabolism/toxicity [except ctx]
  • C.diff colitis
  • preg cat B
  • 1% cross sensitivity w/ PCNs → use 3rd gen
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59
Q

Zerbaxa

A

ceftolozane/tazobactam

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60
Q

Avycaz

A

ceftazidime/avibactam

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61
Q

which cephalosporins can be used for IAIs & UTIs

A

zerbaxa & avycaz
- given IV

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62
Q

Fetroja

A

cefiderocol

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63
Q

what dose Fetroja cover

A
  • siderophore cephalosporin for complicated UTIs
  • gram(-) coverage
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64
Q

what do carbapenems cover

A
  • gram +/- & anaerobes
  • PSA except ertapenem
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65
Q

Primaxin

A

imipenem/cilastatin

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66
Q

Merrem

A

meropenem

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67
Q

Invanz

A

ertapenem

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68
Q

Doribax

A

doripenem

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69
Q

imipenem/cilstatin dosing

A

1g Q6H IV

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70
Q

meropenem dosing

A

2g IV/IM Q8H

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71
Q

ertapenem dosing

A

1g IV/IM QD

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72
Q

doripenem dosing

A

500mg IV Q8H

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73
Q

carbapenem clinical pearls

A
  • renal metabolism/toxicity
  • risk of seizures
  • preg cat B → cat C for imipenem
  • allergic rxn rare in pts w/ rxn to pcn
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74
Q

Recarbio

A

imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam

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75
Q

what does Recarbio cover

A
  • complicated UTIs or IAIs
  • combo with renal dehydropeptidase inhibitor & beta-lactamase inhibitor
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76
Q

what do monobactams cover

A

gram (-)
PSA

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77
Q

monobactams

A

aztreonam [Azactam]

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78
Q

Azactam

A

aztreonam

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79
Q

aztreonam dosing

A

2g IV Q8H

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80
Q

monobactam clinical pearls

A
  • renal dosing
  • ok w/ PCN allergy → safe alternative for allergic pts w/ nosocomial ifx
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81
Q

macrolides

A
  • azithromycin [Zithromax, Z-Pak]
  • clarithromycin [Biaxin]
  • erythromycin [EES, Ery-tab, Erythrocin]
  • telithromycin [Ketek]
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82
Q

what do macrolides cover

A
  • gram +/-
  • URI, chlamydia, atypicals, CAP, anaeroves
  • P450 blockers except azithromycin
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83
Q

Zithromax, Z-Pak

A

azithromycin

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84
Q

Biaxin

A

clarithromycin

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85
Q

EES, Ery-Tab, Erythrocin

A

erythromycin

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86
Q

Ketek

A

telithromycin

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87
Q

azithromycin dosing

A
  • 500mg day 1 + 250mg days 2-5
  • 500mg x3 days
  • no renal adjustment
  • tk w/ or w/o food → ER susp on EMPTY STOMACH
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88
Q

clarithromycin dosing

A
  • 1g QD WITH FOOD
  • CrCl <30: 1/2 dose
  • causes metallic taste
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89
Q

erythromycin dosing

A
  • 400mg PO QID w/ or w/o food
  • REFRIGERATE SUSP
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90
Q

telithromycin dosing

A
  • 800mg PO QD
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91
Q

macrolide clinical pearls

A
  • azithro & clarithro susp: DO NOT REFRIGERATE
  • QT prolongation [not telithro]
  • preg cat B: azithro & erythro
  • preg cat C: clarithro
  • SE: GI, cholestatic hepatitis [rare], allergies are rare
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92
Q

telithromycin clinical pearls

A
  • CI: allergy to macrolides
  • BBW: DNU in myasthenia gravis [respiratory failure]
  • MedGuide → preg cat C
  • monitor visual adverse effects & loss of consciousness
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93
Q

lincosamide abx

A

clindamycin [Cleocin]
gram(+)

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94
Q

Cleocin

A

clindamycin

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95
Q

clindamycin dosing

A
  • 450mg PO TID-QID w/ or w/o food
  • 600-900mg IV Q6-8H
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96
Q

clindamycin clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: C.diff colitis
  • preg cat B
  • do NOT refrigerate
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97
Q

fluoroquinolones abx

A
  • ofloxacin [Floxin]
  • ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
  • delafloxacin [Baxdela]
  • levofloxacin [Levaquin]
  • moxifloxacin [Avelox, Vigamox]
  • gemifloxacin [Factive]
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98
Q

fluoroquinolones coverage

A
  • gram +/-
  • atypicals
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99
Q

fluoroquinolones clinical pearls

A
  • no need to take food
  • do NOT refrigerate
  • BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS effects
  • photosensitivity → avoid skin sun exposure
  • hypoglycemia → check sugars
  • crystalluria → hydrate
  • seizures → avoid if seizure hx
  • c.diff diarrhea
  • QT prolongation
  • preg cat C → cartilage damage
  • interacts w/ multivalent cations → antacids, didanosine [Videx], iron, Zn, sucralfate [Carafate], resins, MV, dairy
  • inhibit CYP450 → increase INR
  • renal dose adjustments [except moxi]
  • gatifloxacin for eye infections only
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100
Q

FQ risk of QT prolongation

A

moxi > levo > cipro

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101
Q

Floxin

A

ofloxacin

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102
Q

Cipro

A

ciprofloxacin

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103
Q

Baxdela

A

delafloxacin

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104
Q

Levaquin

A

levofloxacin

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105
Q

Avelox, Vigamox

A

moxifloxacinF

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106
Q

Factive

A

gemifloxacin

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107
Q

which are respiratory FQs

A

levo, moxi, gemi

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108
Q

ofloxacin dosing

A

400mg Q12H PO/otic

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109
Q

which FQ is the most potent CYP inhibitor

A

cipro

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110
Q

ciprofloxacin dosing

A
  • 200-400mg IV/opth/otic Q8H
  • 250-750mg PO BID or QD
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111
Q

delafloxacin dosing

A
  • 300mg IV
  • 450mg PO
  • for SSTIs
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112
Q

levofloxacin dosing

A
  • 500-750mg IV/PO/opth QD

CrCl <50L
- 750mg Q24H → Q48H
- 500mg Q24H → 500mg x1 then 250mg Q24H
- 250mg Q24H → no dose adjustment

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113
Q

moxifloxacin dosing

A
  • 400mg Q24H IV/PO/opth
  • no renal dosing
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114
Q

gemifloxacin

A
  • 320mg Q24H IV/PO
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115
Q

tetracyclines coverage

A
  • atypicals, rickettsial, VRE
  • anthrax, syphilis, MRSA, lyme, rocky mountain spotted fever, skin & urinary ifx
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116
Q

tetracyclines abx

A
  • doxycycline [Vibramycin/Doryx]
  • minocycline [Minocin, Dynacin, Solodyn]
  • tetracyclin [Sumycin]
  • tigecycline [Tygacil]
  • omadacycline [Nuzrya] → CAP & SSTIs
  • eravacycline [Xerava] → complicated IAIs
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117
Q

tetracyclines clinical pearls

A
  • doxy: tk w/ food to decrease GI SE
  • all: tk w/ water to decrease GI, upright 30 min
  • photosensitivity
  • CI: children ≤8 [tooth discoloration]
  • preg cat D → avoid!!
  • interacts w/ multivalent cations
  • inhibits CYP450 → increases INR
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118
Q

Vibramycin

A

doxycycline

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119
Q

Doryx

A

doxycycline

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120
Q

Minocin

A

minocycline

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121
Q

Dynacin

A

minocycline

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122
Q

Solodyn

A

minocycline

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123
Q

Sumycin

A

tetracycline

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124
Q

Tygacil

A

tetracycline

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125
Q

Nuzyra

A

omadacycline

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126
Q

Xerava

A

eravacycline

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127
Q

doxycycline dosing

A

100mg Q12H

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128
Q

minocycline dosing

A

100mg Q12H

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129
Q

tetracycline dosing

A

500mg Q6H

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130
Q

tigecycline

A

100mg x1, then 50mg Q12H IV

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131
Q

Synercid

A

quinupristin/dalfopristin

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132
Q

synercid coverage

A

gram(+), MRSA, VRE

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133
Q

Synercid dosing

A

7.5mg/kg IV Q8H
- no renal dose adjustment

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134
Q

Synercid clinical pearls

A
  • D5W only
  • SE: hyperbilirubinemia, phlebitis, myalgias
  • volume must be ≥250mL to be given peripherally
  • CYP3A4 inhibitor
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135
Q

Cubicin

A

daptomycin

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136
Q

daptomycin coverage

A
  • gram (+), MRSA, VRE
  • no pneumonia
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137
Q

daptomycin dosing

A
  • 6mg/kg IV QD
  • adjust in renal dysfunction
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138
Q

daptomycin clinical pearls

A
  • NS only
  • SE: rhabdomyolysis → monitor CPK, careful if pt n statin
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139
Q

Vibativ

A

telavancin

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140
Q

telavancin coverage

A

gram (+), MRSA

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141
Q

telavancin dosing

A

10 mg/kg IV QD
- adjust in renal dysfunction

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142
Q

telavancin clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: preg cat C → need preg test prior
  • 3A4/5 inhibitor & additive QT prolongation effects
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143
Q

Zyvox

A

linezolid

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144
Q

linezolid coverage

A

gram (+), MRSA, VRE

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145
Q

linezolid dosing

A
  • 600mg Q12H PO/IV
  • trough: <2 ug/mL
  • peak: 12-26 ug/mL
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146
Q

linezolid clinical pearls

A
  • do NOT refrigerate
  • SE: myelosuppression
  • MAOI → avoid tyramine foods, serotonergic drugs & adrenergic drugs [HTN crisis]
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147
Q

Flagyl

A

metronidazole

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148
Q

Tindamax

A

tinidazole

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149
Q

metronidazole & tinidazole coverage

A
  • anaerobic
  • bacterial vaginosis, amoebiasis, giardiasis, trichomoniasis [anaerobes, protozoa]
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150
Q

metronidazole & tinidazole dosing

A
  • 500mg Q6H PO/IV
  • TAKE WITH FOOD to prevent stomach upset
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151
Q

metronidazole & tinidazole clinical pearls

A
  • SE: leukopenia, neutropenia, metallic taste, furry tongue, darkened urine, disulfiram-like rxn w/ alcohol
  • most serious SE: CNS & convulsive seizures
  • monitor: CBC, WBC w/diff
  • preg cat B
  • CYP2C9 inhibitor → increase INR & decrease birth control effect
  • do NOT refrigerate IV form [crystals]
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152
Q

abx w/ narrow therapeutic window monitoring

A
  • peak: 30 min after infusion [2-3 hour for vanco]
  • trough: before next dose
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153
Q

abx w/ narrow therapeutic window

A
  • AMGs
  • vanco
  • chloramphenicol
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154
Q

aminoglycosides

A
  • gentamicin
  • tobramycin
  • amikacin
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155
Q

AMG coverage

A
  • gram(-) → PSA, E. coli, klebsiella
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156
Q

gentamicin & tobramycin dosing

A

2 mg/kg/dose IV Q8H

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157
Q

gentamicin & tobramycin peak & trough goals

A

peak: ≤10 mcg/mL
trough: <2 mcg/mL

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158
Q

AMGs clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: neuro/nephro/ototoxicity
    • nephro is reversible
    • oto is irreversible
  • preg cat C/D
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159
Q

amikacin dosing

A

7.5mg/kg/dose IV Q8H

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160
Q

amikacin peak & trough goals

A

peak: ≤30 mcg/mL
trough: <5 mcg/mL

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161
Q

Zemdril

A

plazomicin

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162
Q

Vancocin

A

vancomycin

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163
Q

vancomycin coverage

A

PO for C.diff
IV for MRSA

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164
Q

vancomycin dosing

A
  • 15mg/kg or 500mg-2g/day divided Q6-12H
  • dilute to max 5mg/mL
  • CrCl 40-79: Q24H
  • CrCl 25-39: Q48H
  • CrCl <25: check trough
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165
Q

vancomycin peak & trough goals

A

peak: ≤40 mcg/mL [>80 mcg/mL is toxic]
trough: <10 mcg/mL [20 for severe ifx]

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166
Q

vancomycin clinical pearls

A
  • nephro/ototoxicity
  • DNU w/ other nephro/ototoxic drugs → MAGs, ampB
  • rates >15mg/min = red man syndrome
  • preg cat C
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167
Q

chloramphenicol clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: blood dyscrasias → can induce rare and irreversible bone marrow suppression
  • must monitor CBC
  • SE: gray syndrome of neonates
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168
Q

UTI trx

A
  1. fosfomycin [Monurol]
  2. sulfamethoxazole & trimethoprim [Bactrim, Septra]
  3. nitrofurantoin [Macrobid, Macrodantin]

others:
- fluoroquinolones → cipro or levo
- beta-lactams [less efficacy] → amoxil, augmentin, keflex, rocephin
- methenamine [UREX]

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169
Q

UTI ppx

A
  • methenamine [UREX] → to prevent recurrent UTIs
  • cranberry juice may potentially prevent
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170
Q

UTI symptoms trx

A

phenazopyridine [Azo, Uristat, Pyridium]
- urinary analgesic

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171
Q

UTI trx for pregnant pts

A
  • treat for 7 days to prevent premature birth
  • beta-lactams & fosfomycin
  • nitrofurantoin ok before 37 weeks
  • phenazopyridine for symptoms
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172
Q

Monurol

A

fosfomycin

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173
Q

Bactrim/Septra

A

SMX/TMP

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174
Q

Macrobid

A

nitrofurantoin monohydrate macrocrystal

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175
Q

Macrodantin

A

nitrofurantoin macrocrystal

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176
Q

fosfomycin dosing

A

3g x1

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177
Q

fosfomycin clinical pearls

A

diarrhea

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178
Q

SMX/TMP dosing

A
  • SS: 400mg SMX/80mg TMP
  • DS: 800mg SMX/160mg TMP [5:1 ratio]
  • adults: DS tab BID
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179
Q

SMX/TMP clinical pearls

A
  • take with food
  • caution w/ sulfa allergy
  • preg cat C
  • do NOT refrigerate
  • short stability [6 H]
  • protect from light when undiluted
  • D5W only!!
  • crystalluria → hydrate to prevent kidney stones
  • photosensitivity
  • 2C8/9 inhibitors → increases INR
  • serious skin rashes
  • watch for blood dyscrasias
  • don’t give in G6PD deficiency
  • adjust dose for CrCl <30 mL/min
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180
Q

nitrofurantoin clinical pearls

A
  • take with food
  • interacts with Mg antacids
  • dark urine color
  • serious lung problems & C.diff
  • preg cat D near term
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181
Q

nitrofurantoin dosing

A

macrobid: 100mg BID
macrodantin: 100mg QID

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182
Q

methanamine clinical pearls

A
  • 1g BID
  • avoid alkalinizing foods/meds
  • urinary antiseptic
  • monitor liver function
  • preg cat C
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183
Q

phenazopyridine clinical pearls

A
  • 200mg TID [Rx]
  • 100mg TID [OTC] x2 days
  • urinary analgesic
  • Azo dye → red-orange urine
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184
Q

latent TB trx

A
  • INH + rifapentine once weekly x3 months
  • rifampin QD x4 months
  • INH + rifampin QD x3 months
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185
Q

active TB trx

A
  • rifampin + INH + pyrazinamide + ethambutol x26 weeks [initial phase]
  • rifampin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol +/- FQ x6 months [if resistance to INH]
  • INH + ethambutol + FQ + pyrazinamide [x 2mo] x12-18 mo → if resistance to RIF
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186
Q

drug-resistant TB abx

A

pretomanid

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187
Q

isoniazid clinical pearls

A
  • hepatoxic
  • tk on empty stomach
  • BBW: fatal hepatitis
  • neurotoxic → add Vit B6 [pyridoxine] to prevent neuropathy
  • lupud/flu-like symptoms
  • P-450 inhibitor
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188
Q

Rifadin

A

rifampin

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189
Q

Priftin

A

rifapentine

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190
Q

Myambutol

A

ethambutol

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191
Q

rifampin clinical pearls

A
  • orange urine/body fluids
  • flu-like syndrome
  • CYP3A4 inducers → decreased bioavailability & increased clearance of coadministered meds [decrease efficacy of oral contraceptives]
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192
Q

rifapentine clinical pearls

A
  • orange urine/body fluids
  • allergy rxn & flu-like syndrome
  • decreased WBC & RBC!!
  • CYP3A4 inducers → decreased bioavailability & increased clearance of coadministered meds [decrease efficacy of oral contraceptives]
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193
Q

ethambutol clinical pearls

A
  • optic neuritis → monthly vision tests
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194
Q

Amphocin

A

amp B infusion
- for life-threatening fungal ifx

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195
Q

Abelcet

A

ampB lipid complex

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196
Q

AmBisome

A

liposomal ampB

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197
Q

ampB clinical pearls

A
  • preg cat B
  • decreased K+ → enhances digoxin toxicity
  • decreased Mg2+
  • nephrotoxicity → DNU w/ cyclosporin, AMGs, flucytosine, cisplatin
  • D5W only
  • pre-medicate for infusion-related rxn
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198
Q

Ancobon, 5-FC

A

flucytosine

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199
Q

flucytosine clinical pearls

A
  • converts to fluorouracil
  • causes bone marrow suppression
  • avoid monotherapy d/t rapid resistance
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200
Q

Cancidas

A

caspofungin

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201
Q

caspofungin dosing

A

500mg IV QD
NS only!!!

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202
Q

Mycamine

A

micafungin

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203
Q

mycamine dosing

A

100mg IV QD

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204
Q

azole antifungals

A
  • ketoconazole [Nizoral]
  • fluconazole [Diflucan]
  • itraconazole [Sporanox]
  • voriconazole [Vfend]
  • posaconazole [Noxafil]
  • isavuconazonium [Cresembra]
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205
Q

Nizoral

A

ketoconazole

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206
Q

Diflucan

A

fluconazole

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207
Q

Sporanox

A

itraconazole

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208
Q

Vfend

A

voriconazole

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209
Q

Noxafil

A

posaconazole

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210
Q

Cresemba

A

isavuconazonium

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211
Q

ketoconazole dosing

A

400mg QD

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212
Q

ketoconazole clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: hepatotoxicity
  • need acidic pH for absorption → avoid using with antacids, H2RAs, PPIs
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213
Q

fluconazole dosing

A

400mg QD

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214
Q

fluconazole IV to PO

A

IV:PO = 1:1

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215
Q

fluconazole clinical pearls

A
  • single dosing: 150mg tab x1
  • if taken longer, counsel on possible hepatotoxicity or serious skin rash
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216
Q

itraconazole dosing

A

400mg QD

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217
Q

itraconazole clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: heart failure
  • note: oral caps & oral sol → CANNOT use interchangeably
    • caps need food [gastric acidity] for absorption
    • sol can take on empty stomach
  • need acidic pH for absorption → avoid antacids, H2RAs, PPIs
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218
Q

Mycostatin

A

Nystatin

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219
Q

oral yeast ifx trx

A
  • Rx only!!
  • TOP: nystatin susp 4-5x daily [swish & swallow] or clotrimazole lozenges
  • PO: fluconazole or itraconazole
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220
Q

Mycelex

A

clotrimazole

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221
Q

vaginal candida ifx trx

A

PO [Rx]:
- fluconazole 150mg PO x1 [can repeat] and itraconazole → increased resistance from azoles
- ibrexafungerp [Brexafemme] 150mg - 2 pills AM & 2 pills PM

INTRAVAGINAL/TOP [OTC]: 1, 3, 7(14) day regimens
- safe for pregnancy
- clotrimazole [Gyne-Lotrimin-7, Mycelex-7]: 1% cream x7 days, supp 100mg x7 days
- miconazole [Monistat-1, Monistat-3, Monistat-7]: supp 1.2g x1, 200mg x3 days or 100mg x7 days
- nystatin vaginal insert [Mycostatin]: 100,000 units QD x14 days
- butoconazole [Femstat-3, Gynazole-1]: 2% cream 5g x1-3 days
- tioconazole [Vagistat-1]: 6.5% oint 5g x1
- terconazole cream [Terazol]: 0.4% cream x7 days, 0.8% cream x3 days, supp [Zazole] 80mg x3 days

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222
Q

Brexafemme

A

ibrexafungerp

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223
Q

Gyne-Lotrimin-7, Mycelex-7

A

clotrimazole

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224
Q

Monistat

A

miconazole

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225
Q

Mycostatin

A

nystatin vaginal insert

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226
Q

Femstat-3, Gynazole-1

A

butoconazole

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227
Q

Vagistat-1

A

tioconazole

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228
Q

Terazol

A

terconazole cream

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229
Q

Zazole

A

terconazole supp

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230
Q

HSV-1 vs HSV-2

A

HSV-1: oropharyngeal [cold sores or fever blisters]
HSV-2: genital

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231
Q

HSV trx

A
  • Rx: acyclovir [Zovirax], valacyclovir [Valtrex], penciclovir [Denavir]
  • works best taken at 1st sign of outbreak within 1st day
  • PO: 200mg 2-5 times QD [drink lots of fluid]
  • cream: 6 times/day x7 days
  • valacyclovir: 2g BID x1 day for herpes labialis
  • use foscarnet if resistant to acyclovir/valacyclovir/famciclovir
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232
Q

cytomegalovirus trx

A
  • ganciclovir [Cytovene, Cymevene, Vitrasert ocular]
  • valganciclovir [Valcyte]
  • cidofovir [Vistide]
  • foscarnet [Foscavir]
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233
Q

which abx has been clinically shown to decrease effectiveness of birth control pills

A

rifampin

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234
Q

abx for PSA

A
  • AMGs
  • beta-lactams: cefepime, ceftazidime, zosyn, ticarcillin-clavulanate
  • aztreonam
  • carbapenems: imi, mero, dori
  • FQ: cipro, levo
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235
Q

abx during pregnanct

A
  • beta-lactams: PCNs, cephalosporins & carbapenems [no imi]
  • clindamycin
  • macrolides: azithro, erythro [NO claritho]
  • flagyl ok for bacterial vaginosis or vaginal trichomoniasis
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236
Q

oral abx susp that should not be refrigerated

A
  • azithromycin
  • clarithromycin
  • clindamysin
  • FQs
  • voriconzole
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237
Q

C.diff ifx trx

A
  • vanco PO [Firvanq] 125mg QID [500mg QID with flagyl IV if severe/complicated] AND/OR
  • fidaxomicin [Dificid] 200mg tab BID x10 days
  • alt: flagyl
  • bezlotoxumab [Zinplava]: human mAb that neutralized effect of C.diff → 10 mg/kg IV x1 w/ abx
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238
Q

abx ped dosing

A
  • amox: 50mg/kg [max 2g]; susp = 50mg/mL

PCN allergy:
- clindamycin 20mg/kg [max 600mg]
- azithromycin 15mg/kg [max 500mg]
- clarithromycin 15mg/kg [max 500mg]

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239
Q

Zovirax

A

acyclovir

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240
Q

Valtrex

A

valacyclovir

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241
Q

Denavir

A

penciclovir

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242
Q

Famvir

A

famciclovir

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243
Q

Cytovene, Cymevene

A

ganciclovir

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244
Q

Vitrasert

A

ganciclovir ocular

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245
Q

Valcyte

A

valganciclovir

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246
Q

Vistide

A

cidofovir

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247
Q

Foscavir

A

foscarnet

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248
Q

Firvanq

A

vanco PO

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249
Q

Dificid

A

fidaxomicin

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250
Q

Zinplava

A

bezlotoxumab

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251
Q

malaria ppx regimen

A

start 1-2 days prior to travel & continue QD until 7 days after travel
- atovaquone-proguanil [Malarone]
- primaquine: CI w/ G6PD deficiency

need to be taken for 4 weeks after travel:
- chloroquine [weekly]: if on hydroxychloroquine, don’t need additional meds
- mefloquine [Lariam]: weekly; CI in neuro/psych disorders
- doxycycline: daily

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252
Q

malaria trx regimen

A

chloroquine-resistant:
- atovaquone-proguanil [Malarone] x3 days
- artemether-lumefantrine [Coartem] x3 days
- quinine x3-7 days PLUS doxy, tetra or clinda x7 days
- mefloquine [Lariam]
- sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine [Fansidar]

chloroquine-sensitive:
- chloroquine [Aralen]: 600mg base PO + 300mg base PO at 6, 24, 28 hours
- hydroxychloroquine [Plaquenil]
- primaquine

severe malaria:
- artesunate IV then malarone, doxy [clinda if preg] or mefloquine

pregnant:
- chloroquine phosphate OR hydroxychlorouine, quinine + clinda, OR mefloquine
- tafenoquine [Krintafel] for prevention of relapse of p. vivax ifx

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253
Q

quinine clinical pearls

A
  • SE: cinchonism
  • overdosage may lead to cardiotoxicity
  • monitor for hypoglycemia
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254
Q

sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine clinical pearls

A
  • SE: bone marrow suppression, hemolysis with G6PD deficiency
  • sulfa allergy
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255
Q

hydroxychloroquine clinical pearls

A
  • SE: toxicity in eye w/ chronic use
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256
Q

Malarone

A

atovaquone-proguanil

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257
Q

Lariam

A

mefloquine

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258
Q

Coartem

A

artemether-lumefantrine

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259
Q

Fansidar

A

sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine

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260
Q

Aralen

A

chloroquine

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261
Q

Plaquenil

A

hydroxychloroquine

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262
Q

Krintafel

A

tafenoquine

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263
Q

normal BP

A

<120/80 mmHg

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264
Q

elevated BP

A

SBP 120-129 AND DBP <80

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265
Q

stage 1 HTN

A

SBP 130-139 OR DBP 80-90

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266
Q

stage 2 HTN

A

SBP ≥140 OR DBP ≥90

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267
Q

thiazide diuretics clinical pearls

A
  • diuretics of choice → if NO renal impairment
  • SULFA drugs → photosensitivity rash
  • metolazone ok if renal dysfunction
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268
Q

Diuril

A

chlorothiazide

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269
Q

Microzide

A

HCTZ

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270
Q

Hydrodiuril

A

HCTZ

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271
Q

Dyazide

A

HCTZ + triamterene

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272
Q

Maxzide

A

HCTZ + triamterene

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273
Q

Thalidone

A

chlorthalidone

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274
Q

Hygroton

A

chlorthalidone

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275
Q

Zaroxolyn

A

metolazone

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276
Q

Lozol

A

indapamide

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277
Q

chlorothiazide target dose

A

500mg

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278
Q

HCTZ target dose

A

50mg

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279
Q

chlorthalidone target dose

A

25mg

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280
Q

metolazone target dose

A

20mg

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281
Q

indapamide target dose

A

2.5mg

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282
Q

which diuretics cause metabolic alkalosis

A

thiazides & loops

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283
Q

which diuretics cause metabolic acidosis

A

K+ sparing & aldosterone antagonists

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284
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

decrease:
- K+ [hypokalemia]
- Na+ [hyponatremia]
- Mg2+

increase:
- BG, TG, TC, UA

monitor: diabetes & gout
thiazides: increase Ca2+
loops: decrease Ca2+ [decrease bone density]

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285
Q

Lasix

A

furosemide

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286
Q

Demadex

A

torsemide

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287
Q

Bumex

A

bumetanide

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288
Q

Edecrin

A

ethacrynic acid

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289
Q

loop diuretics clinical pearls

A
  • SULFA drugs → photosensitivity, rash
  • diuretics of choice if renal disease
  • increase fluid depletion → for edema in HR & need K+ supp
  • IV is light sensitivity & can cause ototoxicity
  • Edecrin: avoid with AMGs
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290
Q

furosemide target dose

A

40mg BID

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291
Q

bumetanide target dose

A

1mg BID

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291
Q

torsemide target dose

A

10mg QD

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292
Q

ethacrynic acid target dose

A

25-50mg
ok for sulfa allergy

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293
Q

oral loop dose equivalency

A

furo 40mg = tor 20mg = bume 1mg

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294
Q

Dyrenium

A

triamterene

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295
Q

triamterene target dose

A

300mg

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296
Q

Midamor

A

amiloride

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297
Q

amiloride target dose

A

20mg

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298
Q

aldosterone antagonists clinical pearls

A
  • SE: gynecomastia [spironolactone only]
  • for HF & HTN
  • CI in pregnancy
  • tk spironolactone w/ food
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299
Q

Aldactone

A

spironolactone

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300
Q

Carospir

A

spironolactone

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301
Q

Inspra

A

eplerenone

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302
Q

spironolactone target dose

A

25-50mg

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303
Q

eplerenone target dose

A

25-50mg

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304
Q

metabolic acidosis

A
  • monitor: increased K+, decreased Ca2+, gout
  • CI if CrCl <30 mL/min
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305
Q

ACE-I & ARB clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: CI in pregnancy & bilateral renal artery stenosis [drops glomerular perfusion pressure]
  • metabolic acidosis
  • can increase K+
  • AE: dry cough [mainly ACE-I], HA, dizziness, angioedema [esp black pts]
  • well tolerated, no need to take w/ food
  • monitor renal function → 1st line in CKD bc antihypertensive & anti-inflammatory
  • avoid combo w/ NSAIDs
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306
Q

why can’t lithium be given with diuretics

A

diuretics decrease lithium’s renal clearance & increase toxicity

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307
Q

what can licorice cause in large amounts

A

increase BP, salt and water retention, & decrease K+ levels

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308
Q

Lotensin

A

benazepril

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309
Q

Capoten

A

captopril

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310
Q

Vasotec

A

enalapril

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311
Q

Enalaprilat

A

injectable enalapril

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312
Q

Monopril

A

fosinopril

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313
Q

Zestril

A

lisinopril

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314
Q

Prinivil

A

lisinopril

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315
Q

Prinzide

A

lisinopril + HCTZ

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316
Q

Zestorectic

A

lisinopril + HCTZ

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317
Q

Univasc

A

moexipril

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318
Q

Accupril

A

quinapril

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319
Q

Altace

A

ramipril

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320
Q

Mavik

A

trandolapril

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321
Q

target dose of benazepril

A

40mg

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322
Q

target dose of captopril

A

50mg TID

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323
Q

target dose of enalapril

A

40mg

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324
Q

target dose of fosinopril

A

40mg

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325
Q

target dose of lisinopril

A

40mg

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326
Q

target dose of moexipril

A

30mg

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327
Q

target dose of quinapril

A

40mg

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328
Q

target dose of ramipril

A

10mg

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329
Q

trandolapril

A

4mg

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330
Q

Atacand

A

candesartan

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331
Q

Teveten

A

eprosartan

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332
Q

Avapro

A

irbesartan

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333
Q

Avalide

A

irbesartan + HCTZ

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334
Q

Cozaar

A

losartan

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335
Q

Hyzaar

A

losartan + HCTZ

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336
Q

Diovan

A

valsartan

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337
Q

Benicar

A

olmesartan

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338
Q

Micardis

A

telmisartan

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339
Q

Edarbi

A

azilsartan

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340
Q

candesartan target dose

A

32mg

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341
Q

eprosartan target dose

A

800mg

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342
Q

irbesartan target dose

A

300mg

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343
Q

losartan target dose

A

100mg

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344
Q

valsartan target dose

A

320mg

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345
Q

olmesartan target dose

A

40mg

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346
Q

telmisartan target dose

A

80mg

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347
Q

azilsartan target dose

A

80mg

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348
Q

what are beta-blockers CI in

A
  • diabetes
  • asthma & COPD
  • bradycardia
  • heart block
  • caution in unstable F & peripheral vascular disease
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349
Q

beta-blockers side effects

A
  • dyslipidemia & weight gain
  • fluid retention
  • fatigue, depression, decreased libido
  • dizziness → tk w/ food
  • don’t d/c abruptly
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350
Q

beta-blocker indications

A
  • HTN → 2nd line
  • post-MI
  • angina
  • tachyarrhythmias
  • stable HF
  • migraine & glaucoma
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351
Q

cardioselective beta-blockers

A

beta-1 selective [excitatory heart]
BE A MAN

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352
Q

Tenormin

A

atenolol

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353
Q

Tenoretic

A

atenolol + chlorthalidone

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354
Q

Lopressor

A

metoprolol tartrate IR

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355
Q

Toprol

A

metoprolol succinate ER

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356
Q

Brevibloc

A

esmolol → IV for HTN emergency

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357
Q

Zebeta

A

bisoprolol

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358
Q

Ziac

A

bisoprolol + HCTZ

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359
Q

Kerlone

A

betaxolol

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360
Q

Betoptic

A

betaxolol for glaucoma

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361
Q

Sectral

A

acebutolol

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362
Q

Bystolic

A

nebivolol → increases nitric oxide production

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363
Q

max dose of atenolol

A

100mg

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364
Q

max dose of metoprolol

A
  • 25-200mg
  • HTN: 400mg/d
  • HF: HF 200mg/d
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365
Q

max dose of bisoprolol

A

10mg

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366
Q

max dose of betaxolol

A

40mg

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367
Q

max dose of acebutolol

A

400mg BID

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368
Q

max dose of nebivolol

A

40mg

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369
Q

non-selective beta-blockers

A
  • b-1 & b-2 blockers
  • b-2: bronchodilators
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370
Q

Inderal LA, InnoPran

A

propranolol → tk w/ food

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371
Q

propranolol max dose

A

IR 80mg BID
ER QD

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372
Q

Blocadren

A

timolol

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373
Q

Timoptic

A

timolol → glaucoma

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374
Q

timolol max dose

A

40mg BID

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375
Q

Visken

A

pindolol

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376
Q

pindolol max dose

A

40mg BID

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377
Q

Corgard

A

nadalol

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378
Q

nadalol max dose

A

320mg

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379
Q

Levatol

A

penbutolol

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380
Q

penbutolol max dose

A

80mg

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381
Q

Cartrol

A

carteolol

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382
Q

carteolol max dose

A

10mg

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383
Q

Ocupress

A

carteolol → glaucoma

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384
Q

Normodyne

A

labetalol → tk w/ food

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385
Q

Trandate

A

labetalol → tk w/ food

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386
Q

labetalol max dose

A

800mg BID [2400mg/d]

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387
Q

Coreg

A

carvedilol → tk w/ food

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388
Q

carvedilol max dose

A

IR: 50mg BID
ER: 80mg QD
3.125-6.25-12.5-25mg tabs

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389
Q

Cardizem

A

diltiazem

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390
Q

Calan

A

verapamil

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391
Q

Isoptin

A

verapamil

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392
Q

Verelan

A

verapamil

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393
Q

Covera

A

verapamil

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394
Q

non-DHP CCB clinical pearls

A
  • more negative inotropic effects → BRADYCARDIA
  • CI in 2-3rd AV block, acute MI, BB use
  • effective for arrhythmias
  • preferred for CKD & diabetic nephropathy
  • SE: gingival hyperplasia, constipation
  • CYP3A4 DDIs
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395
Q

DHP CCB clinical pearls

A
  • more potent vasodilators → reflex TACHYCARDIA
  • ok with BBs but CI if acute mI
  • ineffective for arrhythmias
  • SE: HA, flushing, edema of ankle
  • no significant DDIs
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396
Q

Norvasc

A

amlodipine

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397
Q

Katerzia

A

amlodipine PO susp

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398
Q

Lotrel

A

amlodipine + benazepril

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399
Q

Exforge

A

amlodipine + valsartan

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400
Q

Azor

A

amlodipine + olmesartan

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401
Q

Plendil

A

felodipine ER

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402
Q

DynaCirc

A

isradipine CR

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403
Q

Cardene

A

nicardipine

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404
Q

Adalat CC

A

nifedipine ER

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405
Q

Procardia XL

A

nifedipine ER

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406
Q

Sular

A

nisoldipine

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407
Q

alpha-1 blockers clinical pearls

A
  • syncope d/t orthostatic HoTN after initial dose, dizziness, fatigue
  • titrate
  • mainly for BPH
  • for HTN: doxazosin, terazosin, prazosin
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408
Q

Cardura

A

doxazosin

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409
Q

Hytrin

A

terazosin

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410
Q

Minipress

A

prazosin

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411
Q

Flomax

A

tamsulosin

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412
Q

Uroxatral

A

alfuzosin

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413
Q

Rapaflo

A

Silodosin

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414
Q

alpha-2 agonist clinical pearls

A
  • caution: bradycardia, dry mouth, fatigure, depression, psychotic rxn, impotence, rebound HTN
  • clonidine for resistance HTN & pts who can’t swallow
  • clonidine off-label for opioid withdrawal, anxiety & sleep
  • methyldopa SE: lupus-like symptoms, hepatitis, myocarditis, hemolytic anemia
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415
Q

Catapres

A

clonidine

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416
Q

clonidine dosing

A
  • 0.1-0.3mg BID
  • patch is weekly
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417
Q

Aldomet

A

methyldopa

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418
Q

methyldopa dosing

A

500mg BID [max 3000mg/day]

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419
Q

Wytensin

A

guanabenz

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420
Q

Tenex

A

guanfacine

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421
Q

direct vasodilators clinical pearls

A
  • caution: reflex tachycardia
  • hydralazine: lupus like symptoms
  • minoxidil: hair growth
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422
Q

adrenergic neuron blockers clinical pearls

A
  • caution: bradycardia, depression
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423
Q

Apresoline

A

hydralazine

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424
Q

Loniten

A

minoxidil

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425
Q

Serpasil

A

Reserpine

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426
Q

reserpine dosing

A

0.05-0.25mg

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427
Q

IV agents for hypertensive crisis

A
  • hydralazine
  • NTG [Tridil] → absorbs into plastic, DNU PVC
  • labetalol, esmolol
  • enalaprilat
  • clonidine
  • phentolamine [Regitine]
  • nitroprusside [Nipride] → most effective
  • nicardipine
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428
Q

HTN in pregnancy

A
  • 1st line: methyldopa & labetalol
  • 2nd line: hydralazine, nifedipine & BBs
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429
Q

STEMI trx

A
  • fibrinolysis [<30 min or when can’t do PCI within 90 min]
  • primary PCI [<90 min] → angioplasty or stent
    • LD: P2Y12-i
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430
Q

NSTEMI & UA trx

A
  • MONA
  • IV anti-thrombotics → GPIIb/IIIa-i, antiplatelets [P2Y12-i], anticoagulants [heparin, LMWH]
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431
Q

t-PA, Activase

A

alteplase

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432
Q

r-RA, Retavase

A

reteplase

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433
Q

TNK-tPA

A

tenecteplase

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434
Q

Streptase

A

streptokinase

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435
Q

Abbokinase

A

urokinase

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436
Q

Reopro

A

abciximab

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437
Q

conversion between carvedilol IR and ER

A

Coreg CR 10mg QD = Coreg 3.125mg BID
Coreg CR 20mg QD = Coreg 6.25mg BID
Coreg CR 40mg QD = Coreg 12.5mg BID
Coreg CR 80mg QD = Coreg 25mg BID

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438
Q

ACS discharge meds

A
  • aspirin 81mg indefinitely
    • DAPT w/ P2Y12-i for ≥1 year
      • warfarin if persistent AF
  • ACE-I/ARB if LVEF <40%
  • beta-blocker
  • statin is LDL >100
  • NTG
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439
Q

Aggrastat

A

tirofiban

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440
Q

Integrilin

A

eptifibatide

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440
Q

Ticlid

A

ticlopidine

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440
Q

Plavix

A

clopidogrel

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440
Q

Effient

A

prasugrel

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441
Q

Kengreal IV

A

cangrelor

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442
Q

IV antithrombotics

A
  • abciximab [Reopro]
  • tirofiban [Aggrastat]
  • eptifibatide [Integrilin]
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443
Q

abciximab clinical pearls

A
  • PCI only
  • NOT reversible
  • dose: 0.25mg/kg bolus before PCI Then 0.125mcg/kg/min x12 hours
  • ADE: thrombocytopenia, bleeding & HoTN
  • monitor: Hct/hgb, platelets, PT/aPTT, ACT
  • not renally adusted
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443
Q

Brilinta

A

ticagrelor

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444
Q

tirofiban clinical pearls

A
  • ACS
  • reversible
  • dose: 0.4 mcg/kg/min x30 min then 0.1mcg/kg/min x24 H after PCI
  • ADE: thrombocytopenia, bleeding & HoTN
  • monitor: Hct/hgb, platelets, PT/aPTT, ACT
  • renally adjust
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444
Q

which P2Y12-i is only indicated for PCI

A

prasugrel

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444
Q

eptifibatide clinical pearls

A
  • ACS + PCI
  • reversible
  • dose: 180 mcg/kg bolus then 2mcg/kg/min x24H
  • protect from light, refrigerate
  • ADE: thrombocytopenia, bleeding & HoTN
  • monitor: Hct/hgb, platelets, PT/aPTT, ACT
  • renally adjusted
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444
Q

irreversible P2Y12-is

A
  • clopidogrel
  • ticlopidine
  • prasugrel
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445
Q

clopidogrel dosing

A

LD: 300-600mg
MD: 75mg QD

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445
Q

reversible P2Y12-is

A
  • cangrelor
  • ticagrelor
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445
Q

prasugrel dosing

A

LD: 60mg
MD: 10mg QD

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445
Q

when do antithrombotics have to be d/c’ed before surgery

A

5-7 days

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445
Q

ticagrelor dosing

A

LD: 180mg LD
MD: 90mg BID

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446
Q

Jantoven

A

warfarin

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446
Q

Coumadin

A

warfarin

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447
Q

Pradaxa

A

dabigatran
DTI

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447
Q

Bevyxxa

A

betrixaban
Factor Xa inhibitor

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448
Q

Innohep

A

Tinzaparin
LMWH

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448
Q

warfarin clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: fatal bleeding, skin necrosis, purple toe, DDIs
  • hepatically cleared
  • preg cat X
  • reversal: vit K, PCC, frozen plasma
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448
Q

Eliquis

A

apixaban
Factor Xa inhibitor

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449
Q

heparin clinical pearls

A
  • SC for ppx
  • IV for trx
  • no renal adjustment
  • reversal: protamine
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449
Q

Andexxa

A

Andexanet-alfa

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449
Q

LMWH clinical pearls

A
  • no routine monitoring
  • lovenox trx: 1mg/kg SC BID
  • lovenox ppx: 40mg SC QD
  • renally adjusted
  • reversal: protamine
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449
Q

fondaparinux clinical pearls

A
  • ppx: 2.5mg SC
  • trx: 5-10mg SC
  • no routine monitoring
  • renal adjustment → CI if CrCl <30
  • reversal: Andexxa
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450
Q

Praxbind

A

idarucizumab

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451
Q

edoxaban clinical pearls

A
  • 60mg PO QD
  • no routine monitoring
  • renal adjust → 30mg QD
  • stroke ppx in NVAF, DVT/PE
  • reversal: andexxa
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451
Q

warfarin colors

A

1mg - pink
2mg - lavender
2.5mg - green
3mg - brown
4mg - blue
5mg - peach
6mg - teal
7.5mg - yellow
10mg - white

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451
Q

xarelto clinical pearls

A
  • dose: 20mg PO QD
  • renal adjust → 15mg QD
  • for stroke ppx in nonvalvular AFib, DVT/PE, surgical ppx
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451
Q

what can increase INR

A
  • ginger
  • gingko
  • garlic
  • anti-inflammatory agents
  • antibiotics
  • antidepressants
  • antiplatelets
  • azoles
  • CYP2C9 inhibitors
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452
Q

what can decrease INR

A
  • ginseng
  • green tea
  • soya
  • SJW
  • vit K
  • CYP2C9 inducers
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453
Q

class I antiarrhythmias

A

*PROLONG QT INTERVAL
- quinidine
- procainamide
- disopyramide

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453
Q

antithrombotic for Afib

A
  • dabigatran
  • rivaroxaban
  • apixaban
  • warfarin
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453
Q

rate controllers for afib

A
  • beta-blockers
  • non-DHP CCBs
  • digoxin
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453
Q

Norpace

A

disopyramide

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453
Q

quinidine clinical pearls

A
  • tk w/ food to decrease GI upset
  • BBW: increased mortality. thrombocytopenia [monitor CBC]
  • SE: diarrhea, strong anticholinergic → cinchonism
  • DDIs: digoxin [decrease digoxin 50%], warfarin [increase INR]
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454
Q

Fragmin

A

dalteparin
LMWH

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454
Q

Lovenox

A

enoxaparin
LMWH

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454
Q

Arixtra

A

fondaparinux
Factor Xa inhibitor

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454
Q

Xarelto

A

rivaroxaban
Factor Xa inhibitor

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455
Q

Savaysa

A

edoxaban
Factor Xa inhibitor

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456
Q

class II antiarrhythmics

A

beta-blockers
- esmolol
- propranolol

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457
Q

Cordarone

A

amiodarone

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457
Q

Tikosyn

A

dofetilide

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457
Q

class III antiarrhythmics

A

*INCREASE QT INTERVAL
- amiodarone
- dofetilide
- dronedarone
- ibutilide
- sotalol

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457
Q

Multaq

A

dronedarone

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458
Q

Corvert

A

ibutilide

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459
Q

amiodarone clinical pearls

A
  • broad spectrum antiarrhythmic, safe in HR & post MI
  • only for life-threatening arrhythmias
  • D5W only
  • SE: vision changes/corneal microdeposits, photosensitivity, HoTN, bradycardia, dizziness, tremor, slate blue skin
  • monitor thyroid, liver, lungs
  • use lower doses of digoxin, warfarin, quinidine, procainamide, simvastatin, lovastatin, atorvastatin
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459
Q

class IV antiarrhythmics

A

non-DHP CCBs
- verapamil
- diltiazem

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459
Q

Adenocard

A

adenosine

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459
Q

Betapace

A

sotalol

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460
Q

Lanoxin

A

digoxin

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461
Q

digoxin therapeutic range for AF

A

0.5-2 ng/mL

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461
Q

Digitek

A

digoxin

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461
Q

digoxin therapeutic range for HF

A

0.5-0.9 ng/mL

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461
Q

drugs that increase QT

A
  • class Ia antiarrhythmics
  • class III antiarrhythmics
  • quinolones
  • macrolides
  • amantadine
  • foscarnet
  • azoles
  • PIs
  • APs, SSRIs, TCAs, SNRIs, trazodone
  • 5-HT3 inhibitors & droperidol
  • alfuzosin
  • apomorphine
  • chloroquine
  • galantamine
  • methadone
  • pentamidine
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462
Q

angina trx

A
  • aspirin
  • antianginal: beta-blockers, CCBs [Prinzmetal], nitrates, ranolazine
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463
Q

Nitro-Bid

A

NTG ointment 2%

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463
Q

Nitro-Dur

A

NTG patch

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463
Q

Minitran

A

NTG patch

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464
Q

Tridil

A

NTG IV → D5W

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464
Q

NitroMist

A

NTG spray

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465
Q

Nitrostat

A

NTG sublingual tab

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465
Q

Monoket

A

isosorbide mononitrate IR

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465
Q

Nitrolingual

A

NTS spray

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465
Q

Ismo

A

isosorbide mononitrate IR

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465
Q

Nitro-Time

A

NTG extended release

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466
Q

Dilatrate-SR

A

isosorbide dinitrate
- decrease mortality in HF

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466
Q

Imdur ER

A

isosorbide mononitrate ER

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466
Q

Ranexa

A

ranolazine

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466
Q

Isordil

A

isosorbide ditrate
- decreases mortality in HF

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467
Q

HF trx

A
  • 1st line: ARNI/ACE-I/ARB + beta-blocker + MRA + SGLT2-i
  • hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate 1st line in african americans
  • diuretics as needed
  • additional: ivabradine, vericiguat, digoxin, potassium binder, digoxin
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468
Q

procainamide clinical pearls

A
  • tk on empty stomach
  • BBW: agranulocytosis
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468
Q

disopyramide clinical pearls

A
  • tk on empty stomach
  • SE: HF, anticholinergic effects
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468
Q

class Ib antiarrhythmics

A
  • lidocaine
  • mexiletine
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468
Q

Xylocaine

A

lidocaine

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468
Q

class Ic antiarrhythmics

A
  • flecainide
  • propafenone
    *not in use
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469
Q

which statins do you take at bedtime

A

fluva, lova ER & simva

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470
Q

lipophilic statins

A

atorva, lova, simva, fluva, pitava
- higher risk for muscle pain

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470
Q

Mevacor IR

A

lovastatin IR → tk with dinner

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470
Q

Lescol

A

fluvastatin

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471
Q

Altoprev ER

A

lovastatin ER → tk QHS

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471
Q

hydrophilic statins

A

rosu, prava
- lower risk for muscular side effects

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472
Q

Lipitor

A

atorvastatin

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472
Q

Pravachol

A

pravastatin

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472
Q

Zocor

A

simvastatin → tk QHS

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472
Q

Crestor

A

rosuvastatin

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472
Q

Livalo

A

Pitavastatin

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473
Q

Niacor

A

niacin OTC → tk w/ food

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473
Q

Niaspan ER

A

niacin ER → tk QHS after low-fat snack

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473
Q

Nexletol

A

bempedoic acid
ATP citrate lyase inhibitor

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473
Q

Juxtapid

A

lomitapide
MTTP inhibitor

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473
Q

Evkeeza

A

evinacumab-dgnb
angiopoietin-like 3 inhibitor

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474
Q

Nexlizet

A

bempedoic acid/ezetimibe
ATP citrate lyase inhibitor

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474
Q

Zetia

A

ezetimibe

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474
Q

Colestid

A

colestipol
bile-acid binding resins

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474
Q

Vytorin

A

ezetimibe + simvastatin

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474
Q

Welchol

A

colesevelam
bile-acid binding resins

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474
Q

Questran, Prevalite, LoCholest

A

cholestyramine
bind-acid binding resins

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475
Q

Tricor

A

fenofibrate

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475
Q

Lopid

A

gemfibrozil → better not w/ statins

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475
Q

Lipofen

A

fenofibrate

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475
Q

Trilipix

A

fenofibrate

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476
Q

Repatha

A

evolocumab
PCSK9-i mAb

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476
Q

Leqvio

A

inclisiran
siRNA

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476
Q

Praluent

A

alirocumab
PCSK9-i mAb

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476
Q

Antara

A

fenofibrate

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477
Q

Humalog

A

insulin lispro
rapid-acting

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477
Q

Triglide

A

fenofibrate

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478
Q

Corlanor

A

ivabradine

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478
Q

Verquvo

A

vericiguat

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478
Q

antidote for digoxin

A

Digibind or Digifab

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478
Q

what is tafamadis indicated for

A

transthyretin amyloid → reduce CV morbidity & mortality

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479
Q

lipid panel goals

A

LDL <100
TG <15
HDL ≥60
TC <200

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480
Q

cholesterol guidelines

A
  • statins 1st line
  • pts w/ clinical ASCVD: high-intensity statin
  • high-intensity statin: lipitor 40-80mg & crestor 20-40mg
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481
Q

Lyumjev

A

insulin lispro
rapid-acting

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481
Q

Novolog

A

insulin aspart
rapid-acting

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481
Q

Fiasp

A

insulin aspart
rapid-acting
*has niacinamide

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482
Q

Admelog

A

insulin lispro
rapid-acting

483
Q

Apidra

A

insulin glulisine
rapid acting

483
Q

Humulin R

A

insulin regular
short-acting

484
Q

Ozempic

A

semaglutide
GLP-1 agonist

484
Q

Rybelsus

A

semaglutide PO
GLP-1 agonust

484
Q

Novolin R

A

insulin regular
short-acting

485
Q

Januvia

A

sitagliptin
DPP4-i

485
Q

Onglyza

A

saxagliptin
DPP4-i

486
Q

Tradjenta

A

linagliptin
DPP4-i

486
Q

Micronase

A

glyburide
SU

486
Q

Diabeta

A

Glyburide
SU

486
Q

Glucotrol

A

glipizide
SU

486
Q

Amaryl

A

glimepiride
SU

487
Q

Prandin

A

repaglinide
meglitinide

488
Q

Starlix

A

nateglinide
meglitinide

488
Q

Actose

A

pioglitazone
TZD

488
Q

Fortamet

488
Q

Avandia

A

rosiglitazone
TZD

488
Q

Glucophage

489
Q

Precose

A

acarbose
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

489
Q

Glumetza

489
Q

Farxiga

A

dapagliflozin
SGLT2-i

489
Q

Invokana

A

canagliflozin
SGLT2-i

489
Q

Glyset

A

miglitol
alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

490
Q

Steglatro

A

ertugliflozin
SGLT2-i

491
Q

Xigduo XR

A

dapagliflozin + metformin

491
Q

Segluromet

A

ertugliflozin + metformin

491
Q

Invokamet

A

canagliflozin + metformin

491
Q

Jardiance

A

empagliflozin
SGLT2-i

491
Q

Kazano

A

alogliptin + metformin

492
Q

Glyxambi

A

empagliflozin + linagliptin

492
Q

Kerendia

A

finerenone
nonsteroidal MRA

492
Q

Oseni

A

alogliptin + pioglitazone

492
Q

Lyxumia

A

lixisenatide

493
Q

Trijardy XR

A

empagliflozin + linagliptin + metformin

493
Q

Steglujan

A

sitagliptin + ertugliflozin

494
Q

Humulin N

A

insulin NPH
intermediate acting

494
Q

Toujeo

A

insulin glargine
long acting

495
Q

Semglee

A

insulin glargine
long acting

496
Q

Lantus

A

insulin glargine
long-acting

496
Q

Novolin N

A

insulin NPH
intermediate acting

497
Q

NovoLog Mix 70/30, 50/50

A

aspart protamine susp/aspart

497
Q

Humulin 70/30, 50/50

A

NPH/regular

497
Q

Novolin 70/30

A

NPH/regular

498
Q

Symlin

A

pramlintide
amylin analog

499
Q

Levemir

A

insulin detemir
long acting

499
Q

Humalog Mix 75/25, 50/50

A

lispro protamine susp/lispro

500
Q

insulin secretagogues

A

sulfonylureas [longer-acting]
meglitinides [rapid-acting]

500
Q

Victoza

A

liraglutide
GLP-1 agonist

501
Q

Byetta, Bydureon

A

exenatide
GLP-1 agonist

501
Q

peptide analogs

A

GLP-1 agonists
DPP4-i
pramlintide

502
Q

insulin sensitizers

A

glitazones
biguanides

503
Q

Tanzeum

A

albiglutide

504
Q

Juvisync

A

sitagliptin + simvastatin

504
Q

Trulicity

A

dulaglutide

504
Q

Cycloset

A

bromocriptine

504
Q

Neupogen

A

filgrastim
+granulocytes

504
Q

Nyvepria

A

pegfilgrastim
+ granulocytes

504
Q

Neulasta

A

pegfilgrastim
+ granulocytes

504
Q

Ziextenzo

A

pegfilgrastim
+ granulocytes

505
Q

Fulphila

A

pegfilgrastim
+ granulocytes

505
Q

Procrit

A

epoetin
+ RBC

506
Q

Epogen

A

epoetin
+ RBC

507
Q

Retacrit

A

epoetin
+ RBC

507
Q

Aranesp

A

darbepoetin
+ RBC

507
Q

Neumega

A

oprelvekin
+ platelets

507
Q

Leukine

A

sargramostim
+ macrophages

507
Q

trx for macrocytic anemia

A
  • vit B12
  • folic acid
507
Q

trx for microcyctic anemia

508
Q

trx for normocytic anemia

508
Q

Intron A

A

interferon alpha-2b
HCV

509
Q

Mavyret

A

glecaprevir + pibrentasvir

509
Q

Daklinza

A

daclatasvir

509
Q

NS3 protease inhibitors for HCV3

A
  • simeprevir
  • paritaprevir
  • grazoprevir
509
Q

Harvoni

A

sofosbuvir + ledipasvir

510
Q

Epclusa

A

sofosbuvir + velpatasvir

510
Q

Sovaldi

A

sofosbuvir

511
Q

NS5A inhibitors for HCV

A
  • ledipasvir
  • ombitasvir
  • daclatasvir [Daklinza]
  • elbasvir
  • velpatasvir [Epclusa, Sofosvel, Velpanat]
  • glecaprevir
512
Q

Vosevi

A

sofosbuvir + velpatasvir + voxilaprevir

512
Q

Retrovir

A

zidovudine
NRTI

512
Q

Ziagen

A

abacavir
NRTI

512
Q

Epivir

A

lamivudine
NRTI

512
Q

Exviera

A

dasabuvir
NS5B NNI inhibitor

512
Q

Rubokia

A

fostemsavir
NRTI

513
Q

Combivir

A

zidovudine + lamivudine
NRTI + NRTI

514
Q

Pegasys

A

PEG-IFN alfa-2a
HCV

514
Q

Rebetol

514
Q

Peg-Intron

A

PEG-IFN alfa-2b
HCV

514
Q

Copegus

514
Q

ribavirin clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: hemolyti anemia
  • preg cat X [2 forms birth control + pregnancy test]
514
Q

Zepatier

A

grazoprevir + elbasvir
NS3 PI

514
Q

Olysio

A

simeprevir
NS3 PI
- tk with food
- combo with PEGIFN-RBV or sofosbuvir

515
Q

Epzicom

A

abacavir + lamivudine
NRTI + NRTI

516
Q

Trizivir

A

abacavir + zidovudine + lamivudine
NRTI + NRTI + NRTI

516
Q

Cimduo

A

TDF + lamivudine
NRTI + NRTI

516
Q

Viread

A

TDF
- oral powder: tk w/ food
NRTI

516
Q

Truvada

A

TDF + emtricitabine
NRTI + NRTI

516
Q

Videx EC

A

didanosine
*on empty stomach
NRTI

516
Q

Descovy

A

TAF + emtricitabine
NRTI + NRTI

516
Q

Emtriva

A

emtricitabine
NRTI

517
Q

Tybost

A

cobicistat
PK enhancer

517
Q

Kaletra

A

ritonavir + lopinavir
PI

517
Q

Invirase

A

saquinavir
*take with Norvir [ritonavir]
*take w/ food
PI

517
Q

Norvir

A

ritonavir
*take w/ food
PI
booster

517
Q

Prezista

A

darunavir
*sulfa allergy
*take w/ food
PI

517
Q

Reyataz

A

atazanavir
*take w/ food
PI

517
Q

Evotaz

A

atazanavir + cobicistat

517
Q

Crixivan

A

indinavir
*empty stomach
PI

517
Q

Aptivus

A

tipranavir
*sulfa allergy
*take w/ food
PI

518
Q

Zerit

A

stavudine
NRTI

518
Q

Cabenuva

A

cabotegravir + rilpivirine
INSTI + NNRTI

518
Q

Viracept

A

nelfinavir
*take w/ food
PI

518
Q

Lexiva

A

fosamprenavir
*sulfa allergy
PI

519
Q

Rescriptor

A

delavirdine
NNRTI

519
Q

Pifeltro

A

doravirine
NNRTI

519
Q

Edurant

A

rilpivirine
*take w/ food
NNRTI

520
Q

Intelence

A

etravirine
*take w/ food
NNRTI

520
Q

Viramune

A

nevirapine
NNRTI

520
Q

Sustiva

A

efavirenz
*empty stomach
NNRTI

521
Q

Fuzeon

A

enfuvirtide
entry inhibitor

522
Q

Tivicay

A

dolutegravir
INSTI

522
Q

Isentress

A

raltegrevir
INSTI

522
Q

Atripla

A

efavirenz + TDF + emtricitabine
*empty stomach
NNRTI + NRTI + NRTI

522
Q

Symfi

A

efavirenz + TDF + lamivudine
*empty stomach
NNRTI + NRTI + NRTI

522
Q

Selzentry

A

maraviroc
entry inhibitor

522
Q

Vitekta

A

elvitegravir
*take with food
*take with other PIs
INSTI

522
Q

Complera

A

rilpivirine + TDF + emtricitabine
*take w/ food
NNRTI + NRTI + NRTI

523
Q

Stribild

A

elvitagrevir/cobicistat + TDF + emtricitabine
*take w/ food
INSTI + NRTI + NRTI

524
Q

Triumeq

A

dolutegravir + abacavir + lamivudine
INSTI + NRTI + NRTI

524
Q

Dovato

A

dolutegravir + lamivudine
INSTI + NRTI

524
Q

Symtuza

A

darunavir/cobicistat + emtricitabine + TAF
*take w/ food
PI + NRTI + NRTI

525
Q

Delstrigo

A

doravirine + lamivudine + TDF
NNRTI + NRTI + NRTI

525
Q

Odefsey

A

emtricitabine + rilpivirine + TAF
*take w/ food
NRTI + NNRTI + NRTI

526
Q

Genvoya

A

elvitegravir/cobicistat + emtricitabine + TAF
*take w/ food
INSTI + NRTI + NRTI

526
Q

Biktarvy

A

bictegravir + emtricitabine + TAF
INSTI + NRTI + NRTI

527
Q

Celexa

A

citalopram
SSRI
max 40mg/d bc QT

527
Q

PEP regimen

A

Truvada QD + raltegravir [Isentress] BID or Tivicay [dolutegravir] QD

Truvada QD + darunavir [Prezista] QD and ritonavir [Norvir] QD

527
Q

PrEP regimen

A

Descovy
Truvada

527
Q

Paxlovid

A

nirmatrelvir/ritonavir

527
Q

Veklury

A

remsdesivir

527
Q

Lagevrio

A

molnupiravir

527
Q

antidepressants line of therapy

A

1st line: SSRI
2nd line: SNRI
3rd line: TCAs, MAOI

528
Q

Lexapro

A

escitalopram
SSRI

529
Q

Zoloft

A

sertraline
SSRI

529
Q

Paxil

A

paroxetine
SSRI

529
Q

Prozac

A

fluoxetine
QAM
SSRI

530
Q

Sarafem

A

fluoxetine
*for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

531
Q

Cymbalta

A

duloxetine DR
SNRI

532
Q

Drizalma Sprinkle

A

duloxetine DR
SNRI

533
Q

Effexor

A

venlafaxine
SNRI

534
Q

Trintellix

A

vortioxetine
SNRI

535
Q

Pristiq

A

desvenlafaxine
SNRI

536
Q

Viibryd

A

vilazodone
* with food

537
Q

Wellbutrin

538
Q

Zyban

A

bupropion → for smoking cessation

539
Q

Remeron

A

mirtazapine

540
Q

Norpramin

A

desipramine
secondary TCA

540
Q

Pamelor

A

nortripyline
secondary TCA

540
Q

Asendin

A

amoxapine
secondary TCA

540
Q

Elavil

A

amitriptyline
tertiary TCA

541
Q

Tofranil

A

imipramine
tertiary TCA

541
Q

Sinequan

A

doxepin
tertiary TCA

541
Q

Silenor

A

doxepin for insomnia
tertiary TCA

541
Q

Anafranil

A

clomipramine; also for OCD
tertiary TCA

542
Q

Marplan

A

isocarboxazid
MAOI

542
Q

Nardil

A

phenelzine
MAOI

542
Q

Parnate

A

tranylcypromine
MAOI

542
Q

Eldepryl

A

selegiline patch for PD
MAOI

542
Q

Emsam

A

selegiline patch
MAOI

542
Q

SJW

542
Q

Serzone

A

nefazodone

542
Q

Desyrel

543
Q

Vistaril

A

hydroxyzine
sedating AH

543
Q

anxiety trx

A

1st line: SSRI, SNRI, TCA
alt: hydroxyzine, pregabalin, quetiapine, propranolol

543
Q

LOT BZDs

A

*safer in elderly
lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam

543
Q

Seroquel

A

quetiappine

543
Q

Buspar

A

buspirone
5-HT partial agonist

544
Q

Ambien

A

zolpidem
C-IV
BZD receptor agonist

544
Q

Roszerem

A

ramelteon
melatonin receptor agonist

544
Q

Sonata

A

Zaleplon
C-IV
BZD receptor agonist

544
Q

Eszopicloneunesta

A

eszopiclone
C-IV
BZD receptor agonist

545
Q

Benadryl

A

diphenhydramine
AH

545
Q

Belsomra

A

suvorexant
orexin-receptor antagonist

545
Q

Thorazine

A

chlorpromazine
low potency
1st gen AP

545
Q

Mellaril

A

thioridazine
low potency
1st gen AP

545
Q

Trilafon

A

perphenazine
med potency
1st gen AP

545
Q

Unisom

A

doxylamine
AH

545
Q

Loxitane

A

loxapine
med potency
1st gen AP

545
Q

Moban

A

molindone
med potency
1st gen AP

546
Q

Stelazine

A

trifluoperazine
high potency
1st gen AP

547
Q

Prolixin

A

fluphenazine
high potency
1st gen AP

547
Q

2nd gen AP clinical pearls

A
  • atypical
  • SE: sedation and metabolic side effects [weight gain, increased BG & TG\
  • clozapine BBW: agranulocytosis
  • clozapine is most effective but reserve for resistant cases; serum >350 ng/mL
  • ziprasidone has risk of QT prolongation
547
Q

1st gen AP clinical pearls

A
  • typical
  • SE: EPS, orthostasis, QT prolongation, anticholingeric, skin rxn
  • DA agonist
547
Q

Haldol

A

haloperidol
high potency
1st gen AP

547
Q

FazaClo ODT

A

clozapine
2nd gen AP

548
Q

Navane

A

thiothixene
high potency
1st gen AP

548
Q

Zyprexa

A

olanzapine
2nd gen AP

548
Q

Clozaril

A

clozapine
2nd gen AP

548
Q

Compazine

A

prochlorperazine
*mainly used as antiemetic
high potency
1st gen AP

549
Q

Abilify

A

aripiprazole
2nd gen AP

549
Q

Geodon

A

ziprasidone
*tk with food
2nd gen AP

549
Q

Seroquel

A

quetiapine

549
Q

Zydis ODT

A

olanzapine
2nd gen AP

549
Q

Risperdal

A

risperidone
2nd gen AP

549
Q

Saphris

A

asenapine
* SL only
2nd gen AP

549
Q

Lybalvi

A

olanzapine/samidorphan
2nd gen AP

550
Q

which 2nd gen APs are weight neutral

A

aripiprazole & ziprasidone

551
Q

short-acting 1st gen AP inj

A
  • haloperidol lactate
  • fluphenazine
  • chlorpromazine
552
Q

long-acting 1st gen AP

A
  • fluphenazine decanoate
  • haloperidol decanoate
552
Q

short-acting 2nd gen AP inj

A
  • olanzapine
  • ziprasidone
552
Q

Aristada

A

aripiprazole q6wk

552
Q

Perseris

A

risperidone Q1month

552
Q

long-acting 2nd gen AP inj

A
  • aripiprazole → Maintena [4wk], Aristada [6wk]
  • olanzapine → Relprevv [2-4wk]; REMS
  • risperidone → Risperdal Consta [2wk], Perseris [1month]
  • paliperidone → Sustenna [4wk], Trinza [3 month]
  • iloperidone
552
Q

Relprevv

A

olanzapine Q2-4wk

553
Q

Maintena

A

aripipraole Q4wk

553
Q

Risperdal Consta

A

risperidone Q2wk

553
Q

Sustenna

A

paliperidone Q4wk

553
Q

Trinza

A

paliperidone Q3months

554
Q

Cogentin

A

benztropine
anticholinergic
for tremors in PD

554
Q

PD drugs

A
  • anticholinergics
  • amantadine
  • MAO-B inhibitors
  • dopaminergic agents
  • COMT-i [must use with levodopa]
  • DA agonists [1st choice]
554
Q

Artane

A

trihexyphenidyl
anticholinergic
for initial trx of tremors

554
Q

Eldepryl

A

selegiline
*irreversible
MAO-B inhibitor

554
Q

Osmolex ER

A

amantadine ER
decreases DA reuptake
for initial trx of tremors & dyskinesias in advanced disease

554
Q

Xadago

A

safinamide
*reversible
MAO-B inhibitors
can use in renal impairment

554
Q

Symmetrel

A

amantadine
decreases DA reuptake
for initial trx of tremors & dyskinesias in advanced disease

554
Q

Azilect

A

rasagiline
*irreversible
MAO-B inhibitor

555
Q

Duopa

A

carbidopa/levodopa enteral susp

555
Q

Rytary

A

carbidopa/levodopa ER cap

555
Q

Sinemet

A

carbidopa/levodopa SR tab

555
Q

Ongentys

A

opicapone
COMT inhibitor
for off episodes

555
Q

Inbrija

A

inhaled levodopa

555
Q

Stalevo

A

carbidopa/levodopa + entacapone

555
Q

Tasmar

A

tolcapone
COMT inhibitor

555
Q

Comtan

A

entacapone
COMT inhibitor

556
Q

Cycloset

A

bromocriptine
*adjunct therapy in diabetes
DA agonist

556
Q

Mirapex

A

pramipexole
DA agonist

557
Q

Kynmobi SL

A

apomorphine SL

557
Q

Requip

A

ropinirole
DA agonist

557
Q

Apokyn SC

A

apomorphine SC
* for advanced disease
DA agonist

557
Q

Aricept

A

donepezil
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

557
Q

Exelon

A

rivastigmine patch
*tk w/food
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

557
Q

Razadyne

A

galantamine
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

557
Q

Neupro

A

rotigotine patch
DA agonist

557
Q

Alzheimer’s trx

A
  • acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
  • NMDA agonists
558
Q

Namenda

A

memantine
NMDA receptor antagonist

559
Q

Namzaric

A

mementine ER + donepezil
NMDA receptor antagonist + acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

559
Q

Aduhelm

A

aducanumab
monthly IV infusion

559
Q

1st line for atypical absence myoclonic, atonic

A
  • valproate
  • lamotrigine
  • levetiracetam
559
Q

1st line for absence seizures

A
  • valproate
  • ethosuximide
559
Q

Dilantin

559
Q

1st line for partial seizures

A
  • carbamazepine
  • oxcarbazepine
  • lamotrigine
  • levetiracetam
559
Q

1st line for generalized tonic-clonic

A
  • valproate
  • lamotrigine
  • levetiracetam
559
Q

Tegretol

A

carbamazepine

560
Q

Cerebyx

A

fosphenytoin

561
Q

Trileptal

A

oxcarbazepine

561
Q

Carbatrol

A

carbamazepine

561
Q

Topamax

A

topiramate

561
Q

Epitol

A

carbamazepine

561
Q

Stavzor

561
Q

Depakene

561
Q

Depakote

A

divalproex

561
Q

Lamictal

A

lamotrigine

562
Q

Zarontin

A

ethosuximide

562
Q

Klonopin

A

clonazepam

563
Q

Keppra

A

levetiracetam

564
Q

Gabitril

564
Q

Vimpat

A

lacosamide
C-V

564
Q

Neurontin

A

gabapentin

564
Q

phenytoin clinical pearls

A
  • mix in ND only
  • max 50mg/min
  • IV:PO = 1:1
  • BBW: teratogenic, skin rash
  • supplement w/ folic acid, calcium & vit D
564
Q

Sabril

A

Vigabatrin

564
Q

fosphenytoin clinical pearls

A
  • prodrug of phenytoin
  • IV:PO= 1:1
  • NS/D5W ok
  • BBW: teratogenic, skin rash
564
Q

Lyrica

A

pregabalin
C-V

564
Q

Barbital

A

phenobarbital

565
Q

carbamazepine clinical pearls

A
  • therapeutic range: 4-12 mcg/mL
  • BBW: serious skin rxn, aplastic anemia & agranulocytosis
565
Q

valproate clinical pearls

A
  • therapeutic range: 50-100mcg/mL
  • BBW: hepatotoxicity, fatal pancreatitis
  • SE: weight gain
566
Q

topiramate clinical pearls

A
  • CI if sulfa allergy
  • teratogenic
  • causes weight loss
  • oligohydrosis
566
Q

zonisamide clinical pearls

A
  • CI if sulfa allergy
  • weight loss
566
Q

bipolar depression trx

A
  • quetiapine
  • quetiapine/fluoxetine
  • lurasidone
566
Q

levetiracetam clinical pearls

A
  • weight loss
    *no significant drug interactions
566
Q

Xcopri

A

cenobamate
for partial onset seizures

566
Q

ethosuximide clinical pearls

A

blood dyscrasias

566
Q

lamotrigine clinical pearls

A
  • max 400mg/day
  • BBW: skin rash, aseptic meningitis
566
Q

felbamate clinical pearls

A
  • BBW: hepatotoxicity, aplastic anemia
566
Q

bipolar disorder trx

A
  • lithium
  • anticonvulsants
  • antipsychotics [off-label]
567
Q

which AP is the only one FDA-approved for bipolar disorder

A

quetiapine

567
Q

therapeutic range for lithium

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L
*can still be toxic at therapeutic dose

567
Q

relationship between lithium & salt

A

decreased salt intake, dehydration = increased lithium
increased salt intake, caffeine = decreased lithium

568
Q

Ritalin

A

methylphenidate

568
Q

therapeutic range of lamotrigine

568
Q

therapeutic range of valproate

A

50-125 ug/mL

568
Q

Methylin

A

methylphenidate

568
Q

Methyl ER

A

methylphenidate

569
Q

therapeutic range of carbamazepine

A

4-12 ug/mL

569
Q

ADHD trx

A
  1. stimulants
  2. atomoxetine
  3. adjunctive trx
569
Q

lithium clinical pearls

A
  • can be toxic at therapeutic dose
  • ADE: cognitive effects, hand tremor, weight gain, polyuria, polydipsia, hypothyroidism, sedation
  • DDIs w/ NSAIDs, diuretics, ACE-I/ARB, SSRIs, SNRIs
  • monitor: BMP, renal, thyroid
  • drink water & take with meals
569
Q

Aptensio XR

A

methylphenidate

570
Q

Daytrana

A

methylphenidate patch

570
Q

Adhansia XR

A

methylphenidate

570
Q

Jornay PM

A

methylphenidate

570
Q

Concerta OROS

A

methylphenidate = TID dosing

570
Q

Azstarys

A

serdexmethylphenidate/dexmethylphenidate

571
Q

Vyvanse

A

lisdexamphetamine

571
Q

Focalin

A

dexmethylphenidate

571
Q

Cotempla XR

A

methylphenidate ODT

571
Q

Dextrostat

A

dextroamphetamine

571
Q

Dexedrine

A

dextroamphetamine

572
Q

Adderall

A

amphetamine mixed salts

572
Q

Strattera

A

atomoxetine
SNRI
- no abuse potential

572
Q

Intuniv

A

guanfacine ER
alpha2 adrenergic agonist

572
Q

Kapvay

A

clonidine ER
alpha2 adrenergic agonist

572
Q

Provigil

A

modafinil
C-IV
stimulant for narcolepsy

572
Q

Sunosi

A

solriamfetol
C-IV
stimulants for narcolepsy

572
Q

Qelbree

A

viloxazine
for ADHD

572
Q

Nuvigil

A

armodafinil
C-IV
stimulant for narcolepsy

573
Q

gout ppx

A
  1. lifestyle modifications
  2. anti-inflammatory → colchicine 0.6mg or naproxen 250mg BID, prednisolone/prednisone
574
Q

Uloric

A

febuxostat
decrease UA production

574
Q

gout acute attack trx

A
  • NSAIDs: indomethacin
  • colchicine
  • steroids: prednisone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone
574
Q

Benemid

A

probenecid
increase UA excretion

574
Q

Aloprim

A

allopurinol IV
decrease UA production

574
Q

gout management trx

A

decrease UA production:
- allopurinol w/ meal
- febuxostat

increase UA excretion
- probenecid [Benemid]
- other agents: losartan, fenofibrate

574
Q

AlternaGel

A

aluminum hydroxide
aluminum-based phosphate binder

574
Q

Zyloprim

A

allopurinol PO
decrease UA production

574
Q

Phoslyra

A

calcium acetate
calcium based phosphate binder

574
Q

Amphojel

A

aluminum hydroxide
aluminum based phosphate binder

574
Q

PhosLo

A

calcium acetate
calcium based phosphate binder

575
Q

TUMS

A

calcium carbonate
calcium based phosphate binder

575
Q

Fosrenol

A

lanthanum carbonate
Al/Ca-free phosphate binder

575
Q

Renvela

A

sevelamer
Al/Ca-free phosphate binder

576
Q

Drisdol

A

ergocalciferol
Vit D2
inactive vit D

576
Q

Antivert

A

meclizine
AH

576
Q

Compazine

A

prochlorperazine

576
Q

Rocatrol

A

calcitriol
Vit D3
active vit D

576
Q

Renagel

A

sevelamer
Al/Ca-free phosphate binder

576
Q

N/V trx for pregnancy

A

1st line:
- vit B6 [pyridoxine]
- AH: doxylamine [Unisom], diphenhydramine, meclizine [Antivert, Dramamine]

2nd line:
- DA antagonist: promethazine [Phenergan], prochlorperazine [Compazine], metoclopramide [Reglan]

3rd line:
- 5HT antagonist: ondansetron [Zofran]
- corticosteroids [avoid 1st trimester]: methylprednisolone, dexamethasone, prednisolone

576
Q

Unisom

A

doxylamine
AH

577
Q

Phenergan

A

promethazine

577
Q

Dramamine

A

meclizine
AH

577
Q

Reglan

A

metoclopramide

577
Q

motion sickness trx

A

scopolamine 3-day patch

577
Q

Zofran

A

ondansetron

578
Q

Transderm Scop

A

scopolamine 3-day patch

579
Q

nicotine lozenge dosing

A

4mg if smoke 30 min of awakening
2mg if smoking 30 min or later of awakening
- use at least 9 pieces/day for first 6 weeks
- 3 month regimen

579
Q

nicotine gum dosing

A

2mg if <25 cigs/day
4mg if >25 cigs/day
- at least 9 pieces/day for first 6 weeks
- 3 month regimen

579
Q

nicotine nasal spray dosing

A

1-2 doses per hour for 3 months
1 dose = 2 sprays = 1 spray in each nostril = 1mg nicotine
- max 5 doses/hr or 40 doses/day

579
Q

nicotine patch dosing

A
  1. 21mg/day
  2. 14mg/day
  3. 7mg/day
    - duration 8-10 weeks
    - wear for 16 hours
579
Q

nicotine inhaler dosing

A

continuous puffing for 20 min
max 16 cartridges/day

579
Q

bupropion dosing for smoking cessation

A

SR 150mg QD x3 days → 150mg BID x7-12 weeks
- stop smoking after 1-2 weeks of treatment

579
Q

oral agents for smoking cessation

A
  • bupropion SR [Zyban 150 SR}
  • varenicline [Chantix]
580
Q

varenicline dosing for smoking cessation

A

0.5mg QD → 0.5mg BID → 1mg BID
- start 1 week before quit day

580
Q

Chantix

A

varenicline

581
Q

Zomig

A

zolmitriptan
5HT1 agonist

581
Q

Reyvow

A

lasmiditan
serotonin 1F agonist for acute trx of migraine

581
Q

Fioricet

A

APAP + butalbital + caffeine
for migraines

581
Q

Maxalt

A

rizatriptan
5HT1 agonist

581
Q

Fiorinal

A

ASA + butalbital + caffeine
C-III
for migraine trx

582
Q

Migranal

A

dihydroergotamine
ergot alkaloids
preg cat X

582
Q

Relpax

A

eletriptan
5HT1 agonist

582
Q

Imitrex

A

sumatriptan
5HT1 agonist

582
Q

migraine ppx

A
  • topiramate
  • propranolol
  • timolol
  • amitriptyline
  • divalproex
583
Q

Nurtec ODT

A

remegepant
calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist for acute trx of migraine

583
Q

FROVA

A

frovatriptan succinate
for acute trx of migraines

583
Q

Ajovy

A

fremanezumab
for migraine ppx

583
Q

Aimovig

A

erenumab
for migraine ppx

583
Q

estrogen CI

A
  • breast cancer
  • DVT/PE/stroke/MI
  • liver dysfunction
  • pregnancy
583
Q

Qulipta

A

atogepant
calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist for migraine prevention

583
Q

Emgality

A

galcanezumab
for migraine ppx

584
Q

Vyepti

A

eptinezumab
for migraine ppx

585
Q

progestin HRT

A
  • medroxyprogesterone [Provera PO & Depo-Provera IM/SC]
    • HRT/amenorrhea/endometriosis: lower dose
    • contraception: 150mg IM or 104mg SC Q3months
  • POP/mini-pill for birth control
  • MIRENA: IUD
585
Q

estrogen HRT

A

only for women w/ no uterus
tab: Estrace, Premarin, Cenestin
patch: Alora, Climara, Estraderm/Vivelle Dot
vag ring: Estring, Femring
top: Estrasorb

585
Q

testosterone formulations

A

oral: Androxy, Android, Methitest, Testred, Jatenzo
IM: Depo-Testosterone, Delatestryl, Xyosted, Aveed
top gel: AndroGel 1%, AndroGel 1.62%, Fortesta 2%, Testim 1%
top sol: Axiron 2%
nasal gel: Natesto
buccal tabs: Striant
SC pellets: Testopel
transdermal: Androderm 24H

586
Q

Delatestryl

A

testosterone enanthate IM

586
Q

Xyosted

A

testosterone enanthate SC

586
Q

monophasic COC

A

YASMIN
Apri
Femcon Fe
Loestrin
Low-Ogestrel
Desogen
Demulen
Ortho-Cyclen
Ovcon
Ortho-Novum
Necon

587
Q

estrogen + progestin HRT

A

women with a uterus
tab: Activella, Femhrt, Estratest [w/ testosterone] and Premphase or Prempro [w/ medroxyprogesterone]
patch: Climara Pro, CombiPatch

587
Q

Aveed

A

long-acting undecanoate
REMS

587
Q

Depo-Testosterone

A

testosterone cypionate

588
Q

four-phasic COC

A

NATAZIA
for heavy menstrual bleeding

588
Q

which COCs have drospirenone

A

Yasmin, Nextstellis, Yaz, Beyaz

588
Q

bi-phasic COC

A

Kariva
Mircette Ortho-Novum 10/11

588
Q

tri-phasic

A

Ortho Tri-Cyclen
Cyclessa
EstroStep
Triphasil
Tri-Norinyl
Ortho-Novum 7/7/7

589
Q

extended-cycle COC

A
  • 24 days: Nextstellis, YAZ, Beyaz
  • 3 months: Seasonale & Seasonique
  • 12 months: Amethyst
589
Q

Nextstellis

A

drospirenone/estetrol

589
Q

combined hormonal patches

A

Xulane
Twirla

589
Q

combined hormonal vaginal ring

A

NuvaRIng Qmonth
Annovera reuse up to 1 year

589
Q

norethindrone POPs

A

Ortho Micronor
Camila
Errin
Jencycla
Nor-QD

590
Q

drospirenone POP

591
Q

progestin only IUD

A

levonorgestrel → Mirena, Skyla

591
Q

Plan B Next Choice

A

two 0.75mg tabs of levonorgestrel Q12H

591
Q

Ella

A

ulipristal

591
Q

progestin only implant

A

etonogestrel

591
Q

which drugs do you need back up contraception for

A
  • rifampin
  • ABXs
  • AEDs
  • SJW
  • antiretrovirals
591
Q

Plan B One-Step

A

one 1.5mg tab of levonorgestrel

591
Q

progestin only shot

A

medroxyprogesterone acetate

592
Q

hypothyroidism description

A
  • low T4
  • Hashimoto’s, Cretinism, Myxedema
  • fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, dry skin, constipation, puffy face, muscle weakness
  • due to lithium, amiodarone, interferons
592
Q

hyperthyroidism descriptoin

A
  • high T4
  • Graves’, Plummer’s , thyrotoxicosis
  • heat intolerance, exopthalmos, sweating, weight loss, irritability, insomnia, tachycardia
  • due to iodide, amiodarone, interferons
593
Q

levothyroxine IV:PO

A

IV:PO = 0.75:1

593
Q

Cytomel, Triostate

A

liothyronine; T3
thyroid supplement

593
Q

Tapazole

A

methimazole
DOC
thionamide

593
Q

levothyroxine colors

A

Orangutans Will Vomit On You Right Before They Become Large, Proud Giants
25 mcg - orange
50 mcg - white [no dye]
75 mcg - violet
88 mcg - olive
100 mcg - yellow
112 mcg - rose
125 mcg - brown
137 mcg - turquoise
150 mcg - blue
175 mcg - lilac
200 mcg - pink
300 mcg - green

593
Q

Armour Thyroid

A

thyroid desiccated; T4 + T3
thyroid supplement

593
Q

Thyrolar

A

Liotrix; T4 + T3
thyroid supplement

593
Q

Levothroid, Levoxyl, Synthroid, Unithroid

A

levothyroxine; T4
thyroid supplement

594
Q

PTU

A

propylthiouracil
thionamide

595
Q

hyperthyroid in pregnancy

A

1st trimester: PTU
2nd & 3rd: methimazole

596
Q

Zonegran

A

zonisamide

596
Q

Luminal

A

phenobarbital

597
Q

Mysoline

598
Q

SSKI, Lugol’s solution

A

iodide
for thyroid storm

599
Q

Citracal

A

calcium citrate

600
Q

osteoporosis trx

A
  • bisphosphonates
  • denosumab
  • raloxifene
  • estrogen-progestin replacement therapy
  • calcitonin
  • teriparatide
601
Q

Boniva

A

ibandronate Q3 mo
bisphosphonate
PO or IV

602
Q

Reclast

A

zoledronic acid Qyear
bisphosphonate

603
Q

Actonel

A

risendronate
bisphosphonate

604
Q

Atelvia

A

risedronate DR
bisphosphonate

605
Q

Fosamax

A

alendronate
bisphosphonate

606
Q

Prolia

A

denosumab
for osteoporosis

606
Q

Xgeva

A

denosumab
for malignancy

606
Q

Evista

A

raloxifene
estrogen rec. modulator

606
Q

Miacalcin

A

calcitonin inj

606
Q

Fortical

A

calcitonin nasal

606
Q

Forteo

A

teriparatide
parathyroid hormone analog

606
Q

Taxotene

A

docetaxel
taxane
M phase
antimicrotubule

606
Q

Taxol, Onxol, Paxene

A

paclitaxel
taxane
M phase
antimicrotubule

607
Q

Navelbine

A

vinorelbine
vinca alkaloid
M phase specific
antimicrotubule

607
Q

Velban, Velbe

A

vinblastine
vinca alkaloid
M phase specific
antimicrotubule

607
Q

Vincasar, Oncovin, Vincrex

A

vincristine
vinca alkaloid
M phase specific
antimicrotubule

607
Q

chemo antimicrotubule agents

A

epothilones
halicondrin B analogues
taxanes
vinca alkaloids

608
Q

M topo II inhibitors

A

anthracemedione
anthracyclines
epipodophyllotoxins

609
Q

Cerubidine

A

daunorubicin
anthracycline
M topo II inhibitor

609
Q

Adriamycin, Doxil, Rubex, Caelyx, Myocet

A

doxorubicin
anthracycline
M topo II inhibitor

609
Q

Ellence

A

epirubicin
anthracycline
M topo II inhibitor

609
Q

Idamycin

A

idarubicin
anthracycline
tM opo II inhibitor

609
Q

Novantrone

A

mitoxantrone
anthracycline
M topo II inhibitor

609
Q

Zinecard

A

dexrazoxane
prevents heart damage from anthracyclines

609
Q

Totect

A

dexrazoxane
treats extravasation

610
Q

Paraplatin

A

carboplatin
platinum-based compound

610
Q

Platinol

A

cisplatin
platinum-based compound

610
Q

Eloxatin

A

oxaliplatin
platinum-based compound

610
Q

S topo II inhibitors

A

anthracemedione
anthracyclines

610
Q

Camptosar

A

irinotecan
S topo II inhibitor
S phase specific

611
Q

VePesid, Etopophos, Toposar

A

etoposide
S topo II inhibitor
S phase specific

612
Q

Hycamtin

A

topotecan
S topo II inhibitor
S phase specific

612
Q

antimetabolites

A

folate antagonists
purine analogues
pyrimidine analogues
hydroxyurea

612
Q

Imuran

A

azathioprine
purine analog metabolite
S phase specific

612
Q

Fludara

A

fludarabine
purine analog metabolite
S phase specific

612
Q

Purinethol

A

6-mercaptopurine
purine analog metabolite
S phase specific

612
Q

Lanvis, Tabloid

A

6-thioguanine
purine analog metabolite
S phase specific

612
Q

Alimta

A

pemetrexed
folate metabolite
S phase specificolate

612
Q

Rheumatrex, Trexall, Mexate

A

methotrexate
folate metabolite
S phase specificolate

612
Q

methotrexate antidotes

A

leucovorin [folic acid]

612
Q

Xeloda

A

capecitabine [5-FU prodrug]
pyrimidine analog
s phase specific

612
Q

Adrucil, Carac, Efudex

A

5-FU
pyrimidine analog
s phase specific

613
Q

Cytosar-U

A

cytarabine
pyrimidine analog
s phase specific

613
Q

Gemzar

A

gemcitabine
pyrimidine analog
s phase specific

613
Q

Treanda

A

bendamustine
alkylator

614
Q

Busulfex inj, Myleran

A

busulfan
alkylator

614
Q

Thioplex

A

thiotepa
alkylator

614
Q

BiCNU, Gliadel

A

carmustine
alkylator

614
Q

Leukeran

A

chlorambucil
alkylator

614
Q

Cytoxan, Neosar, Procytox

A

cyclophosphamide
alkylator

614
Q

Ifex

A

ifosfamide
alkylator

614
Q

CeeNU

A

lomustine
alkylator

614
Q

Zytiga

A

abiraterone
prostate cancer

614
Q

Casodex

A

bicalutamide
prostate cancer

614
Q

Zoladex

A

goserelin
prostate cancer

614
Q

Eulexin

A

flutamide
prostate cancer

614
Q

Lupron

A

leuprolide
prostate cancer

615
Q

Gleevec, Glivec

A

imatinib
TKI

615
Q

Tarceva

A

erlotinib
TKI

615
Q

Afinitor

A

everolimus
TKI

615
Q

Sprycel

A

dasatinib
TKI

616
Q

Tasigna

A

nilotinib
TKI

616
Q

Sutent

A

sunitinib
TKI

616
Q

Nexavar

A

sorafenib
TKI

617
Q

Iressa

A

gefitinib
TKI

617
Q

Tykerb

A

lapatinib
TKI

617
Q

Aliqopa

A

copanlisib
TKI

618
Q

Alunbrig

A

brigatinib
TKI

618
Q

Calquenbce

A

acalabrutinib
TKI

618
Q

Kisqali

A

ribociclib
TKI

618
Q

Nerlynx

A

neratinib
TKI

618
Q

Rydapt

A

midostaurin
TKI

618
Q

Verzenio

A

abemaciclib
TKI

618
Q

Revimid

A

lenalidomide
immunomodulator

618
Q

Proleukin

A

aldesleukin, IL-2
immunomodulator

618
Q

Aldara

A

imiquimod
immunomodulator

618
Q

Thalomid

A

thalidomide
immunomodulator
REMS

618
Q

Rituxan

A

rituximab
mAb

618
Q

Avastin

A

bevacizumab
mAb

618
Q

Herceptin

A

trastuzumab
mAb

618
Q

Erbitux

A

cetuximab
mAb

619
Q

Yervoy

A

ipilimumab
mAb

620
Q

Campath

A

alemtuzumab
mAb

620
Q

Mylotarg

A

gemtuzumab
mAb

620
Q

Zevalin

A

irbritumomab
mAb

620
Q

Bexxar

A

tositumomab
mAb

621
Q

Velcade

A

bortezomib

621
Q

Elspar

A

asparaginase

621
Q

Blenoxane

621
Q

Cosmegen

A

dactinomycin

621
Q

Targretin

A

bexarotene

621
Q

Alkeran

622
Q

Emcyt

A

estramustine

622
Q

Hydrea

A

hydroxyurea

622
Q

Mutamycin

622
Q

Mustargen

A

mechlorethamine

623
Q

Zanosar

A

streptozocin

623
Q

Idhifa

A

enasidenib

623
Q

Zejula

623
Q

Arimidex

A

anazstrole
oral aromatase inhibitors [after menopause] for breast cancer

623
Q

Aromasin

A

exemestane
oral aromatase inhibitors [after menopause] for breast cancer

624
Q

Femara

A

letrozole
oral aromatase inhibitors [after menopause] for breast cancer

624
Q

Faslodex

A

fulvestrant
oral aromatase inhibitors [after menopause] for breast cancer

625
Q

Fareston

A

toremifene
oral estrogen blocker for breast cancer

625
Q

Nolvadex

A

tamoxifen
oral estrogen blocker for breast cancer

625
Q

Megace

A

megestrol
for breast & uterine cancer

625
Q

Metamucil

A

psyllium
fiber/bulk forming laxative

625
Q

Citrucel

A

methylcellulose
fiber/bulk forming laxative

625
Q

FiberCon

A

polycarbophil
fiber/bulk forming laxative

625
Q

Colace

A

docusate sodium
stool softener [emolient]

625
Q

Kaopectate Liqui-Gel

A

docusate calcium
stol softener [emollient]

625
Q

Nujol

A

mineral oil
lubricant

625
Q

Dulcolax

A

bisacodyl
stimulant

625
Q

Senokot, Ex-lax

A

senna
stimulant

625
Q

Citroma

A

magnesium citrate
saline cathartic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Epsom salt

A

magnesium sulfate
saline cathartic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Milk of Magnesia

A

magnesium hydroxide
saline cathartic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Fleets Phospho-Soda

A

sodium phosphate
saline cathartic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Duphalac, Chronulac

A

lactulose
hyperosmotic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Miralax, Carbowax, Golytely

A

polyethylene glycol
hyperosmotic
osmotic laxative

626
Q

Relistor

A

methylnaltrexone
gut opioid blocker
only for pts on opioids & failed docusate + senna or bisacodyl

626
Q

Trulance

A

plecanatide
chronic idiopathic constipation

626
Q

Linzess

A

linaclotide
chronic idiopathic constipation

627
Q

Amitiza

A

lubiprostone
chronic idiopathic constipation

627
Q

Imodium

A

loperamide
diarrhea

627
Q

Lomotil

A

diphenoxylate + atropine
C-V
diarrhea

628
Q

Pepto-Bismol, Kaopectate

A

bismuth subsalicylate

628
Q

Lotronex

A

alosetron
for women w/ IBD + diarrhea as main symptom

628
Q

Bentyl

A

dicyclomine
antispasmodic [anticholinergic]

628
Q

Azulfidine, Sulfazine

A

sulfasalazine
aminosalicylate

628
Q

Asacol, Pentasa, Lialda, Canada supp, Rowasa enema

A

mesalamine
aminosalicylate for IBD

628
Q

IBD maintenance

A
  1. aminosalicylates
    - sulfasalazine
    - mesalamine
  2. immunosuppressives
    - azathioprine
    - 6-mercaptopurine
    - methotrexate
  3. mAbs
    - infliximab
    - adalimumab
    - certolizumab
    - natalizumab
628
Q

Remicade

A

infliximab

628
Q

Humira, Cyltezo, Abrildad, Hadlima

A

adalimumab

629
Q

Cimzia

A

certolizumab

629
Q

Tysabri

A

natalizumab

629
Q

Avonex

A

interferon beta-1a
1x weekly
SC immune modulator for MS

629
Q

Rebif

A

interferon beta-1a
3x/weekly
SC immune modulator for MS

629
Q

Betaseron

A

interferon beta-1b
QOD
SC immune modulator for MS

629
Q

Extavia

A

interferon beta-1b QOD
SC immune modulator for MS

630
Q

Copaxone

A

glatiramer acetate
SC immune modulator for MS

630
Q

Plegridy

A

peginterferon beta-1a
SC immune modulator for MS

630
Q

Kesimpta

A

ofatumumab
SC immune modulator for MS

630
Q

GIlenya

A

fingolimod
oral immune modulator for MS

630
Q

Aubagio

A

teriflunomide
SC immune modulator for MS

631
Q

Tecfidera

A

dimethyl fumarate
SC immune modulator for MS

631
Q

Mayzent

A

siponimod
SC immune modulator for MS

631
Q

Vumerity

A

diroximel fumarate
SC immune modulator for MS

631
Q

Zeposia

A

ozsanimod
SC immune modulator for MS

631
Q

Ponvory

A

ponesimod
SC immune modulator for MS

632
Q

Tysabri

A

natalizumab
mAb for MS

632
Q

Lemtrada

A

alentuzumab
mAb for MS

632
Q

Ocrevus

A

ocrelizumab
mAb for MS

632
Q

Rituxan

A

rituximab
mAb for MS

633
Q

Ampyra

A

dalfampridine
to help improve walking in MS

634
Q

Pepcid

A

famotidine
H2RA

634
Q

Axid

A

nizatidine
H2RA

634
Q

Tagamet

A

cimetidine
H2RA

634
Q

Prilosec

A

omeprazole
PPI

634
Q

Zegerid

A

omeprazole/Na bicarb
PPI

634
Q

Nexium

A

esomeprazole
PO or IV
PPI

634
Q

Prevacid

A

lansoprazole
PPI

635
Q

Dexilant

A

dexlansoprazole
PPI

635
Q

Aciphex

A

rabeprazole

635
Q

Protonix

A

pantoprazole
PO or IV
PPI

635
Q

Reglan

A

metoclopramide

635
Q

Carafate

A

sucralfate
cytoprotective agent

635
Q

Cytotec

A

misoprostol
cytoprotective agent

635
Q

Pepto-Bismol

A

bismuth subsalicylate
cytoprotective agent
antidiarrheal

636
Q

triple therapy LAC regimen

A

lansoprazole
amoxicillin BID
clarithromycin BID
x10-14 day

637
Q

triple therapy BMT

A

bismuth
metronidazole
tetracycline
x14 days

637
Q

triple therapy PrevPac

A

lansoprazole
amoxicllin
clarithromycin BID
x14 days

637
Q

quadruple therapy Pylera

A

bismuth
metronidazole
tetracycline QID
PPI BID
x10 days

637
Q

quadruple therapy Helidac

A

bismuth
metronidazole
tetracycline QID x14 days
H2RA x28 days

637
Q

NSAID BBW

A

COX-2 selective: CV thrombotic events
COX-1 selective: GI bleeding

637
Q

Bayer, Ascriptin, Bufferin, Ecotrin

A

aspirin
cardioprotection

637
Q

Aleve

A

naproxen OTC
220mg BID

638
Q

Naprosyn, Naprelan, Anaprox

A

naproxen Rx

638
Q

Vimovo

A

naproxen + esomeprazole

638
Q

Indocin

A

indomethacin
for gout

638
Q

Feldene

A

piroxicam
most GI toxic

638
Q

Toradol

A

ketorolac
most GI toxic
5 days max trx

638
Q

Ultracet

A

APAP + tramadol

639
Q

antidote for APAP

640
Q

Motrin, Advil

641
Q

Cataflam, Voltaren

A

diclofenac

642
Q

Celebrex

A

celecoxib
COX-2 selective

643
Q

Arthrotec

A

diclofenac + misoprostol

644
Q

Mobic

A

meloxicam
COX-2 selective

645
Q

Lodine

A

etodolac
COX-2 selective

646
Q

Dolobid

A

diflunisal
COX-2 selective

647
Q

Ofirmev

648
Q

Caldolor

A

IV ibuprofen

649
Q

Clinoril

650
Q

Daypro

651
Q

Disalcid

652
Q

Orudis

A

ketoprofen

653
Q

Embeda

A

morphine + naltrexone

654
Q

Vantrela ER

A

hydrocodone abuse deterrent

655
Q

Narcan

656
Q

Suboxone

A

buprenorphine + naloxone

657
Q

Subutex

A

buprenorphine SL

657
Q

Cassipa

A

buprenorphine + naloxone higher strength

658
Q

Sublocade

A

buprenorphine SC Qmon

659
Q

Buprenex, Butrans, Probuphine, Belbuca

A

buprenorphine implant

660
Q

Stadol

A

butorphanol
C-IV
opioid agonist

660
Q

Nubain

A

nalbuphine
opioid agonist

660
Q

Talwin

A

pentazocine
C-IV
opioid agonist

660
Q

Robaxin

A

methocarbamol
muscle relaxant

660
Q

Zanaflex

A

tizanidine
muscle relaxant

660
Q

Lucemyra

A

lofexidine
opioid agonist

660
Q

Soma

A

carisoprodol
C-IV
muscle relaxant

660
Q

Savella

A

milnacipran
for fibromyalgia

660
Q

Proventil HFA

A

albuterol MDI
SABA

661
Q

Lioresal

A

baclofen
muscle relaxant

661
Q

Flexeril

A

cyclobenzaprine
muscle relaxant

661
Q

Skelaxin

A

metaxalone
muscle relaxant

662
Q

ProAri HFA

A

albuterol MDI
SABA

662
Q

Volmax

A

albuterol sol
SABA

662
Q

Maxair Autohaler

A

pirbuterol MDI
SABA

662
Q

Alvesco

A

Ciclesonide
ICS

662
Q

QVAR

A

beclomethasone
ICS

662
Q

AccuNeb

A

albuterol nebulized
SABA

663
Q

Xopenex HFA

A

levalbuterol MDI
SABA

663
Q

Azmacort

A

triamcinolone
ICS

663
Q

Flovent

A

fluticasone
ICS

663
Q

Asmanex

A

mometasone
ICS

664
Q

Ventolin HFA

A

albuterol MDI
SABA

664
Q

Proventil

A

albuterol tabs
SABA

664
Q

asthma initial therapy

A
  1. ICS +/- LTRA
  2. ICS/LABA
  3. ICS/LABA + LAMA
    advanced therapy: anti-IgE or anti-IL-5
664
Q

Aerospan, Aerobid

A

Flunisolide
ICS

664
Q

Advair

A

fluticasone + salmeterol
ICS + LABA

665
Q

24 hour acting LAMAs

A

tiotropium
glycopyrronium
umeclidinium

665
Q

Dulera

A

mometasone + formoterol
ICS + LABA

665
Q

Serevent Diskus

A

salmeterol
12 hour
LABA

665
Q

Symbicort

A

budesonide + formoterol
ICS + LABA

665
Q

12 hour acting LAMAs

A

aclidinium
darotropium

665
Q

Foradil Aerolizer

A

formoterol
12 hour
LABA

665
Q

Accolate

A

zafirlukast
LTRA

665
Q

Intal

A

cromolyn sodium
mast cell stabilizer

665
Q

Singulair

A

montelukast
LTRA

665
Q

Zyflo CR

A

zileuton
LTRA

666
Q

Pulmicort

A

budesonide
ICS

666
Q

24 hour duration LABAs

A

indacaterol
vilanterol
olodaterol
abediterol
carmoterol

666
Q

Elixophyllin, Theo-24, TheoCap, Uniphyl, Theochron

A

theophylline
bronchodilator

667
Q

Xolair

A

omalizumab
anti-IgE

667
Q

Fasenra

A

benralizumab
anti IL-5 for eosinophilic disease

667
Q

Nucala

A

mepolizumab
anti IL-5

667
Q

Cinqair

A

reslizumab
anti IL-5

667
Q

Flonase, Veramyst

A

fluticasone nasal

667
Q

MDI instructions

A
  1. prime
  2. shake well [except QVAR & Alvesco]
  3. use spacer or rinse mouth
  4. slowly breath out, hold & breathe normally
  5. clean weekly
667
Q

DPI instructions

A
  1. no priming
  2. don’t shake
  3. use mouthpiece [no spacers]
  4. inhaled dose fast & deep
  5. don’t inhale into device
  6. rinse mouth
  7. don’t clean, keep dry
668
Q

Rhinocort Aqua

A

budesonide nasal

668
Q

Nasarel

A

flunisolide nasal

668
Q

Beconase AQ

A

beclomethasone nasal

668
Q

Omnaris

A

ciclesonide nasal

668
Q

NasalCrom

A

cromolyn sodium nasal

668
Q

Nasonex

A

mometasone nasal

668
Q

COPD initial therapy

A
  1. LAMA or LABA
  2. LAMA/LABA
  3. LAMA/LABA + ICS
    advanced therapy
    - chronic macrolides
    - roflumilast
669
Q

Lonhala

A

glycopyrrolate inhalation sol

669
Q

Hytrin

A

terazosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Avodart

A

dutasteride
5-alpha reductase inhibitor for BPH

669
Q

Cardura

A

doxazosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Flomax

A

tamsulosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Uroxatral

A

alfuzosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Daliresp

A

roflumilast
PDE 4 inhibitor

669
Q

Proscar

A

finasteride
5-alpha reductase inhibitor for BPH

669
Q

Minioress

A

prazosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Rapaflo

A

silodosin
alpha-1 blocker
BPH

669
Q

Propecia

A

finasteride
for male pattern baldness

669
Q

Levitra

A

vardenafil
PDE-5 inhibitor for ED

670
Q

Revatio

A

sildenafil
PDE-5 inhibitor for PAH

670
Q

Viagra

A

sildenafil
PDE-5 inhibitor for ED

670
Q

Adcirca

A

tadalafil
PDE-5 inhibitor for PAH

670
Q

Caverject

A

alprostadil inj for ED

670
Q

Tracleer

A

bosentan
PAH

670
Q

Detrol

A

tolterodine
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

670
Q

Vesicare

A

solifenacin
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

670
Q

Prostacyclin, Flolan

A

epoprostenol
PAH

670
Q

Staxyn ODT

A

vardenafil ODT
PDE-5 inhibitor for ED

670
Q

Cialis

A

tadalafil
PDE-5 inhibitor for ED & BPH

670
Q

Ventavis

A

Iloprost
PAH

671
Q

Ditropan, Oxytrol

A

oxybutynin
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

671
Q

Enablex

A

darifenacin
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

672
Q

Myrbetriq

A

mirabegron
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

672
Q

Tavist

A

clemastine
1st AH

672
Q

Toviaz

A

fesoterodine
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

672
Q

Sanctura

A

trospium
anticholinergic for urinary incontinence/overactive bladder

672
Q

Chlor-Trimeton

A

chlorpheniramine
1st AH

672
Q

Unisom

A

doxylamine
1st AH

672
Q

Benadryl

A

diphenhydramine
1st AH

672
Q

Zyrtec

A

cetirizine
2nd gen AH

672
Q

Phenergan

A

promethazine
1st AH

672
Q

Claritin

A

loratadine
2nd gen AH

672
Q

Allegra

A

fexofenadine
2nd gen AH

672
Q

Xyzal

A

levocetirizine
2nd gen AH

673
Q

Clarinex

A

desloratadine
2nd gen AH

673
Q

Coricidin HBP

A

chlorpheniramine + dextromethorphan + guaifenesin + APAP
alpha-adrenergic agonist

673
Q

Privine

A

naphazoline
decongestant nasal

673
Q

Astelin, Astepro

A

azelastine
2nd gen AH nasal

673
Q

Patanase

A

olopatadine
2nd gen AH nasal

673
Q

Sudafed

A

pseudoephedrine
decongestant

673
Q

Otrivin

A

xylometazoline
decongestant nasal

673
Q

Neo-Synephrine 4-hour

A

phenylephrine
decongestant nasal

673
Q

Delsym

A

dextromethorphan
antitussive

673
Q

Sudafed PE

A

phenylephrine
decongestant

673
Q

Afrin, Neo-Synephrine 12-Hr

A

oxymetazoline
decongestant nasal

673
Q

Travatan 2

A

travoprost
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

673
Q

Mucinex

A

guaifenesin
expectorant

674
Q

Xelpros

A

latanoprost w/o preservative
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

674
Q

Lumigan, Durysta Implant

A

bimatoprost
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

674
Q

Betoptic S

A

betaxolol
beta-blocker
glaucoma

674
Q

Timoptic

A

timolol
beta-blocker
glaucoma

674
Q

Zioptan

A

tafluprost
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

674
Q

Betagan

A

levobunolol
beta-blocker
glaucoma

674
Q

Trusopt

A

dorzolamide
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
glaucoma

674
Q

Xalatan

A

latanoprost w/ preservative
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

674
Q

Vyzulta

A

latanoprostene bunod
prostaglandin analog
glaucoma

674
Q

Ocupress

A

carteolol
beta-blocker
glaucoma

674
Q

Cosopt

A

dorzolamide/timolol
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
glaucoma

674
Q

OptiPranolol

A

metipranolol
beta-blocker
glaucoma

675
Q

Azopt

A

brinzolamide
carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
glaucoma

676
Q

Diamox

A

acetazolamide
diuretic
glaucoma

676
Q

Alphagan 0.1%, 0.15%, 0.2%

A

brimonidine
alpha-agonist/adrenergic
glaucoma

676
Q

Combigan

A

brimonidine/timolol
alpha agonist/adrenergic

676
Q

Emadine

A

emedastine
AH
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Lumify 0.025%

A

brimonidine
alpha-agonist/adrenergic
OTC low-dose ocular redness

676
Q

Rhopressa

A

netarsudil
rho kinase inhibitor
glaucoma

676
Q

Zaditor, Alaway

A

ketotifen
AH
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Naphcon-A, Opcon-A, Visine-A

A

naphazoline/pheniramine
AH/decongestant
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Alocril

A

nedocromil
mast cell stabilizer
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Acular

A

ketorolac
NSAID
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Lotemax

A

loteprednol
allergic conjunctivitis

676
Q

Restasis

A

cyclosporine 0.05% ophth
dry eyes

676
Q

Optivar

A

azelastine
AH
allergic conjunctivitis

677
Q

Azasite

A

azithromycin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Vigamox

A

moxifloxacin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Ciloxan

A

ciprofloxacin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Tobrex

A

tobramycin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Garamycin

A

gentamicin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Polytrim

A

trimethoprim/polymyxin
bacterial conjunctivitis

677
Q

Neosporin

A

neomycin/bacitracin/polymyxin
bacterial conjunctivitis

678
Q

Besivance

A

besifloxacin
bacterial conjunctivitis

678
Q

Cequa

A

cyclosporine 0.09% ophth
dry eyes

678
Q

Ocuflox

A

ofloxacin
bacterial conjunctivitis

678
Q

A/B Otic, Auralgan

A

antipyrine/benzocaine
otitis media

678
Q

Americaine Otic

A

benzocaine
otitis media

679
Q

Cerumenex

A

triethanolamine
ear wax removal

679
Q

Topicort

A

desocimetasone 0.05-0.25%
high potency top steroid

679
Q

Floxin Otic

A

ciprofloxacin
otitis media

679
Q

Cipro HC

A

ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone
otitis media

679
Q

Debrox

A

carbamide peroxide
ear way removal

679
Q

Vanos cream, Lidex

A

fluocinonide 0.05-0.1%
high potency top steroid

679
Q

Ciprodex

A

ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone
otitis media

679
Q

Ultravate

A

halobetasol 0.05%
high potency top steroid

679
Q

Cortisporin

A

neomycin/hydrocortisone
otitis media

679
Q

Kenalog

A

triamcinolone 0.1%
med potency top steroid

679
Q

Clobex, Cormax, Olux, Temovate

A

clobetasol 0.05%
high potency top steroid

680
Q

Psorcon

A

diflorasone 0.05%
high potency top steroid

680
Q

Elocon

A

mometasone 0.1%
med potency top steroid

681
Q

Benoxyl, Benzac, Clearsil, BenzaClin, Duac

A

topical benozyl peroxide
acne

681
Q

DermAtop

A

prednicarbate 0.1%
med potency top steroid

681
Q

Differin

A

adapalene
top retinoid
acne

681
Q

Tazorac

A

tazarotene
top retinoid
acne

681
Q

Hytone

A

hydrocortisone 0.5-2.5%
low potency top steroid

681
Q

Retin-A, Avita

A

tretinoin
top retinoid
acne

681
Q

Cultivate

A

fluticasone 0.005%
med potency top steroid

681
Q

Aczone

A

dapsone gel
top retinoid
acne

681
Q

DesOwen

A

desonide 0.05%
low potency top steroid

681
Q

Lamisil

A

terbinafine 1%

681
Q

Nizoral A-D

A

ketoconazole

681
Q

Accutane, Claravis, Absorica, Amnesteem, Sotret

A

PO isotretinoin
acne

681
Q

Lotrimin

A

clotrimazole 1%

682
Q

Nizoral

A

ketoconazole cream

682
Q

Diflucan

A

fluconazole

682
Q

Sporanox

A

itraconazole
onychomycosis

682
Q

Eucrisa

A

crisaborole
atopic dermatitis

682
Q

Elidel

A

pimecrolimus
atopic dermatitis

682
Q

Elimite

A

permethrin 5% Rx
lice

682
Q

Natroba

A

spinosad
lice

682
Q

RID

A

pyrethrin
lice

683
Q

Protopic

A

tacrolimus
atopic dermatitis

683
Q

Penlac

A

ciclopirox

683
Q

NIX

A

permethrin 1% OTC
lice

683
Q

Xeglyze

A

Abametapir
lice

683
Q

Dupixent

A

dupilumab
atopic dermatitis

684
Q

Aldara

A

imiquimod
genital warts

684
Q

Abreva

A

docosanol
HSV1 cold sores

684
Q

Ivy Block

A

bentoquatam
poison ivy

684
Q

Bactroban

684
Q

Dovonex

A

calcipotriene
psoriasis

684
Q

Neosporin

A

polymyxin + bacitracin + neomycin

684
Q

Aveeno

A

colloidal oatmeal
poison ivy

684
Q

Taclonex

A

calcipotriene + betamethasone
psoriasis

684
Q

Polysporin

A

bacitracin + polymyxin

684
Q

Caladryl

A

calamine
poison ivy

684
Q

Burrows

A

Zanfel, aluminum sol
poison ivy

685
Q

Tazorac

A

tazarotene
psoriasis

685
Q

Anthranol, Psoriatec

A

anthralin
psoriasis

686
Q

Atrovent

A

ipratropium
LAMA

686
Q

Spiriva

A

tiotropium
LAMA

686
Q

Combivent

A

ipratropium + albuterol
LAMA + SABA

686
Q

Breztri Aerosphere

A

budesonide + glycopyrrolate + formoterol
corticosteroid + anticholinergic + LABA

686
Q

Stiolto Respimat

A

tiotropium/olodaterol
LAMA/LABA

687
Q

Tudorza

A

aclidinium
LAMA

687
Q

Duaklir Pressair

A

aclidinium/formoterol
LAMA/LABA

687
Q

Brovana

A

arformoterol
12 hour
LABA for COPD

687
Q

Arcapta

A

indacaterol
LABA

687
Q

Breo Ellipta

A

fluticasone + vilanterol
ICS + LABA

687
Q

Anoro Ellpita

A

umeclidinium + vilanterol
anticholinergic + LABA

687
Q

Trelegy Ellipta

A

umeclidinium + fluticasone + vilanterol
LAMA + ICS + LABA

687
Q

Seebri Neohaler

A

glycopyrrolate DPI

688
Q

Neoral, Sandimmune

A

cyclosporie
psoriasis

688
Q

Soriatane

A

acitretin
psoriasis

688
Q

Xofluza

A

baloxavir
influenza

688
Q

Rogaine

688
Q

influenza vaccines w/o eggs

688
Q

FluMist, MedImmune

A

influenza nasal vaccine

688
Q

what is calcium chloride incompatible with

A
  • mag sulfate
  • propofol
  • sodium bicarbonate
688
Q

which drugs must be protected from light

A
  • ampB → D5W
  • linezolid
  • NTG
  • NE → D5W or NS
  • nitroprusside
688
Q

Tamiflu

A

oseltamivir x5 day
influenza

688
Q

Rapivab

A

peramivir x1
influenza

688
Q

what is sodium bicarb incompatible with

A
  • amiodarone
  • calcium chloride
  • dobutamine
  • epi/NE
  • isoproterenol
688
Q

Relenza

A

zanamivir x5 days
oral inh
influenza

688
Q

which drugs to dilute in NS

A
  • fluconazole
  • daptomycin
  • flagyl → don’t refrigerate
  • amp, unasyn
  • ertapenem
  • primaxin
  • erythromycin
  • insulin
688
Q

short stability drugs

A
  • bactrim → D5W, don’t refrigerate, 4-6 hours
  • phenytoin → NS, don’t refrigerate, 2 hours
  • levothyroxine → NS, mix on floor
  • infliximab → NS, 3 hours
  • filgrastim → NS, 6 hours
688
Q

which drugs to dilute in D5W

A
  • amiodarone
  • synercid
  • cipro
689
Q

patches 12 on 12 off

A

NTG
lidocaine → can cut

690
Q

twice a week patches

A
  • alora, estraderm, vivelle dot
  • oxybutynine
690
Q

sulfa drugs

A
  • sulfa ABX
  • dapsone
  • HIV PI: darunavir, fosamprenavir, tipranavir
  • HCV PI: simeprevir
    generally tolerated:
  • loop & thiazide diuretics
  • SUs
  • carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  • HIV & HCV Pis
  • celecoxib, diazoxide, ibutilide, probenecid, sotalol, sumatriptan, tipranavir, topiramate, zonisamide
690
Q

daily patches

A

selegiline [Emsam]
methylphenidate [Daytrana]
rivastigmine [Exelon]
testosterone [Androderm]
nicotine patch [NicoDerm, Habitrol]

690
Q

Q72H patches

A
  • fentanyl
  • scopolamine
690
Q

weekly patches

A
  • climara, menostar [HRT]
  • clonidine
  • buprenorphine
  • anticonceptive patch

CPJE (3 decks)

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