Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPA- Reg > CPA- Reg- Business Law > Flashcards

CPA- Reg- Business Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key points of the 1933 Securities Act?

A

Governs Initial Public Offerings (not subsequent sales). Covers registration statements and accompanying information filed with SEC. Information must include audited financial statements & a prospectus. Note: Even if a company is exempt from registering under the 1934 Act; they still must adhere to the anti-fraud provisions of the Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What entities are exempt from filing registration statements under the 1933 Securities Act?

A

Banks; Commercial Paper; Farmers; Co-ops; Charities; Governments

Also exempt: Securities sold in ONE state; where investors are residents; 80% of business done in one state; and resales can’t occur within 9 months to interstate parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the key points of the 1933 Securities Act; Regulation A?

A

Issuer can issue $50M of securities per year and be exempt if they file a notice with the SEC

Non-issuers (AKA a private individual) can sell $1.5M per year and be exempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Under the 1933 Securities Act; Regulation D; what are Rules 504; 505 and 506?

A

Rule 504- Max Amount per year: $1M; Max Investors: Unlimited

Rule 505 - Max Amount per year: $5M; Max Investors: 35 Unaccredited or Unlimited Accredited

Rule 506 - Max Amount per year: Unlimited; Same as 505; but Unaccredited investors must be sophisticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the registration form options under the 1933 Securities Act?

A

S-1 - Long Form or

S-2 and S-3 - Less Detailed and preferred by issuers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the securities registered under the Securities Act of 1933.

A 
Stocks
Stock Options
Stock Warrants
Limited Partnership Interests - General Partnerships not allowed
Bonds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who can sue under the Securities Act of 1933?

A

Purchasers of securities only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the Requirements for Accountant to be liable under the Securities Act of 1933.

A

Damages & Material Misstatements Only

o Reliance on financial statements are not a requirement unless purchased more than a year after the security is registered

Proving negligence is not a requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the Defenses of an Accountant under the Securities Act of 1933.

A

Accountant used Due Diligence

Accountant followed GAAP

Damages weren’t caused by accountant’s work

Plaintiff knew of the material misstatements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the Securities Act of 1934 govern?

A

The trading/selling of securities after the IPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What reports must be filed under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Form 10-K Annual Report - Must be audited

Form 10-Q Quarterly Report - Must be reviewed; but not audited

Form 8-K - A notice of a material event; Must be filed within 4 days of event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who can sue under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Purchases and Sellers of Securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the Requirements for an Accountant to be liable for fraud under the Securities Act of 1934.

A

Damages

Material Misstatements

Reliance on financial statements

Scienter or reckless disregard for the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What procedures must an Accountant have in place under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Accountant must have procedures in place to:
Determine if Going Concern is an issue
Determine if any material related party transactions occurred

Determine if material illegal acts occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Insider trading rules under the Securities Act of 1934 apply to which individuals?

A

Officers; Directors and 10% Owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the Proxy Solicitation Requirements under the Securities Act of 1934?

A

Proxy must give shareholders audited balance sheets from 2 most recent years

o Requirement holds true even if one class of stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the basic actions that occur in a bankruptcy?

A

Bankruptcy gives creditors protection from their creditors and stops them from either permanently (Chapter 7) or temporarily (Chapter 11 or 13) collecting a debt. The filing halts collection activity; grants automatic stay (with certain exceptions), and stops creditors from suing debtor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For what debts does bankruptcy NOT stop collections?

A 
Student Loans
Income taxes from previous 3 years
Alimony & Child Support
Debts/judgements resulting from drunk driving
Pension obligations
Debts relating to SOX violations
Debts arising from illegal activities
Debts not listed in the bankruptcy filing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does bankruptcy of a corporation affect the owner’s ability to file bankruptcy?

A

It doesn’t; because the corporation is a separate legal entity.

Under bankruptcy; corporations are dissolved

Under bankruptcy; individuals are discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What key action will cause a bankruptcy discharge to be denied?

A

If a debtor fails to keep good records or falsifies documents; a discharge will be denied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 7 bankruptcy (liquidation)?

A

Discharges all non-exempt debt

Can only be filed every 8 years from previous Chapter 7 filing

Voluntary or involuntary filing

Certain businesses are disallowed from Chapter 7 bankruptcies - Railroads; Banks; Insurance companies; Savings & loans (think: 7th inning RBIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the requirements for a voluntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

Must pass means test

Your income must be below the median income for your state (Note - median; i.e. middle; not mean; i.e. average)

Credit card companies made it harder for people to declare Chapter 7 when they lobbied Congress in 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the requirements for an involuntary bankruptcy filing under Chapter 7?

A

In some cases; your creditors can force you into Chapter 7 or Chapter 11 BK

Creditors must be able to prove that they are not being paid on time (i.e. debtor is insolvent) or that within the past 120 days the debtor assigned a custodian of the secured property

If 12+ unsecured creditors - at least 3 must file; claims must be in excess of $15325

If less than 12 unsecured creditors - only 1 must file; claim(s) must be in excess of $15325

Upon filing; a judge will declare an order for relief unless the debtor protests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What entities are disallowed from involuntary Chapter 7 bankruptcy filings?

A

Charities

Farms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How can a debtor reclaim possession of their property from the interim bankruptcy under Chapter 7?

A

If the debtor pays the court-assigned bond to keep a property in an involuntary BK; they can
reclaim possession of their property from the interim BK trustee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 11 bankruptcy (business repayment) filing?

A

Allows a business a reprieve from creditors
Creates a payment plan for the debt
Business remains in operation
At least 2/3 of each debt class of creditors must consent to reorganization
Ch. 11 Involuntary petitions are allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a Chapter 13 bankruptcy (personal repayment) filing?

A

Similar to Chapter 11; but for individuals

Gives individuals a reprieve from creditors

Creates a payment plan for the debt

Ch. 13 Involuntary petitions are not allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the duties and abilities of a bankruptcy trustee?

A

Represents the bankruptcy estate

Can sue or be sued

Oversees bankruptcy and watches for preferential creditor payments

Oversees priority transfer of assets to creditors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How and when is a bankruptcy trustee appointed?

A

Optional - Creditors decide

Can be elected by creditors or can be appointed by the court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What actions can a bankruptcy trustee take with respect to preferential creditor payments in a bankruptcy?

A

Trustee can void payments on antecedent (past) debts that occur within 90 days of a BK filing

A Trustee cannot void a payment made to a creditor that is an even swap (contemporaneous exchange) and for new value

A voidable preference must be on an old debt where the debtor is basically picking and choosing which creditors they send money to (AKA a voidable preference)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can preferential transfers be voided by a bankruptcy (BK) trustee?

A

Made within One Year of BK to insider - Corporate officers/directors; Partners; Relatives

Made within 3 Months of BK non-insider

Creditor receives larger payment than BK liquidation would have granted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the treatment of a secured creditor in a bankruptcy?

A

Superior to claims of other types of creditors

Can take either collateral or cash proceeds from the sale of an asset

If collateral doesn’t satisfy amount owed; Secured Creditors become a general creditor for the difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the order of priority given to unsecured creditors in a bankruptcy?

A
  1. BK Trustee and Attorney fees get paid before all other unsecured credit cards
  2. Salaries required to continue business once BK proceedings begin
  3. Any claims filed resulting from business operations that occur after involuntary BK is filed
  4. Wages owed to employees
  5. Retirement contributions within last 6 months
  6. Consumer deposits for undelivered goods
  7. Child Support & Alimony
  8. Taxes
  9. Other general unsecured claims
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are key aspects of a bankruptcy involving a landlord or leases under Chapter 7?

A

The bankruptcy trustee can act in the best interest of the creditors and assign the leases under contract to the creditors

The trustee has 60 days to assume leases on equipment after bankruptcy is granted or the leases will be rejected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the bankruptcy estate?

A

The pool of assets available to creditors until liquidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What assets are exempt from creditors in a bankruptcy estate?

A

Social security

Disability payments

Unemployment; Child Support; Alimony; Wages; Pensions; Annuities to the extent that they provide reasonable support for debtor and dependents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long after a Chapter 7 bankruptcy filing can creditors claim inheritance or insurance payments for repayment?

A

Inheritance/Insurance payments received within 180 days of filing for a Chapter 7 bankruptcy become part of the BK Estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a garnishment with respect to a bankruptcy?

A

Court allows a creditor to garnish or take a portion of the debtor’s paycheck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a mechanics lien?

A

Lien on real property to secure payment for a repair/improvement done to the house

A contractor builds an addition to your house and you won’t pay. They can’t repo your house; so they get a Mechanics Lien that sticks until you sell your house and they get paid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an artisan’s lien?

A

Applies to personal property like a car

If the dealership does $500 in repairs to your car; you don’t get the car back until you pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a surety (co-signing)?

A

A third party agrees to be liable for a loan

Example: A parent co-signs on their child’s car loan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is a surety liable in a transaction?

A

A surety is primarily liable

Surety can be released from liability if the creditor behaves in a way that increases the risk that they
initially agreed to

Surety can be released from liability if the debtor changes the loan agreement in a way that materially
increases the surety’s risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a cosurety; and how are they liable in a transaction?

A

Two sureties are guaranteeing the same debt

Proportionately liable - If one cosurety is released from their obligation; then the remaining cosureties
have their proportionate share reduced by the released party’s percentage

If one surety pays more than their proportionate share of the risk; then the other sureties must compensate them for the difference; which is called Right of Contribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a guarantor?

A

Similar to surety; but a guarantor is secondarily liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the basic rights of a debtor under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act?

A

Basically - your creditors have the right to collect from you; but not abuse you or embarrass you

The can’t contact you once you’re represented by an attorney

They can call other people to find out where you are; but they cannot identify themselves as collectors

They must stop calling you at work if you send them a certified letter that says my employer doesn’t allow me to take calls at work.

They must call you only at reasonable hours of the day - according to your time zone; not theirs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Agency Law?

A

Agency Law deals with someone’s ability to bind you to a contract with a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is required for Agency to exist?

A

Both parties must consent to the relationship and intend for an Agency relationship to exist

Agent owes Principal fiduciary duty

Principal doesn’t owe Agent fiduciary duty

A contract is NOT required and an Agency agreement is not based on Contract Law; Exception - If duties cannot be performed within a year; a signed writing is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Actual Authority in an agency?

A

Actual Authority is what is expressly granted or is implied by the duties you expect the Agent to perform and is necessary to carry them out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Implied Authority in an agency?

A

When authority is expressly granted; it is implied that the agent has the authority to carry out the duties

Does not include authority to sell or alter a business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Apparent (Ostensible) Authority in an agency?

A

Apparent Authority is based on the third party’s perspective - they believe that the Agent has the
authority to enter into a contract based on:

  • Prior dealings with agent
  • Agent’s title leads the third party to believe they can enter into a contract
  • The Principal hires the Agent to carry out duties that normally carry with them the rights to enter into contracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is an Agency terminated?

A
  • Both Agent and Principal agree to terminate
  • Principal fires Agent
  • Agent fires Principal
  • Agent breaches their contract by doing something like violating their obligation to act as a fiduciary to Principal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do you terminate Apparent Authority?

A
  • Let the public know
  • Let the people or entities that the Agent previously interacted with know
  • In cases of death; or Principal is otherwise not competent to contract; ALL authority is revoked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an Agency Coupled with an Interest?

A

Agent acquires an ownership interest in the Agency

Can only be terminated early (before the interest expiration date) by the Agent

Unless the Agency has a specific time limit spelled out in a contract; the Agent’s authority is irrevocable
by the Principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When is an employee an Agent; and when does this make the employer liable?

A

Employees are agents while acting within the scope of their duties.

For employees who injure third parties while acting within the scope of their duties; both Employee and Employer are liable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When are Agents liable for torts (civil wrongs) they commit?

A

Agents are liable for torts (civil wrongs) committed whether they had authority or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Are Agents who act outside of their authority liable?

A

Agents who act outside of their authority will be liable for the act

Exception - Principal ratifies the contract which relieves Agent of liability

In order to ratify; Principal must know all of the facts and must ratify before third party cancels agreement

If Principal keeps the benefits of the contract; ratification is implied

Contract must be 100% ratified or there is no contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an Agent’s liability when acting for an undisclosed principle?

A
  • Agent liable to third party even if acting within authority
  • Third party can sue both Principal and Agent if Principal becomes disclosed
  • Agent can then sue Principal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the requirements for a Power of Attorney (POA)?

A

Must be in writing

Must be signed by person granting the POA

Ends upon death of Principal

General POA - Agent authorized to handle all affairs

Special POA - Agent authorized to handle only specific affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the key elements of a valid Partnership?

A

Must have two or more partners. Must intend to engage in business for profit. Life of partnership is of limited duration in most cases. Agency/fiduciary relationship is created. Partnership interest is always considered personal property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Can corporations and other partnerships become partners in a partnership?

A

Yes; corporations and other partnerships can become partners of a partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name the Basics of Partnership Formation - Form of agreement and intent

A

Agreement can be very informal - either ORAL; IMPLIED or WRITTEN

Intent is to make a profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When must a partnership agreement be in writing?

A

Must be WRITTEN if partnership activity falls within Statute of Frauds:

A. Can’t be completed in 1 year

B. Even if partners reside in different states; not necessary unless within Statute of Frauds

C. Neither dollar amount of transactions nor purchasing of real estate has bearing on whether partnership agreement must be in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How are profits shared in a partnership?

A

Profit sharing is equal by default

A. Unless partnership agreement says otherwise

B. Unless specified; sharing of losses follows same pattern as sharing of profits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Liability of General Partners in a partnership?

A

Joint Liability - Partners are collectively liable for debts/torts

Several Liability - Partners are individually liable for debts/torts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which assets may creditors of a partnership go after; and in which order?

A

Creditors must go after partnership assets first before suing partners individually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the rights of a General Partner in a partnership?

A

General Partners have joint control over the management of the partnership and its affairs

Unanimous vote needed to change the structure of the partnership

Each partner has full right to inspect partnership accounting and business

Partner has the authority to assign their interest to another partner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does and does NOT happen when a General Partner assigns their partnership interest to someone else?

A
  1. Other party gets that partner’s share of the profits and/or capital contribution.
  2. Does NOT give assignee authority to vote on partnership business
  3. Assignee does NOT have right to inspect partnership books
  4. Assignor still maintains liability
  5. Partner does NOT have the right to assign their interest in partnership property or allow partner’s creditors to attach a lien.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the actual authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

Has authority to bind the partners to a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the APPARENT authority of a partner in a partnership?

A

A third party reasonably believes partner has authority to bind partnership to contract

Cannot use apparent authority to add a new partner

Cannot use apparent authority to sell or bind partnership assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

With respect to liability on subsequent debts; what happens when a partner withdraws from a partnership?

A

Partner not liable assuming notice given.

Notice must be given to nullify apparent authority

People who had knowledge of their role must be personally notified

Public must be notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

With respect to PRECEDING debts; what is the liability of a partner in a partnership?

A

Old partners: Jointly and severally liable unless creditors grant novation

New partners: Only capital account at risk on preceding debts. For subsequent debts; they are joint and severally liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens upon the death of a partner in a partnership?

A

Partner’s estate gets share of partnership profits and capital account

Estate does NOT get any partnership assets

Remainder of partners own partnership assets

Heirs of decedent are not added as partners unless remaining partners unanimously agree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens during the winding up of a partnership and in what order?

A
  1. Creditors get paid; Partners can also be creditors
  2. Distributions in arrears get paid
  3. Partners get return of Capital accounts
  4. Any remaining distributions

Note: NO documents need to be filed with state to dissolve general partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the requirements to form a Limited Partnership?

A

Governed by state L.P. laws

Must file L.P. certificate with Sec. of State

Only General Partners must be listed

Future additions or subtractions of G.P. require certificate to be updated with state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How are profits and losses split in a Limited Partnership?

A

Unlike G.P.; L.P. profits/losses are split according to capital contributions by default

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or False: In a Limited Partnership; a General Partner can also be a Limited Partner at
the same time.

A

True.

A Limited Partner; however; cannot also be a General Partner and maintain limited liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Do limited partners have a fiduciary responsibility to a Limited Partnership?

A

No. Limited Partners are do not have a fiduciary responsibility to Limited Partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What authority does a limited partner have under a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. Right to inspect records of the business.
  2. Can still vote on partnership business without losing limited liability
  3. Can consult and advise partnership without losing limited liability (assuming they don’t actually make the decisions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What limitations does a limited partner have in a Limited Partnership?

A
  1. They have no authority as an agent to bind the partnership
  2. They can’t participate in management decisions and maintain limited liability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the liability of a limited partner in a Limited Partnership?

A

Limited partners are liable to the extent of their capital contributions only

Exception - A Limited Partner (who cannot participate in management decisions) becomes involved with management decisions

Becomes liable to third parties IF they knew of their involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When does the dissolution of a Limited Partnership occur?

A

Automatically happens

  1. Once final General Partner leaves
  2. Time specified in certificate lapses
  3. Event specified in certificate happens
  4. Unanimous consent by partners
  5. Illegal activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is required to form a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)?

A
  1. Majority vote required to form LLP
  2. Articles of LLP filed with Secretary of State
  3. Governed by laws of that State
  4. Limited Liability Partnership must be in name
  5. No General Partners - each LLP partner has limited liability - Exception: Negligence of partner or those under partner’s supervision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the key aspects of a Limited Liability Company (LLC)?

A

Members can participate in management and retain limited liability

Members don’t own any interest in LLC property

Members can assign interest; but not transfer it

Members divide profits equally unless otherwise stated

84
Q

What are the key aspects of Joint Ventures (JV)?

A

Similar to a General Partnership; except generally; a JV is for a single business activity
Example: two companies promote a concert

Ability to bind other JV partners is limited

JV partners still have a fiduciary responsibility to JV

No state filings or paperwork necessary

85
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation?

A

Shareholders have limited liability to the extent of their capital contribution

C Corporations have a perpetual life and continue even after shareholder death

Corporations are a separate legal entity from their owners and can own property; sue; be sued

Corporations must file Articles of Incorporation in state of governance

86
Q

What are some of the advantages of a corporation?

A

Ability to raise capital

Limited liability - unless actions occur that pierce the veil

Ease of ownership transfer

87
Q

What actions can pierce the veil of a corporation?

A

Commingling of assets

Fraud

Under-capitalization

88
Q

How is a corporation governed?

A

Board adopts Corporate Bylaws to govern company business

89
Q

What items are required in a corporations Articles of Incorporation?

A

Name; purpose; powers of Corporation

Name of registered agent & incorporators

Stock share classes authorized; par values

Name of corporate officers NOT required

90
Q

What is the biggest disadvantage of a corporation?

A

Double taxation

91
Q

How are corporations formed by promoters?

A

Promoter issues prospectus; arranges capital; and is a fiduciary of the corporation.

A promoter may profit from work performed if the corporation is aware of it.

92
Q

When is a corporation liable for pre-incorporation actions taken by a Promoter?

A

Promoter personally liable unless third party agrees to a novation and releases Promoter
from liability; UNLESS the corporation adopts.

93
Q

In how many states must a corporation incorporate?

A

Corporations are only incorporated in one state

Become adomestic corp. in that state

Become aforeign corp. in any other state they do business in

94
Q

Describe Common Stock dividends and their rights/liabilities in relation to shareholders/corporations.

A

Dividends are NOT a shareholder right

Once declared; dividends become a liability to corporation

95
Q

What are key aspects related to the holding of Preferred Stock?

A

No voting rights

Get first rights to dividends and liquidation

Cumulative Preferred Stock dividends that go undeclared accumulate and Corporation must pay it before issuing dividends to Common Stockholders

Participating Preferred Stock gives shareholder right to dividends in addition to what they get as Preferred Stockholders

96
Q

What aspects are related to all classes of corporate stock?

A

Valid consideration must be given for shares

Cash; property; or services performed

No promises to pay or perform services

97
Q

What are the key aspects of Treasury Stock?

A

No Gain/Loss recognized on Treasury stock

Have no voting rights

Can be re-purchased below par

Cannot produce dividends

98
Q

What is a stock subscription and what is required for it to be valid?

A

An offer to buy shares of stock

Must be accepted by corporation to be valid

Offer cannot be revoked for 6 months

Subscriber becomes liable once accepted

99
Q

When is a corporation liable for torts by employees?

A

If committed within the normal scope of the employee’s job

Even if they were disobeying orders

Per respondeat superior

100
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporate officer?

A

Appointed by the Board of Directors

Act as Agents

Owe a fiduciary duty to the corporation

Can have legal fees paid by corporation for defense in lawsuit brought on them from carrying out their normal duties (exception- suit brought against officers by shareholders)

101
Q

What are the key aspects of a corporation’s board of directors (BOD)?

A

Elected by shareholders

Owe fiduciary duty to corporation

Must act in good faith to avoid being liable for bad judgment

Good faith is NOT a defense for negligence

102
Q

What is Ultra Vires?

A

Corporation management acting beyond what the Articles of Incorporation allow

Shareholders can sue for Ultra Vires

103
Q

When is inspecting Board minutes the right of a shareholder?

A

Shareholders can inspect Board minutes and records only if request is in good faith

104
Q

Who must approve mergers and consolidations?

A

Boards must approve

Shareholders must approve by Majority

Disapproving shareholders can get an appraisal and get their stock back at current market price

Merger does NOT need creditor approval

105
Q

What characterizes a Professional Corporation?

A

Shares owned only by licensed professionals (CPAs; attorneys; etc.)

Limited Liability for debts

Personal Liability for negligence

106
Q

Who can and cannot own an S-Corporation?

A

CAN be owned by Estates; Trusts; and Individuals

CANNOT be owned by a C-Corporation

107
Q

What is the primary advantage of an S-Corporation?

A

Avoidance of Double Taxation

108
Q

What are the disadvantages of an S-Corporation?

A

No more than 100 shareholders allowed

One class of stock allowed

Shareholders must be US Citizens/Residents

109
Q

What is a promissory note?

A

A promise to pay a specific amount. There are two parties involved - maker and a payee. It can reference other transactions without harming the instruments negotiability. Example: Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD)

110
Q

What is a draft?

A

A commercial paper involving three parties- a drawer; a payee and a drawee

A drawer orders a sum to be paid to a payee by the drawee

May be payable on demand or in the future

111
Q

What is a check?

A

A check is a type of draft that is payable ON DEMAND; payable to order of drawer or bearer

Drawer - person writing the check

Payee - person being paid

Drawee - the bank

112
Q

What is the difference between a post-dated check and a negotiable time draft?

A

A check is payable on demand; even if post-dated.

A negotiable time draft is not payable until the date designated for payment.

113
Q

What is a trade acceptance?

A

Seller extends credit to Buyer

Buyer agrees to pay Seller - Buyer has primary liability

Seller is both Drawer and Payee - Seller has Secondary Liability

114
Q

What is the purpose of the negotiation of commercial paper?

A

Transfers ownership to another party

115
Q

What is required to maintain the negotiability of a commercial paper?

A

Must be in writing

Signed by drawer/maker

Be without conditions for payment (other than limitations on payment sources)

Amount of money must be stated

Payable to order or bearer

116
Q

What characteristics will cancel the negotiability of a commercial paper?

A

An additional promise is stated in addition to the promise to pay (like the option to purchase Real Estate)

The promise to pay occurs after some action by another party or an event; it cancels negotiability

Cannot allow for an alternative such as payment or some other action by the maker

Note: a stated amount of payment plus a stated % of interest is OK

117
Q

What is required to negotiate Order Paper?

A

Must have delivery and endorsement

If paper is exchanged for value; transferor must give an UNQUALIFIED endorsement

118
Q

What are the major types of endorsements on commercial paper?

A

Blank - Doesnt name a new payee; transforms into a bearer paper

Special - Names a new payee; transforms into an order paper

Restrictive - Adds restrictions; doesnt stop further negotiation

Qualified - Payment not guaranteed; without recourse added to endorsement

119
Q

If endorsed; within what amount of time must a check be presented for payment in order to hold the ENDORSER liable?

A

Within 7 days

120
Q

On a commercial paper; which value will supersede - words or numerical dollar amount?

A

Written amount supersedes the numerical dollar amount.

For example; if the words say One hundred dollars and the numerical amount states $1000.00; the value of the paper will be $100.00.

121
Q

Define primary liability with respect to a contract.

A

First in line to pay on the note/draft

Maker of a Promissory Note has primary liability and must pay according to terms of the note

With a Check; no party has Primary Liability

Exception: Drawee (your bank) is primarily liable to pay if they certify - i.e. promise to
pay

122
Q

Define secondary liability with respect to contract liability

A

Drawers are Secondarily Liable if Drawee fails to pay a Draft

Endorsers (the payee) are secondarily liable

Holder in due course can hold Endorser liable

Exception: Endorsed Without Recourse

123
Q

Define contract liability.

A

Guarantees payment of a liability

124
Q

When does warranty liability occur?

A

Occurs when you negotiate commercial paper

By signing; you warrant to all future parties

By not signing; you warrant to current party only

125
Q

What five warranties occur with every commercial paper transfer?

A

Warranty of Title

No defense will stand against it

No material alteration

No knowledge of bankruptcy proceedings

All signatures are legitimate

126
Q

What are the requirements for a holder to be a holder in due course?

A

Holding a negotiable instrument

Taking instrument in Good Faith - Even if you buy a stolen note and you dont know that its stolen; youre still an HDC

Having no knowledge of defenses again instrument; i.e. problems with the instrument

Giving a present value for the instrument (a future value doesnt count)

127
Q

What are the personal defenses against a holder in due course (HDC) which will LOSE?

A

An HDC takes an instrument free of Personal Defenses (LOSE vs. HDC)

Lack of consideration/value given
Breach of contract/warranty
Duplicate payments
Fraud (in the inducement only)
Voidable contracts

128
Q

What are the REAL defenses against a holder in due course (HDC); which will WIN?

A

A holder in due course takes an instrument subject to Real Defenses (WIN vs. HDC)

Material alterations to the instrument
Forgery
Bankruptcy
Maker not competent to Contract
Fraud in the execution

129
Q

What must a contract contain?

A

Offer, Acceptance, Consideration, Proper form (oral or written), Legal subject matter, 2 Competent parties

130
Q

What forms may acceptance of a contract take?

A

Can be written or oral

Must be in the form/method required by offeror

Must be mirror image - i.e. no changes in terms

131
Q

Who can accept an offer?

A

Must be accepted by intended party (offeree)

Acceptance can only be made by a party who knows an offer has been made and has all of the facts - AKA a meeting of the minds

They must intend to accept

132
Q

What happens if an offeree accepts a contract but puts added stipulations?

A

It is not acceptance; but instead becomes a counter-offer and the original offeror is now the offeree

133
Q

When is an offeror bound by a contract?

A

When they RECEIVE the acceptance.

If the offeree rejects; then accepts - whatever gets to the offeror first is what is binding.

134
Q

What will void an offer?

A

If offeror dies or becomes insane before acceptance; offer is void.

Contract is binding if acceptance occurs before death/insanity.

135
Q

What actions or circumstances will revoke a contract?

A

Offeror revokes and offeree receives revocation

Offeree finds out prior to acceptance that offeror has sold the item

In the case of an Option; offeror cannot revoke until the time of the option has elapsed

Initial rejection by offeree doesn’t void the option.

136
Q

What is an Option?

A

Some amount of consideration (like money) is put forth by offeror to keep the offer open for a
stated period of time

137
Q

What is a Requirements Contract? How are they limited?

A

These are contracts where someone becomes the exclusive provider of something in exchange for
consideration

Companies can’t get locked in to one and then have market conditions force them to sell something at
what has become an unreasonable price

138
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Promises to donate are legally enforceable

Basically; you can’t tell a charity; Hey; if you buy this
$100;000 piece of land; I’ll pay for the building that
will go on it; and then renege on your promise

139
Q

What can make a contract VOID?

A

Fraud in the execution

Formed under extreme duress - extreme

Illegal

140
Q

What can make a contract VOIDABLE?

A

Fraud in the inducement

Party not competent to contract

Formed under SIMPLE duress

Undue influence

141
Q

What is the result of a clerical error in a contract?

A

The contract is unenforceable.

Example: Person signs a contract to pay $500.00 to have
their lawn re-seeded but due to clerical error; it actually reads $5000.00

142
Q

Contracts under the Statute of Frauds must be in what form to be valid?

A

They must be in writing.

143
Q

What makes a contract subject to the Statute of Frauds?

A

o Cannot be completed within one year
o Involves the purchase of real estate
o $500+ Sale of Goods
o Co-signing and guaranteeing the debt of another

144
Q

What is the parol evidence rule?

A

Prevents one party to a written contract from coming in after the fact and claiming that a certain
conversation took place that conflicts with what is agreed upon in the written contract

It also prevents using an oral argument to read into the meaning of what is written on paper

If it’s on paper; it trumps what was agreed-upon orally prior to the written contract

Note: does not negate oral agreements made AFTER the contract or disallow oral words from clarifying ambiguous contract language.

145
Q

What are the requirements for the assignment of a contract?

A

Contracts are assignable to a third party beneficiary; but must be done so in good faith

Obligations may be assignable- Assignor is still liable

Assignor may be released from liability if other party grants a novation

146
Q

When can contracts be discharged by law?

A

Party under contract is bankrupt

Party under contract dies or is incapacitated

Party cannot physically complete the contract (i.e. They are in prison so can’t finish building your house)

147
Q

What is considered the biggest change to financial regulation since the Great Depression of the 1930s?

A

The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform Act of 2010

148
Q

What is the goal of the Volcker Rule?

A

Banking Institutions maintain healthy capitalization ratios

149
Q

How does the Volcker Rule limit banking institutions?

A

Limits banking institutions from owning more than 3% of a hedge fund’s total ownership interest

Limits banking institutions from owning interests in hedge funds that exceed 3% of their Tier 1 Capital (Common Stock + Retained Earnings + non-redeemable; non-cumulative Preferred Stock)

150
Q

What does the Volcker Rule require banking institutions to disclose?

A

Relationships with hedge funds must be fully disclosed to regulators

151
Q

Describe the Federal Unemployment Tax Act

A

An employer-paid tax. Must file return and pay even if only one employee works there. Deductible to company - Not deductible by the employee. Allows employers to credit the FUTA liability by the amount of State Unemployment Tax (SUTA) they pay.

152
Q

What are the major aspects of FICA and Social Security taxes?

A

Paid by Employer AND Employee - Employer withholds from employee’s paycheck and must pay tax matching employee’s withholding

If employer under-withholds; they are required to make up the difference

Self-employed individuals must pay both the employer and the employee share; which is Self Employment Tax

People drawing Social Security may have their benefits reduced if they go back to work and earn an income

153
Q

When is an employee covered by Workman’s Compensation?

A

Employees injured on the job get protection; even if they messed up and caused the injury themselves

Exception: If the employee intentionally harmed themselves; there is no Workman’s Compensation

154
Q

What age group is protected under Age Discrimination Laws?

A

They protect people ages 40 and above at companies where at least 20 people are employed

155
Q

What are the tenets of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)?

A

Employers should promote a safe workplace and environment for their employees to work in

Injury records must be kept
Penalties can be both
o Civil - $1;000 fine per day
o Criminal - Could include imprisonment

Employer can require a search warrant for OSHA to investigate their facilities

156
Q

What types of discrimination are prohibited for employers based on civil rights laws?

A

Sex

Race

Religion

National Origin

157
Q

What are the powers granted under the Environmental Protection Act?

A

EPA has the power to assess civil penalties for violating environmental laws like the Clean Air Act
The EPA can sue violators
Citizens can sue violators
States can sue violators
Citizens can even sue the EPA to force enforcement
For hazardous waste sites: owners; operators; transporters; and lenders associated with the site can
be held liable

158
Q

What is the revenue limit for an Emerging Growth Company IPO?

A

$1 Billion

159
Q

For an Emerging Growth Company IPO, how many years of audited financial statements are required?

A

2 years

160
Q

How did Reg D, Rule 506 change under the JOBS Act?

A

General Solicitation and Advertising now allowed

161
Q

Under the JOBS Act, what is the capital ceiling under Regulation A?

A

Reg. A Capital ceiling raised from $5M to $50M

162
Q

Under the JOBS Act Title V - Private Company Flexibility and Growth, what is the shareholder limit if there are less than 500 non-accredited shareholders?

A

2,000

163
Q

What is the purpose of a Consulting Engagement?

A

This engagement helps the client be more efficient with personnel and resources in order to accomplish their goals.

164
Q

What is required by the Statements on Standards for Consulting Services (SSCS)?

A

Competence; Due Professional Care; Planning; Supervision; Obtain Sufficient Data; Serve Client Interest; Agreement: Written or Oral; Communicate w/ Client; Objectivity

NOT REQUIRED: Independence

165
Q

What is the difference between Express versus Implied duties of an accountant under contract?

A

Express: Contract specifies what accountant will do

Implied: Accountant performs without negligence

166
Q

Accountant’s liability for negligence - What are the requirements?

A

DUTY - DAMAGES - RESULT

Duty - Accountant must have had duty to perform with due care exercised by an average accountant.

Damages - The client experienced actual damages.

Result/Causation - The damages were as a result of the negligence.

167
Q

What is an Accountant’s Liability for Detecting Fraud
(Under Normal Circumstances)?

A

It is not the accountant’s job to find fraud and they are not normally liable for not detecting it

168
Q

When can a client be sued for failing to detect fraud?

A

When a normal audit following GAAS would have detected the fraud.

When an accountant agrees to take on more responsibility than what is required under a normal audit.

When accountant words the audit report to indicate this greater responsibility.

169
Q

When has an accountant committed fraud?

A

Misrepresentation - Accountant misrepresents MATERIAL fact(s)

Scienter - Accountant commits scienter

Damages - Client has actual damages.

Reasonable Reliance - Client reasonably relied on the misinformation.

170
Q

What is Scienter?

A

To report something knowing it is false.

Characterized by reckless disregard for truth

Intentionally conceal facts

171
Q

What is the Accountant’s Liability to Third Parties - Privity Defense?

A

Lack of privity defends against contract breach and negligence.

NOT a defense against fraud.

172
Q

The definition of Ultramares Decision:

A

Accountants are not liable to third parties unless the third party was an
intended beneficiary of the engagement AND the accountant knew they
would be relying on the financial statements.

173
Q

What is Common Law Fraud?

A

Regular fraud

Misrepresentation of Material Fact
Scienter
Damages
Reasonable Reliance

174
Q

What is Constructive Fraud?

A

Gross Negligence - reckless disregard for truth

CPAs usually not liable for simple negligence; but Gross Negligence (aka Constructive Fraud) opens the CPA up to be liable to third parties.

175
Q

What are the required actions with Discovery of Illegal Activity?

A

Accountant must report discovered illegal activity to Audit Committee or Board of Directors

If material in public company; BOD has 1 DAY to notify SEC.

176
Q

What is the Accountant-Client Privilege?

A

NO Federal Accountant-Client privilege for non-disclosure of private
conversations to a court unless a particular state recognizes such a privilege.

If your client tells you Yeah; I cheated on my taxes; a court could force an accountant to testify about that conversation.

177
Q

Accountant’s Workpapers - Confidentiality Requirements

A
  1. Can be subpoenaed
  2. Can be looked at by another CPA doing peer review
  3. Property of the accountant who created them

Note: Source documents supplied by client must be returned to client if they request them back; even if there is a billing dispute.

178
Q

True or False: Accountants are responsible for knowing the personal finances of tax preparation clients.

A

Accountants have no way of auditing individual’s personal finances and are not required to do so when preparing a return

179
Q

When a past error is found in a client’s tax return; what should an accountant do?

A

If a past error is found; accountant should inform client of this error.

Contacting the IRS is NOT required.

If client won’t fix it; then the accountant should reconsider whether they want to do business with the client

180
Q

Name the key responsibilities of an accountant when preparing a tax return.

A

Accountant must prepare the return in good faith and ask for more information if something is missing

When recommending a tax position; the accountant should realistically believe that it would stand up under the scrutiny of a court

181
Q

What does Real Property include?

A

Land, Buildings fixed to the land, and Property under/above the land.

182
Q

What are the characteristics of a deed?

A 
Must be in writing
Signed
Description of Property
Delivered
Recorded
183
Q

What are the characteristics of a Mortgage?

A

Must be in writing
Signed
Description of property
Delivered

184
Q

What are the characteristics of a lease?

A

No writing required if < 1 year

Warranty of habitability is implied

Death does not terminate a lease

Sale of property does not terminate a lease

185
Q

What is personal property?

A

Tangible property; such as cars; equipment; etc.

Intangible property such as patents; trademarks; copyrights; etc.

186
Q

What are the three requirements for a gift?

A

Intent for it to be a gift

Delivery of the gift

Acceptance of the gift

187
Q

What are the rights of found property?

A

Lost property - Finder’s rights to property are less than Owner’s

Abandoned property - Finder’s rights to property are greater than Owner’s

188
Q

What is tenancy in common?

A

Undivided interest in a portion of the property

Upon death; property goes to decedent’s heirs

189
Q

What is joint tenancy?

A

Undivided interest in entire property

Upon death; property goes to other joint tenants

190
Q

What sales are covered under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC)?

A

Only sales of goods are covered under the UCC.

191
Q

What elements are needed for a sale covered under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC)?

A

Offer - You offer to sell something at a price

Acceptance - the other party accepts

Consideration - Something of value has been exchanged for the goods

Note: The UCC only covers sales of goods.

192
Q

What are the elements of a Firm Offer?

A

You offer to sell something at a price and keep that offer open for a set period of time

3 months max

Only merchants can make firm offers

Must be in writing and signed

193
Q

Under what situations are sales of goods covered by the Statute of Frauds? What are the exceptions?

A

If value of goods sold is > $500; sales contract must be in writing

Exceptions: Merchants can enter into oral contracts for > $500 items.

Oral contracts are binding for special or uniquely-made items (i.e. custom cabinets or custom furniture that could not be sold if buyer reneged)

194
Q

When does title and risk of loss transfer on a sale of goods?

A

If terms are:

FOB shipping point: Title transfers at point of shipment (i.e. when loaded on truck)

FOB destination: Title and risk transfers once item is delivered

195
Q

What is a Warranty of Title?

A

The seller has the right to sell the good and no one else can stake claim to that good

196
Q

What is Warranty of Merchantability?

A

This good will do its intended purpose

Can be disclaimed

197
Q

What is Warranty of Fitness?

A

This good is the right choice for you based on the seller’s expert opinion

Can be disclaimed

198
Q

What is strict liability with respect to buyer protection?

A

Manufacturers of goods cannot disclaim that their products will be safe

Can be liable if negligent

199
Q

What are non-conforming goods with respect to buyer protection?

A

Buyer can reject some or all of the shipment if the seller didn’t perform as agreed and ship what was expected

Must give notice

Must give seller a chance to remedy the situation

200
Q

What is the statute of limitations with respect to buyer protection?

A

Buyer must sue to recover damages within 4 years.

201
Q

When does a security interest attach; or become legally enforceable?

A

Secured interest must be supported by consideration given. Debtor must actually own the rights to the collateral or have possession. Secured interest much be recorded

202
Q

What are the characteristics of perfection of interest in a secured transaction?

A

Gets higher priority over others claiming rights to collateral after the perfection takes place

Attachment must take place BEFORE perfection

203
Q

How does perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

By filing a financing statement

By possessing the collateral

204
Q

When does automatic perfection occur in a secured transaction?

A

Store sells a consumer good on credit - Store retains security interest

A bank finances the purchase of a consumer good - Bank retains security interest

205
Q

What are the priority rules for payment in a secured transaction?

A

If two parties are perfected; then the first one to file wins

If neither party is perfected; then the first one to attach wins

206
Q

What are the advantages of a creditor holding a lien in a secured transaction?

A

Creditor holds priority over claims to collateral vs. unperfected security interests

Beats perfected security interests filed after lien attachment

Exceptions: Purchase money security interest; which has a 10 day grace period to be filed

Buyers purchasing in the ordinary course of business are immune from security interests held by merchants

CPA- Reg (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions