CPA REG Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, and Federal Tax Procedures Sa Flashcards

1
Q

While reviewing a new client’s prior-year tax returns, a CPA became aware that the client did not properly file all required federal income tax returns. Under Treasury Circular 230 what should the CPA do in this situation?

A

Advise the client of the consequences of the noncompliance

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2
Q

Under Circular 230, it is proper to delay as long as possible in fulfilling an IRS request for records or information if:

A

You have investigated and believe in good faith that the information is privileged

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3
Q

If you learn that the tax return you prepared for your client last year contained a material error, you should

A

Promptly inform your client

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4
Q

Pursuant to Treasury Circular 230, which of the following statements about the return of a client’s records is correct?

A

The practitioner may retain copies of the clients records

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5
Q

Under Treasury Circular 230, which of the following actions of a CPA tax advisor is characteristic of a best practice in rendering tax advice?

A

Establishing relevant facts, evaluating the reasonableness of assumptions and representations, and arriving at a conclusion supported by the law and facts in a tax memorandum

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6
Q

Under Circular 230, which of the following describes improper activity by a CPA giving federal tax advice?

A

The CPA takes into account the possibility that a tax return will not be audited

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7
Q

While preparing a tax return for a new client and reviewing the client’s prior-year return, a CPA noticed an error made by the client’s former tax preparer. According to Treasury Department Circular 230, which of the following is the CPA specifically required to do in this case?

A

Inform the client of the error and advise of the consequences

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8
Q

With respect to any given tax return, which of the following statements is correct?

A

More than one person may be deemed to be a preparer of a return

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9
Q

A tax preparer filed a return for a taxpayer and used the taxpayer’s detailed check register containing both business and personal expenses. If the taxpayer knowingly included personal expenses as deductible business expenses on the taxpayer’s business then the

A

Tax preparer will be liable for penalties arising from an understatement due to willful or reckless conduct

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10
Q

Which of the following will not get CPA Sandy in trouble with the IRS?

A

Failure to furnish her preparer’s identifying number to her clients

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11
Q

Pak worked for EPS marketing trusts and other asset protection devices through a nationwide multi-level marketing network of financial planners. THe IRS labeled the trusts illicit tax shelters. EPS then started calling the trusts by new names, but continued to market them. Pak was EPS’s executive vice president, spoke at its public events, and received sales overrrides from agents he recruited as sales reps for EPS, As Pak explained them, the trusts allowed for clients to transfer all their income to a “donor directed” trust from which they could spend the money on anything they wanted without paying taxes on it. The IRS brought an action against Pak seeking to fine him for promoting an abusive tax shelter in violation of 26 U.S.C 6700. Which of the following is true?

A

Pak is probably liable

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12
Q

Under which of the following scenarios will Jenny be in trouble under section 6718’s confidentiality provisions?

A

When she sells a celerity client’s confidential tax information to a tabloid newspaper

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13
Q

CPA Monrow included several rich tax clients to invest in a domesticated beaver tax shelter device. When the IRS sought to audit one of Monrew’s clients, he realized that among other difficulties, he had not had the client sign proper documentation. While an IRS agent sat in the waiting room of one of his clients, Monrow slipped in a back door and had the client sign a backdated document. When the government discovered all this, Monrow was indicted for tax fraud in violation of section 7206. Which of the following is true?

A

Monrow is probably guilty

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14
Q

Louis, the volunteer treasurer of a nonprofit org and a member of its board of directors, compiles the data and fills out its annual form 990, Return of Or Exempt from Income Tax. Under the Internal Revenue Code, Louis is not considered a tax return preparer because:

A

He is not compensated

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15
Q

Tax return preparers can be subject to penalties under the Internal Revenue Code for failure to do any of the following except

A

Disclose a conflict of interest

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16
Q

Which agency is responsible for determining the continuing professional education requirements for licensed CPAs?

A

The board of accountancy for the state in which the licensed CPA practices

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17
Q

To whom must a CPA pay license fees in order to maintain a CPA license?

A

The state board of accountancy of the CPA’s state of licensure

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18
Q

When an ethics complaint carrying national implication rises, which entity typically handles it?

A

AICPA

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19
Q

When an ethics complaint carrying national implication rises, which entity typically handles it?

A

AICPA

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20
Q

CPA Smithers has had some professional difficulties. Which of the following is true?

A

If the state board of accountancy revokes Smither’s CPA license, s/he will be automatically expulsed from the AICPA

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21
Q

Which of the following can grant a CPA license?

A

A state board of accountancy

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22
Q

Cherokee wants to know which of the following is a requirement to earn a CPA license:

A

All of the above (150 hrs, pass cpa, one yr work experience)

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23
Q

Lola has had a few serious professional problems. Which of the following will probably cause a state board of accountancy to revoke her license or order a lesser punishment

A

All of the above (Failing to complete required continuing professional education, failing to pay her own income tax, violating professional standards)

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24
Q

Which of the following bodies ordinarily would have the authority to suspend or revoke a CPA’s license to practice public accounting?

A

A state board of accountancy

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25
Q

Taxpayer Clegg would certainly like to take a particular deduction that is barred by an IRS regulation. However, after considerable research, Clegg’s tax attorney believes that there is a one-third chance that a court would overturn the regulation as invalidly promulgated by the IRS. What should Clegg do?

A

Take the deduction, but disclose it

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26
Q

Fitely hired a tax accountant whom his attorney recommended. The accountant, Tilder, recommended that Fitley take a particular tax position that resulted in an understatement of taxes and the IRS is now seeking to penalize Fitley. In order to establish a good faith defense against the 20% understatement penalty, which of the following does Fitley need to establish:

A

All of the above (Tilder was a competent professional, he gave him all necessary an accurate info, and relied on good faith in his judgement)

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27
Q

Which of the following burdens of proof must be met when a disclosed position regarding a particular individual deduction is evaluated to determine it was taken in good faith

A

> or equal to 20%

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28
Q

Tribble carelessly filed his taxes four months late. He owes 60,000. What is his late filing penalty?

A

12,000 (20%)

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29
Q

Xina carelessly filed her taxes 10 months later. She owed 100,000 in taxes. What is Xina’s late filing penalty?

A

25,000 25%

30
Q

Tera filed her tax return on time but did not pay her taxes until four months after they were due. She owed 20,000. What is her late payment penalty amount?

A

400 2%

31
Q

Omar’s correct tax amount is $500,000, but he filed a form reporting that it was only $400,000. There is no claim of fraud. Is this a “substantial understatement” that will subject him to 20% understatement penalty?

A

Yes and his penalty will be $20,000 20% of missing 100,000

32
Q

ABC Corporation, a Chapter C corporation, had a correct tax amount of 1,000,000, but reported only 800,000. There is no claim of fraud. Is this a “substantial understatement” that will subject ABC to the 20% understatement penalty?

A

Yes and the penalty will be 40,000 (20% of missing amount)

33
Q

Slim is considering taking an aggressive tax position on his income tax return. His experience tax CPA has evaluated the position carefully and determined that there is one in four chance that it will if challenged be sustained. What should Slim do?

A

Take the position and disclose it

34
Q

In evaluating the hierarchy of authority in tax law, which of the following carries the greatest authoritative value for tax planning of transactions?

A

Internal Revenue Code

35
Q

Which of the following is Not considered a primary authoritative source when conducting tax research?

A

IRS publications

36
Q

Which of the following type of regulations cannot be cited as authority to support a tax position?

A

Proposed regulations

37
Q

Which of the following courts is not a court of original jurisdiction?

A

United States Court of Appeals

38
Q

Which Senate committee considers new tax legislation?

A

Finance

39
Q

A CPA is researching a tax issue and is attempting to understand the intent of Congress. Which of the following would generally be least useful for that purpose?

A

A Notice of Proposed Rulemaking

40
Q

Which of the following is a list of courts that are referred to as courts of original jurisdiction or trial courts, for tax matters?

A

The Tax Court, the U.S. District Court, and the U.S. Court of Federal Claims

41
Q

If a taxpayer receives a 30-day letter from the IRS, the taxpayer:

A

May ignore the letter and take no action

42
Q

Which of the following documents does not govern the conduct of a CPA who is engaged in providing tax services?

A

Internal Revenue Service Audit Guides

43
Q

An IRS agent has just completed an examination of a corporation and issued a “no change” report. Which of the following statements about that situation is correct?

A

The IRS generally does not reopen the examination except in cases involving fraud or other similar misrepresentation.

44
Q

A statuory notice of deficiency explains that the taxpayer has 90 days to either pay the deficiency or else to file a

A

petition with the U.S. Tax Court

45
Q

A C corporation had a federal income tax liability of $40,000 for each of the last five years, each covering a 12 month period. The tax for the current year is $48,000. What is the lowest amount that must have been paid as estimated taxes for the current year so that no penalty for underpayment is applicable?

A

$40,000

46
Q

A taxpayer filed his income tax return after the due date but neglected to file an extension form. The return indicated a tax liability of $50,000 and taxes withheld of $45,000. On what amount would the penalties for late filing and late payment be computed?

A

5,000

47
Q

A tax return preparer may disclose or use tax return information without the taxpayers consent to

A

Be evaluated by a quality or peer review

48
Q

Which, if any, of the following could result in penalties against an income tax return preparer?
I. Knowing or reckless disclosure or use of tax information obtained in preparing a return
II. A willfill attempt to understate any client’s tax liability on a return or claim for a refund

A

Both I and II

49
Q

An accuracy-related penalty applies to the portion of tax underpayment attributable to
I. Negligence or disregard of the tax rules or regulations
II. Any substantial understatement of income

A

Both I and II

50
Q

Chris Baker’s adjusted gross income on her Year 8 tax return was $160,000. The amount covered a 12-month period. For the year 9 tax year, Baker may avoid the penalty for the underpayment of estimated tax if the timely estimated tax payments equal the required annual amount of
I. 90% of the tax return for the current year paid in four equal installments
II. 100% of prior year’s tax liability paid in four equal installments

A

I only

51
Q

A civil fraud penalty can be imposed on a corporation that underpays tax by

A

Maintaining false records and reporting fictitious transactions to minimize corporate tax liability

52
Q

A penalty for understated corporate tax liability can be imposed on a tax preparer who fails to

A

Make reasonable inquiries when taxpayer information appears incorrect.

53
Q

Morgan, a sole practioner CPA, prepares individual and corporate income tax returns. What documentation is Morgan required to retain concerning each return prepared?

A

Taxpayer’s name and identification number or a copy of the tax return

54
Q

An accounting firm was hired by a company to perform an audit. The company needed the audit report in order to obtain a loan from a bank. The bank lent $500,000 to the company based on the auditor’s report. Fifteen months later, the company declared bankruptcy and was unable to repay the loan. The bank discovered that the accounting firm failed to discover a material overstatement of assets of the company.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding a suit by the bank against the accounting firm? The bank

A

Can sue the accounting firm for loss of the loan because of negligence

55
Q

CPA Crane agreed to audit Banner Co. The audit did not go well, especially because Crane did not audit Banner’s subsidiary, which created various prbems for Banner. Banner sued Crane for breach of contract, because Crane alledgly did not comply with the engagement letter. Which of the following might Crane successfully raise in defense?

A

A and B
Evidence that Banner did not provide Crane with all records needed to successfully complete the audit
A provision in the engagement letter that provided that Crane would audit Banner, but not is subsidiaries

56
Q

Bosco Corporation had a very complicated tax situation. It hired CPA Arnold to prepare its corporate income tax return. Arnold made an error that caused Bosco to overpay its taxes by $3,000. The payment could have been avoided had Arnold advised Bosco to structure a particular transaction in a slightly different way. Bosoco paid $233,000 rather than the $230,000, that it might have paid. Upset with Arnold’s error, Bosco refused to pay the $20,000 fee specified in the engagement letter on grounds that Arnold had breached the contract by giving inaccurate advice. Which of the following is true regarding Arnold’s fee?

A

Because he substantially performed the contract, Arnold will recover his fee minus the damages his breach caused Bosco (20,000-3,000= 17,000)

57
Q

A CPA who has agreed to prepare a corporation’s taxes and to provide tax advice will generally be liable for breaching

A

A and B
Promises made in the written engagement letter
Promises made orally

58
Q

A company engaged a CPA to perform the annual audit of its financial statements. The audit failed to reveal an embezzlement scheme by one of the employees. Which of the following statements best describes the CPA’s potential liability for this failure?

A

The CPA’s adherence to generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) may prevent liability

59
Q

Under the position taken by a majority of the courts, to which third parties will an accountant who negligently prepares a client’s financial report be liable?

A

Any foreseen or known third party who relied on the report

60
Q

Mix and Associates, CPAs, issued an unqualified opinion on the financial statements of Glass Corp. for the year ended Dec 31 2005. It was determined that Glass’s treasurer had embezzled $300,000 from Glass during 2005. Glass sued Mix because of Mix’s failure to discover the embezzlement. Mix was unaware of the embezzlement. Which of the following is Mix’s best defense?

A

The audit was performed in accordance with GAAS

61
Q

When performing an audit, a CPA

A

must exercise the level of care, skills, and judgment expected of a reasonably prudent CPA under the circumstances

62
Q

Phillips, CPA, was engaged by Veda, Inc. to audit Veda’s financial statements. Phillips was told that the financial statements and the audit report were to be shown to Ryan, a potential investor. As a result of the audit, Phillips issued an audit report containing an unqualified opinion on Veda’s financial statements. Ryan, after seeing financial statements and audit report made a substantial investment in Veda shares. Although Phillips exercised reasonable care in performing that audit, inaccuracies in the financial statements were later discovered causing Veda share prices to fall. Ryan claimed that had Ryan known of the inaccuracies, Ryan would not have purchased the shares. Will Ryan succeed in a suit against Phillips for negligence?

A

No, because Phillps exercised reasonable care in performing the audit

63
Q

A husband prepared his own tax return as married filing separately. His wife hired a CPA to prepare her tax return as married filing separately and asked the CPA not to disclose the information to anyone. The CPA was not retained by the husband for any tax work. The husband believed that the tax return was negligently prepared and that he was financially harmed. He hired an attorney without his wife consent, to pursue negligence claim against the CPA. The CPA hired an attorney to defend against the claim. To which party, if any, may the CPA dislose the wife’s tax return information without the wife’s consent?

A

The CPA’s attorney, for the evaluation of the negligence claim

64
Q

Salina wants to know which of the following is true regarding recognition of an accountant client testimonial privilege

A

Approximately 15 state legislatures have recognized an accountant-client testimonial privilege that applies in the states’ court

65
Q

Girard gave tax advice to frontenac corporation. The department of Justice and IRS are now investigating certain tax shelter transactions that Frontenac Corp entered into. Girard is resisting their requests for information by citing the tax practitioner’s privilege of AS7525 of the I.R.C to which of the following would that privilege be inapplicable?

A

A and B
Criminal proceedings
Written advice in connection with the promotion of a tax shelter

66
Q

Lakin is a CPA whose client, Sublette, is being sued by a state government in state court for evasion of state income taxes. Sublette does not want Lakin to testify against him regarding information that Sublette communicated to Lakin. Which of the following is true in a state with statutory version of the accountant-cleint testimonial privilege?

A

If the suit was in federal court, the state privilege would not apply even though the communication took place

67
Q

Which of the following are recognized exceptions that allow disclosure of confidential information?

A

All of the above (An enforceable subpoena has been served on the CPA, an ethical examination is being conducted regarding the CPA’s conduct, A peer review is occurring)

68
Q

Powhattan was surpised to learn how much income his client, Absurdco Inc. was making. He thought that Absurdco’s competitors might be interested in the information, so he sold it to one of them. When Absurdco found this out, it started investigating what consequences it might visit upon Powhattan. Which of the following is true?

A

All of the above (Powhattan may lose his CPA license, may be sued civilly by the IRs, may be prosecuted criminally)

69
Q

Colby is managing partner of a small accounting firm. He has heard of GAAP and wants to know what his responsibilities are regarding client information. Among others, Colby’s firm must

A

All of the above (Provide clients notice of its privacy procedures, collect information only in compliance with its policies and procedures, provide clients with access to their personal information for review and update)

70
Q

Jetmore was surprised to learn how much income tax his client, Quantilco, Inc, was making. He thought that Quantilco’s competitors might be interested in the information, so he sold it to one of them. When Quantilco found this out, it started investigating what consequences it might visit upon Jetmore. Which of the following is true?

A

A and B ( He may be sued civilly by the IRS, he may be prosecuted criminally by the Department of Justice)

71
Q

In which of the following situations is there a violation of client confidentiality under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?

A

A member whose practice is primarily bankruptcy discloses a client’s name

72
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about the circumstances under which a CPA firm may or may not disclose the names of its clients without the clients’ express permission?

A

A CPA firm may disclose this information unless disclosure would suggest that the client may be experiencing financial difficulties